Cosmetic Facial Surgery — MCQs
Body dysmorphic disorder can be associated with all except
A patient with complaints of a deformed nose, despite reassurances from multiple plastic surgeons that there is no deformity, is most probably suffering from:
A nasal surgery was carried out with the incision shown in the image. What was the procedure likely carried out?
Which of the following parts of the nasal septum is the most common site for epistaxis?
Which of the following surgeries is contraindicated below 12 years of age?
Gold standard procedure to reduce recurrence of pterygium after surgical excision is
Using a small fine probe, a single lactiferous duct is excised. What is the name of the procedure:
Which of the following is a common topical use of the medicine shown in the image?
Not a landmark of facial nerve identification in parotid surgery:
SAFE strategy for trachoma includes all except?
Cosmetic Facial Surgery Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: Body dysmorphic disorder can be associated with all except
- A. Bulimia nervosa
- B. OCD
- C. Anxiety
- D. Mania (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Mania*** - **Mania** is a state of elevated, expansive, or irritable mood that is distinct from the persistent preoccupation with perceived bodily defects seen in **body dysmorphic disorder (BDD)**. - While agitation can occur in BDD, the core symptom profile of **mania**, including decreased need for sleep, grandiosity, and racing thoughts, is not a typical associated feature. *Bulimia nervosa* - **Bulimia nervosa** can co-occur with BDD, particularly when the perceived defects relate to body weight, shape, or specific body parts. - Both disorders involve intense preoccupation with body image and often lead to harmful behaviors to attempt to "correct" perceived flaws. *OCD* - **Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)** shares strong phenomenological similarities with BDD, including intrusive thoughts (obsessions) and repetitive behaviors (compulsions). - BDD is often conceptualized as part of the **OCD spectrum**, with both disorders involving obsessive thoughts and repetitive behaviors related to specific concerns. *Anxiety* - **Anxiety disorders** are highly comorbid with BDD, as individuals often experience significant distress, fear of judgment, and social avoidance due to their perceived flaws. - The constant preoccupation and efforts to conceal or fix perceived defects can lead to chronic anxiety and panic attacks.
Question 2: A patient with complaints of a deformed nose, despite reassurances from multiple plastic surgeons that there is no deformity, is most probably suffering from:
- A. Somatization disorder
- B. Delusional disorder (Correct Answer)
- C. OCD
- D. Hypochondriasis
Explanation: ***Body Dysmorphic Disorder (BDD) / Delusional Disorder (Somatic Type)*** - This is a **classic presentation of Body Dysmorphic Disorder (BDD)** characterized by preoccupation with a perceived defect in physical appearance that is **not observable or appears slight to others** - The nose is the **most common site of concern** in BDD - Patients typically seek reassurance from multiple specialists (plastic surgeons, dermatologists) despite objective evidence of no deformity - When the belief is held with **delusional intensity** (as in this case with multiple reassurances ignored), it can be classified as **delusional disorder, somatic type** - BDD is classified under Obsessive-Compulsive and Related Disorders in DSM-5 *Somatization disorder* - Involves **multiple medically unexplained physical symptoms** affecting various body systems over several years - Not characterized by a singular, fixed belief about a specific perceived physical defect - Patients present with numerous somatic complaints, not focused preoccupation with appearance *Hypochondriasis (Illness Anxiety Disorder)* - Characterized by **preoccupation with having or acquiring a serious illness** based on misinterpretation of bodily symptoms - The focus is on disease/illness, not appearance or physical defects - Different from concern about a perceived cosmetic deformity *OCD* - Involves **recurrent, intrusive thoughts (obsessions)** and **repetitive behaviors (compulsions)** performed to reduce anxiety - While BDD can have obsessive quality, this patient shows a fixed belief about deformity rather than ego-dystonic obsessions - No mention of compulsive rituals or behaviors in this case
Question 3: A nasal surgery was carried out with the incision shown in the image. What was the procedure likely carried out?
- A. Submucosal resection (SMR)
- B. FESS (Functional Endoscopic Sinus Surgery)
- C. Open rhinoplasty (Correct Answer)
- D. Caldwell-Luc's procedure
Explanation: ***Open rhinoplasty*** - The image displays a **transcolumellar incision** (typically inverted V or W-shaped), which is the hallmark approach for **open rhinoplasty**. - This incision allows for direct visualization of the underlying nasal cartilages and bones, enabling precise reshaping of the nose. *Submucosal resection (SMR)* - SMR is a procedure to correct a **deviated nasal septum** by removing cartilage or bone from beneath the mucoperichondrial flaps. - It involves an **intranasal incision**, usually along the septal mucosa, not an external transcolumellar incision. *FESS (Functional Endoscopic Sinus Surgery)* - FESS is a minimally invasive procedure used to treat **chronic sinusitis** and other sinus conditions. - It is performed entirely **endoscopically through the nostrils**, with no external incisions on the nasal columella. *Caldwell-Luc's procedure* - This procedure accesses the **maxillary sinus** through an incision in the upper gum beneath the lip. - It is used for drainage of the maxillary sinus or removal of foreign bodies/tumors, and does not involve an external nasal incision.
Question 4: Which of the following parts of the nasal septum is the most common site for epistaxis?
- A. Anterosuperior part of nasal septum
- B. Posterosuperior part of nasal septum
- C. Anteroinferior part of nasal septum (Correct Answer)
- D. Posteroinferior part of nasal septum
Explanation: ***Anteroinferior part of nasal septum*** - This region contains **Kiesselbach's plexus** (also known as Little's area), a highly vascularized area located in the anteroinferior nasal septum where four major arteries anastomose (anterior ethmoidal, sphenopalatine, greater palatine, and superior labial arteries). - Due to its **superficial location** and **rich blood supply**, Kiesselbach's plexus is the most common site for **epistaxis** (nosebleeds), accounting for approximately 90% of anterior nosebleeds. - This area is easily accessible and prone to trauma from nose picking, dry air, and minor injuries. *Anterosuperior part of nasal septum* - While part of the anterior septum, this region does not contain the dense vascular network of Kiesselbach's plexus. - It is less commonly associated with epistaxis compared to the anteroinferior region. *Posterosuperior part of nasal septum* - This area is supplied by branches of the **sphenopalatine artery** (Woodruff's plexus) and is associated with **posterior epistaxis**, which is less common but potentially more severe. - Posterior nosebleeds account for only about 10% of all epistaxis cases and typically occur in elderly patients or those with hypertension. *Posteroinferior part of nasal septum* - This region has a relatively less dense vascular supply compared to the anteroinferior or posterosuperior parts. - It is not a primary site for epistaxis and is less clinically significant for nasal bleeding.
Question 5: Which of the following surgeries is contraindicated below 12 years of age?
- A. SMR (Correct Answer)
- B. Rhinoplasty
- C. Septoplasty
- D. Antral puncture
Explanation: ***SMR (Submucous Resection of the septum)*** - SMR procedure involves removing a significant portion of the **septal cartilage and bone**, which is crucial for nasal growth. - Performing SMR before 12 years of age can lead to severe **facial growth disturbances**, such as a saddle nose deformity, due to interference with the septal growth plate. *Rhinoplasty* - While rhinoplasty is generally delayed until nasal growth is complete (around 15-16 years old for girls, 16-17 for boys), it is not absolutely contraindicated structurally before 12 in the same way SMR is. - The concern is primarily about final aesthetic outcome and patient maturity, not direct damage to major growth centers. *Septoplasty* - **Septoplasty** can be performed in younger children for severe nasal obstruction, especially if it significantly impacts breathing or sleep. - It involves reshaping or repositioning the **septal cartilage and bone** with minimal removal, preserving growth potential. *Antral puncture* - **Antral puncture** (or antral lavage) is a procedure to drain the maxillary sinus and can be performed at any age when indicated for sinusitis. - It does not interfere with facial growth as it targets the sinus cavity walls and does not involve the nasal septum.
Question 6: Gold standard procedure to reduce recurrence of pterygium after surgical excision is
- A. Thiotepa
- B. Amniotic membrane grafting
- C. Conjunctival autograft (Correct Answer)
- D. Beta-radiation
Explanation: ***Conjunctival autograft*** - **Conjunctival autografting** involves transplanting a piece of healthy conjunctiva from the superior bulbar conjunctiva to the bare scleral bed after pterygium excision, acting as a barrier to fibrovascular proliferation. - This technique has consistently shown the **lowest recurrence rates** in comparative studies, making it the **gold standard** for preventing pterygium recurrence due to its high success rate and safety profile. *Thiotepa* - **Thiotepa** is an **antimetabolite** that inhibits DNA synthesis and cell proliferation, used topically post-excision to reduce recurrence by suppressing fibroblast activity. - While it can lower recurrence rates compared to simple excision, its efficacy is generally **less than conjunctival autografting**, and it carries risks of corneal toxicity and limbal stem cell deficiency. *Amniotic membrane grafting* - **Amniotic membrane grafting** involves placing processed amniotic membrane over the scleral bed, which has anti-inflammatory, anti-scarring, and pro-epithelialization properties. - It is an effective option, especially for **large pterygia** or for patients at high risk of recurrence, but its recurrence rates are generally **not as low as those achieved with conjunctival autografting**, and the graft can sometimes detach. *B- radiation* - **Beta-radiation** (strontium-90) is a form of adjuvant therapy applied to the scleral bed immediately after pterygium excision to inhibit fibroblast proliferation and reduce recurrence. - It is effective but associated with potential complications such as **scleral melt**, corneal scarring, and cataract formation, making it a less preferred option than conjunctival autografting, especially in primary cases.
Question 7: Using a small fine probe, a single lactiferous duct is excised. What is the name of the procedure:
- A. Microdochectomy (Correct Answer)
- B. Hadfield operation
- C. Webster operation
- D. Macrodochectomy
Explanation: ***Microdochectomy*** - This procedure involves the **excision of a single, lactiferous duct** often identified using a fine probe or ductoscope. - It is typically performed to investigate or treat **pathological nipple discharge** originating from a specific duct. *Hadfield operation* - This is a more extensive procedure known as a **total duct excision** or **subareolar duct excision**. - It involves the removal of **all major lactiferous ducts** under the nipple, not just a single one. *Webster operation* - The Webster operation refers to an **inferior pedicle reduction mammoplasty** technique. - It is a type of **breast reduction surgery** and is not related to the excision of an isolated lactiferous duct. *Macrodochectomy* - This term is **not a recognized medical procedure** in the context of duct excision. - While "macro" implies large, it does not describe a specific surgical technique for duct removal.
Question 8: Which of the following is a common topical use of the medicine shown in the image?
- A. Rhino cerebral mucormycosis
- B. Inlay type I myringoplasty
- C. Post-adenoidectomy to control bleeding (Correct Answer)
- D. Subglottic stenosis
Explanation: ***Post-adenoidectomy to control bleeding*** - The image shows **Neo-Synephrine (phenylephrine)**, a potent **alpha-adrenergic agonist** that causes **vasoconstriction**. - Its vasoconstrictive properties make it useful topically to reduce **bleeding** during and after surgical procedures like **adenoidectomy**. *Rhino cerebral mucormycosis* - This is a serious fungal infection requiring systemic antifungal therapy, often **amphotericin B**. Topical phenylephrine has no role in treating the infection itself. - While bleeding might be a symptom of mucormycosis, phenylephrine would only offer temporary symptomatic relief, not address the underlying fungal pathology. *Inlay type I myringoplasty* - Myringoplasty is a surgical procedure to repair a perforated eardrum. Topical phenylephrine is not indicated for this procedure. - The primary goal of this surgery is to reconstruct the **tympanic membrane**, and phenylephrine would not contribute to tissue healing or graft integration. *Subglottic stenosis* - This condition involves narrowing of the airway below the vocal cords, often requiring surgical intervention or corticosteroids. - Phenylephrine is a decongestant and vasoconstrictor, and as such, it does not have a therapeutic role in resolving the **fibrotic narrowing** characteristic of subglottic stenosis.
Question 9: Not a landmark of facial nerve identification in parotid surgery:
- A. Peripheral branches
- B. Post belly of digastric
- C. Inferior belly of omohyoid (Correct Answer)
- D. Tragal pointer
Explanation: ***Inferior belly of omohyoid*** - The **inferior belly of the omohyoid muscle** is located in the anterior triangle of the neck and is not a surgical landmark for the facial nerve during parotidectomy. - Its anatomical position is too far inferior and anterior to the parotid gland and facial nerve trunk to be useful for facial nerve identification. *Peripheral branches* - While careful dissection of **peripheral branches** is crucial for preserving facial nerve function, they are typically identified *after* locating the main trunk, not as primary landmarks for initially finding the nerve. - Direct identification of peripheral branches first is challenging and carries a higher risk of injury without prior identification of the main trunk or its primary divisions. *Post belly of digastric* - The **posterior belly of the digastric muscle** serves as a vital deep landmark for locating the facial nerve trunk. - The facial nerve typically passes superior to and deep to the posterior belly of the digastric muscle, providing a reliable point of reference for approaching the nerve. *Tragal pointer* - The **tragal pointer**, referring to the anterior surface of the cartilaginous tragus, is a superficial landmark used to approximate the location of the facial nerve trunk. - The facial nerve's main trunk typically emerges from the stylomastoid foramen, which is positioned anterior and inferior to the tragus, making it a useful starting point for surgical dissection.
Question 10: SAFE strategy for trachoma includes all except?
- A. Antibiotics
- B. Surgery for trichiasis
- C. Facial cleanliness
- D. Evaluation of control program (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Evaluation of control program*** - **Evaluation** is a monitoring and assessment process used to measure the effectiveness of the SAFE strategy, but it is **not one of the four intervention components** of the strategy itself. - The SAFE strategy consists of: **S**urgery, **A**ntibiotics, **F**acial cleanliness, and **E**nvironmental improvement. *Surgery for trichiasis* - **Trichiasis** (in-turned eyelashes) is a blinding complication of trachoma requiring **surgical correction** to prevent corneal damage. - This is the "S" component of SAFE. *Antibiotics* - **Mass drug administration** with **azithromycin** (single oral dose) is used to reduce the community reservoir of *Chlamydia trachomatis*. - This is the "A" component of SAFE. *Facial cleanliness* - Promoting **facial hygiene**, especially in children, prevents transmission of *Chlamydia trachomatis* through contact and fly vectors. - This is the "F" component of SAFE. *Environmental improvement (Not listed as an option but part of SAFE)* - Improving **water supply**, **sanitation**, and **waste management** reduces breeding sites for flies and improves hygiene. - This is the "E" component of SAFE.
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