Diseases of the Oral Cavity and Salivary Glands — MCQs

Diseases of the Oral Cavity and Salivary Glands Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 281: Mikulicz's disease is classified as which of the following?

A. An inflammatory disease
B. A neoplastic disease
C. An autoimmune disease (Correct Answer)
D. A viral infection

Explanation: **Explanation:** **Mikulicz’s Disease (MD)** is characterized by the chronic, painless, symmetrical enlargement of the lacrimal and salivary glands (parotid and submandibular). 1. **Why the correct answer is right:** Mikulicz’s disease is now recognized as a part of **IgG4-related systemic disease (IgG4-RD)**. It is an **autoimmune condition** characterized by elevated serum IgG4 levels and extensive infiltration of IgG4-positive plasma cells and lymphocytes into the affected glands, leading to fibrosis and enlargement. Historically, it was confused with Sjögren’s syndrome, but it is distinct because it lacks the typical anti-Ro (SS-A) and anti-La (SS-B) antibodies and responds well to steroid therapy. 2. **Why the incorrect options are wrong:** * **Inflammatory disease (A):** While inflammation occurs, it is the *result* of an underlying autoimmune process. In NEET-PG, if "autoimmune" is an option for IgG4-related conditions, it is the more specific and correct classification. * **Neoplastic disease (B):** Although the gland enlargement can mimic a tumor (pseudotumor), the process is benign and reactive rather than a monoclonal cellular malignancy. * **Viral infection (D):** While viruses like Mumps or HIV can cause parotid swelling, Mikulicz’s disease is not caused by a viral pathogen. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Mikulicz’s Syndrome vs. Disease:** *Syndrome* refers to gland enlargement secondary to other diseases (e.g., Sarcoidosis, Leukemia, Lymphoma), whereas *Disease* is the primary idiopathic/autoimmune form. * **Histopathology:** Shows "Lymphepithelial lesions" and "Storiform fibrosis." * **Treatment:** Systemic **Corticosteroids** are the first-line treatment and usually result in a dramatic reduction in gland size. * **Key Association:** Always look for elevated **IgG4 levels** in the clinical vignette.

Question 282: Which of the following tumors arises from the mesenchymal portion of the tooth germ, specifically from the dental papilla, follicle, or periodontal ligament?

A. Odontogenic myxoma (Correct Answer)
B. Adenomotoid odontogenic tumor
C. Pindborg tumor
D. Ameloblastoma

Explanation: ### Explanation The classification of odontogenic tumors is based on which part of the tooth germ they originate from: the **ectoderm** (epithelium), the **mesoderm** (mesenchyme), or a combination of both. **1. Why Odontogenic Myxoma is correct:** Odontogenic myxoma is a benign but locally invasive neoplasm that arises exclusively from the **odontogenic ectomesenchyme**. Specifically, it originates from the **dental papilla, dental follicle, or periodontal ligament**. Histologically, it mimics the structure of the dental papilla, characterized by stellate and spindle-shaped cells in an abundant myxoid (mucoid) stroma. **2. Why the other options are incorrect:** * **Ameloblastoma (D):** This is the most common odontogenic tumor. It is purely **epithelial** in origin, arising from the dental lamina, enamel organ, or lining of odontogenic cysts. * **Pindborg Tumor (C):** Also known as Calcifying Epithelial Odontogenic Tumor (CEOT). As the name suggests, it is of **epithelial** origin. It is famous for "Leisegang rings" and "driven snow" appearance on X-ray. * **Adenomatoid Odontogenic Tumor (B):** This is also an **epithelial** tumor. It is often associated with an impacted maxillary canine and is known for its "snowflake" calcifications. **3. NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Radiology of Myxoma:** Classically presents as a **"soap bubble"** or **"honeycomb"** radiolucency. A unique feature is the presence of **"tennis racket"** or straight, thin bony trabeculae. * **Clinical Behavior:** Despite being benign, it is non-encapsulated and infiltrative, often requiring wide surgical excision to prevent recurrence. * **Age/Site:** Most common in the 2nd–3rd decades; the mandible is affected more frequently than the maxilla.

Question 283: Sialosis refers to:

A. Bilateral parotitis
B. Sjogren's syndrome
C. Non-inflammatory parotid enlargement (Correct Answer)
D. Bilateral salivary duct ectasia

Explanation: **Explanation:** **Sialosis** (also known as Sialadenosis) is a specific clinical entity characterized by **painless, non-inflammatory, non-neoplastic, and recurrent bilateral swelling** of the salivary glands, most commonly involving the parotid glands. **Why Option C is Correct:** The underlying pathology of sialosis is not inflammation, but rather a **dystrophy of the glandular parenchyma**. It is associated with autonomic neuropathy leading to the accumulation of secretory granules within acinar cells, causing them to hypertrophy. This results in soft, diffuse enlargement without the typical signs of infection (fever, pain, or pus). **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Option A (Bilateral parotitis):** Parotitis implies an inflammatory or infectious process (e.g., Mumps). Sialosis is strictly non-inflammatory. * **Option B (Sjogren's syndrome):** This is an autoimmune condition characterized by lymphocytic infiltration and destruction of glands, leading to "Sicca symptoms" (dry eyes and mouth). While it causes bilateral swelling, the mechanism is inflammatory/autoimmune. * **Option D (Bilateral salivary duct ectasia):** This refers to the dilation of the ductal system, often seen in chronic obstructive sialadenitis, whereas sialosis involves acinar hypertrophy. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Associated Conditions:** Sialosis is frequently linked to systemic metabolic derangements, most notably **Diabetes Mellitus**, **Chronic Alcoholism**, and **Malnutrition** (e.g., Bulimia or Kwashiorkor). * **Diagnosis:** It is a diagnosis of exclusion. Sialography typically shows a "leafless tree" appearance due to the compression of small ducts by hypertrophied acini. * **Treatment:** Management is primarily focused on treating the underlying systemic cause.

Question 284: A tooth with a 3-month history of pain, exacerbated by hot liquids, was extracted and split open. The pulp chamber was found to be completely filled with pus, with a few remnants of pulp tissue at the apical end. What is the condition?

A. Acute partial pulpitis
B. Acute total pulpitis
C. Suppurative pulpitis (Correct Answer)
D. Strangulation of pulp

Explanation: ### Explanation **Correct Answer: C. Suppurative pulpitis** **Understanding the Concept:** Suppurative pulpitis (also known as a pulpal abscess) is a late-stage inflammatory response of the dental pulp. The hallmark of this condition is the formation of **localized or generalized pus** within the pulp chamber. * **Clinical Presentation:** The pain is severe, continuous, and characteristically **exacerbated by heat** (hot liquids). Heat causes expansion of the gases/fluids within the confined pulp chamber, increasing intrapulpal pressure and stimulating nerve endings. * **Pathology:** In this case, the finding of the pulp chamber "completely filled with pus" with only minimal remnants of tissue at the apex confirms a total suppurative breakdown of the pulp organ. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **A. Acute partial pulpitis:** This involves inflammation limited to a portion of the pulp (usually a pulp horn). While painful, the entire chamber would not be filled with pus, and the pain is typically triggered by cold rather than heat. * **B. Acute total pulpitis:** This involves the entire pulp, but it represents the stage of active hyperaemia and inflammatory exudate before extensive suppuration (pus formation) has occurred. * **D. Strangulation of pulp:** This is a physiological mechanism where inflammatory edema at the narrow apical foramen compresses the blood vessels, leading to venous congestion and eventual necrosis. It is a *process* leading to pulp death, not the clinical description of a pus-filled chamber. **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Thermal Sensitivity:** In early pulpitis, **cold** causes pain. In advanced/suppurative pulpitis, **heat** causes pain, while **cold** may actually provide temporary relief by contracting the gases/fluids. * **Reversible vs. Irreversible:** If the pain lingers for minutes to hours after the stimulus is removed (as seen here), it is **Irreversible Pulpitis**. * **Pulp Polyp:** A chronic form of open pulpitis (Chronic Hyperplastic Pulpitis) seen typically in children/young adults where granulation tissue protrudes from the pulp chamber.

Question 285: During oral examination of a 57-year-old man, a large keratotic patch covering the entire palate is noted. Some 'red spots' are also seen within the patch. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Pipe smoker (Correct Answer)
B. Cigar smoker
C. Snuff user
D. Tobacco chewer

Explanation: The clinical presentation described is a classic case of **Stomatitis Nicotina** (also known as Smoker’s Palate or Nicotinic Stomatitis). ### **Explanation of the Correct Answer** **Pipe smoking** is the most common cause of this condition. The palate is exposed to concentrated heat and chemical combustion products. The "large keratotic patch" represents **hyperkeratosis** of the palatal mucosa as a protective response to chronic thermal irritation. The characteristic **"red spots"** are the inflamed, dilated openings of the minor salivary gland ducts, which stand out against the blanched, white background of the keratinized epithelium. ### **Analysis of Incorrect Options** * **Cigar smoker:** While cigar smoking can cause similar changes, it is statistically less likely than pipe smoking to produce the diffuse, heavy keratosis of the entire hard palate. * **Snuff user:** Snuff (smokeless tobacco) typically leads to localized lesions in the **gingivobuccal sulcus** (where the tobacco is placed), often resulting in "Snuff Dipper’s Lesion" or localized gingival recession, rather than palatal changes. * **Tobacco chewer:** Similar to snuff, chewing tobacco primarily affects the buccal mucosa and lower vestibule. It is more strongly associated with **Oral Submucous Fibrosis (OSMF)** and verrucous carcinoma. ### **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG** * **Reversibility:** Stomatitis Nicotina is typically **reversible** once the smoking habit is discontinued. * **Malignancy Risk:** Unlike leukoplakia, Nicotinic Stomatitis (from pipe/cigar) is generally considered **benign** or low-risk, unless the patient also practices **reverse smoking** (common in parts of Andhra Pradesh), which is highly premalignant. * **Location:** It primarily involves the **hard palate** because the keratinized tissue reacts to heat; the soft palate is usually spared as it is less keratinized.

Question 286: Enucleation of a palatal tumor can result in which of the following complications?

A. Excessive bleeding from nasopalatine vessels
B. Tearing of nasal mucosa (Correct Answer)
C. Damage to the nasopalatine nerve
D. Alteration of speech

Explanation: ### Explanation **Correct Option: B. Tearing of nasal mucosa** The palate serves as a thin, bony partition separating the oral cavity from the nasal cavity. Tumors of the palate (most commonly Pleomorphic Adenoma or Minor Salivary Gland tumors) often expand superiorly, causing pressure necrosis or thinning of the overlying palatal bone. During the surgical **enucleation** or excision of these tumors, the thin layer of bone may be absent or extremely fragile. Consequently, the tumor often lies in direct contact with the underlying **nasal mucoperiosteum**. Maneuvering to separate the tumor from the floor of the nose frequently results in an accidental tear of the nasal mucosa, potentially leading to an oro-antral or oro-nasal communication. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **A & C: Nasopalatine vessels and nerve:** While these structures are located in the incisive canal (anterior palate), they are typically identified and ligated/sacrificed during surgery. While damage occurs, it is considered a standard surgical step rather than a specific "complication" of enucleation compared to the risk of mucosal perforation. * **D. Alteration of speech:** Speech changes (hypernasality) occur only if a significant **oronasal fistula** persists post-operatively. Simple enucleation of a benign tumor usually allows for primary closure or healing by secondary intention, which does not typically result in permanent speech alteration. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Most common site** for minor salivary gland tumors: **Hard Palate**. * **Most common benign tumor** of the palate: **Pleomorphic Adenoma**. * **Most common malignant tumor** of the palate: **Adenoid Cystic Carcinoma** (known for perineural invasion). * **Surgical Principle:** Benign palatal tumors are treated by wide local excision including the underlying periosteum; if the bone is involved, a partial maxillectomy may be required.

Question 287: Glossoplegia is defined as:

A. Burning tongue
B. Painful tongue
C. Paralysis of the tongue (Correct Answer)
D. Bleeding tongue

Explanation: **Explanation:** The term **Glossoplegia** is derived from the Greek words *"glossa"* (tongue) and *"plegia"* (paralysis). It refers to the **paralysis of the tongue**, which typically results from a lesion of the **Hypoglossal nerve (Cranial Nerve XII)**, the motor nerve responsible for all intrinsic and extrinsic muscles of the tongue (except the palatoglossus). **Analysis of Options:** * **Option C (Correct):** Glossoplegia is the medical term for motor loss of the tongue. It can be unilateral (causing deviation to the paralyzed side upon protrusion) or bilateral (causing difficulty in speech and swallowing). * **Option A (Incorrect):** A burning sensation in the tongue is termed **Glossopyrosis**. This is often seen in Burning Mouth Syndrome or nutritional deficiencies (e.g., Vitamin B12). * **Option B (Incorrect):** A painful tongue is termed **Glossodynia**. This can be caused by local trauma, infections (candidiasis), or inflammatory conditions. * **Option D (Incorrect):** Bleeding from the tongue is simply referred to as lingual hemorrhage, often due to trauma or malignancy. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Nerve Supply:** The motor supply to the tongue is the **Hypoglossal nerve (CN XII)**. The only exception is the **Palatoglossus**, supplied by the **Pharyngeal plexus (CN X)**. * **LMN Lesion:** In a Lower Motor Neuron lesion of CN XII, the tongue deviates **towards** the side of the lesion due to the unopposed action of the contralateral genioglossus muscle. * **Glossitis:** Inflammation of the tongue, often presenting as a "magenta tongue" (Riboflavin deficiency) or "strawberry tongue" (Scarlet fever/Kawasaki disease).

Question 288: All of the following are premalignant oral lesions EXCEPT:

A. Erythroplakia
B. Leukoplakia
C. Submucous fibrosis
D. Oral lichen planus (Correct Answer)

Explanation: **Explanation:** The question asks to identify the condition that is **not** traditionally classified as a premalignant lesion. In oral pathology, a distinction is made between **Premalignant Lesions** (a morphologically altered tissue in which cancer is more likely to occur) and **Premalignant Conditions** (a generalized state associated with a significantly increased risk of cancer). 1. **Why Oral Lichen Planus (OLP) is the correct answer:** According to the WHO classification, OLP is categorized as a **Premalignant Condition**, not a lesion. While it carries a small risk of malignant transformation (approx. 0.5–2%), it is a chronic inflammatory state rather than a localized precancerous change. In many competitive exams, if "lesions" are specifically asked for, OLP is the odd one out. 2. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Erythroplakia (A):** This is the **most dangerous** premalignant lesion. It has the highest rate of malignant transformation (over 50%), often showing cellular atypia or carcinoma-in-situ on biopsy. * **Leukoplakia (B):** The most common premalignant lesion. It is a clinical term for a white patch that cannot be rubbed off. The "Speckled" (Erythroleukoplakia) variety carries a higher risk than the homogenous type. * **Submucous Fibrosis (C):** A potent premalignant condition (often grouped with lesions in MCQ stems) caused by areca nut chewing. It leads to progressive inability to open the mouth and has a high transformation rate (7–13%). **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Highest Malignant Potential:** Erythroplakia > Submucous Fibrosis > Leukoplakia. * **Most Common Site for Leukoplakia:** Buccal mucosa. * **Wickham’s Striae:** Characteristic white reticular patterns seen in Oral Lichen Planus. * **Biopsy Rule:** Any white or red patch persisting for >2 weeks after removing local irritants must be biopsied to rule out malignancy.

Question 289: Pleomorphic adenoma arises from which type of cell?

A. Myoepithelial cells (Correct Answer)
B. Acinar cells
C. Connective tissue
D. Stem cells

Explanation: **Explanation:** **Pleomorphic Adenoma (Mixed Tumor)** is the most common benign tumor of the salivary glands, most frequently involving the parotid gland. 1. **Why Myoepithelial cells are correct:** The term "pleomorphic" refers to the tumor's architectural diversity. It is derived from a dual proliferation of both **epithelial and myoepithelial cells** (which are of ectodermal origin) within a mesenchyme-like stroma. The myoepithelial cells are the "drivers" of this tumor; they are responsible for secreting the characteristic stromal components (myxoid, chondroid, or osteoid material), giving it the "mixed" appearance. 2. **Why other options are incorrect:** * **Acinar cells:** These are the functional secretory cells of the salivary gland. While they can be involved in tumors like Acinic Cell Carcinoma, they are not the primary cell of origin for pleomorphic adenoma. * **Connective tissue:** Although the tumor contains a "mesenchymal-like" stroma (chondroid/myxoid), this is a result of metaplasia from myoepithelial cells, not a primary origin from native connective tissue. * **Stem cells:** While all tumors technically arise from undifferentiated cells, the specific diagnostic cellular lineage for pleomorphic adenoma is the myoepithelial cell. **High-Yield NEET-PG Pearls:** * **Most common site:** Superficial lobe of the Parotid gland. * **Clinical presentation:** Slow-growing, painless, firm, mobile mass ("Mobile parotid swelling"). * **Histology:** Characterized by "islands of epithelium in a sea of chondromyxoid stroma." * **Risk of Malignancy:** 3–5% can transform into **Carcinoma ex-pleomorphic adenoma** (suspect if there is sudden rapid growth or facial nerve palsy). * **Treatment:** Superficial parotidectomy (Enucleation is avoided due to high recurrence rates from pseudopod extensions through the capsule).

Question 290: Adenoid cystic carcinoma can cause lesion of which of the following nerves?

A. Facial nerve
B. Lingual nerve
C. Hypoglossal nerve
D. All of the above (Correct Answer)

Explanation: **Explanation:** The correct answer is **D. All of the above**. The hallmark pathological feature of **Adenoid Cystic Carcinoma (ACC)** is its high propensity for **perineural invasion (PNI)**. Unlike many other tumors that spread primarily via lymphatics, ACC characteristically tracks along nerve sheaths, often extending far beyond the visible margins of the tumor. **Why "All of the above" is correct:** Adenoid cystic carcinoma most commonly involves the **parotid gland** and the **minor salivary glands** (frequently in the palate and tongue). * **Facial Nerve (CN VII):** When ACC occurs in the parotid gland, it frequently infiltrates the facial nerve, leading to facial palsy. * **Lingual and Hypoglossal Nerves:** When ACC involves the submandibular gland or the minor salivary glands of the floor of the mouth and tongue, it can track along the lingual nerve (causing sensory loss) and the hypoglossal nerve (causing tongue deviation/atrophy). **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Most Common Site:** The **Palate** (minor salivary glands) is the most common site overall, but it is also the most common malignant tumor of the **Submandibular** and **Sublingual** glands. * **Histology:** Look for the classic **"Swiss Cheese" appearance** (Cribriform pattern), which is the most common histological subtype. * **Spread:** It is notorious for **distant metastasis** (most commonly to the **Lungs**) via the bloodstream, often occurring years after initial treatment. * **Prognosis:** It is characterized by a slow, indolent growth but a relentless clinical course with a high rate of local recurrence due to its "skip lesions" along nerves.

Practice by Chapter

Stomatitis

Practice Questions

Oral Ulcers

Practice Questions

Oral Leukoplakia

Practice Questions

Oral Cancers

Practice Questions

Sialadenitis

Practice Questions

Sialolithiasis

Practice Questions

Salivary Gland Tumors

Practice Questions

Ranula

Practice Questions

Xerostomia

Practice Questions

Sjögren's Syndrome

Practice Questions

Oral Manifestations of Systemic Diseases

Practice Questions

Temporomandibular Joint Disorders

Practice Questions

Want unlimited practice?

Get full access to all questions, explanations, and performance tracking.

Start For Free