Diseases of the Oral Cavity and Salivary Glands Practice Questions

Q: Which of the following is not a risk factor for oropharyngeal carcinoma?

None of the above. **Explanation:** The correct answer is **None of the above** because all the conditions listed (Chronic hypertrophic candidiasis, Oral submucous fibrosis, and Erythroplakia) are well-recognized **premalignant (potentially malignant) disorders** of the oral cavity and oropharynx. 1. **Chronic Hypertrophic Candidiasis:** Unlike acute thrush, this variant is characterized by a fixed white patch that cannot be scraped off. It has a significant risk of malignant transformation (approx. 10-15%) due to chronic inflammation and the production of endogenous nitrosamines by *Candida* species. 2. **Oral Submucous Fibrosis (OSMF):** Primarily caused by areca nut (betel nut) chewing, it leads to progressive juxta-epithelial fibrosis. It is a high-risk condition in the Indian subcontinent with a malignant transformation rate of 7-13%. 3. **Erythroplakia:** This is defined as a fiery red patch that cannot be characterized clinically or pathologically as any other condition. It is the **most dangerous** premalignant lesion, with over 90% of cases showing cellular dysplasia, carcinoma in situ, or invasive squamous cell carcinoma at the time of biopsy. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Highest Malignant Potential:** Erythroplakia > OSMF > Leukoplakia. * **Speckled Leukoplakia:** A clinical variant (erythroleukoplakia) that carries a higher risk than homogenous leukoplakia. * **Most Common Site:** The lateral border of the tongue and the floor of the mouth are high-risk sites for malignancy. * **Other Risk Factors:** Tobacco (smoking/chewing), Alcohol (synergistic effect), and HPV (specifically types 16 and 18) are major etiological factors for oropharyngeal SCC.

Q: Oral ulcers which occur in groups, persist for about 6 weeks, and leave scars on healing are:

Recurrent aphthous major. ### Explanation **Recurrent Aphthous Stomatitis (RAS)** is a common inflammatory condition characterized by painful, recurring oral ulcers. To differentiate between the types, one must look at the size, duration, and scarring potential. **1. Why Major Aphthous Ulcers (Sutton’s Disease) is correct:** * **Size & Depth:** These are large (>1 cm), deep ulcers that often occur in groups of 1–10. * **Duration:** Unlike minor ulcers, they persist for several weeks (typically **3–6 weeks**). * **Healing:** Because they involve deeper layers of the submucosa, they characteristically **heal with scarring**, which is a hallmark feature for NEET-PG questions. **2. Why the other options are incorrect:** * **Recurrent aphthous minor (Mikulicz’s ulcer):** These are the most common type. They are small (<1 cm), shallow, heal within 7–10 days, and **never leave a scar**. * **Recurrent herpetiform ulcers:** These present as crops of multiple tiny, pin-head sized ulcers (up to 100). While they occur in groups, they heal quickly (10–14 days) without scarring. * **Acute herpetic gingivostomatitis:** This is a primary viral infection (HSV-1) typically seen in children. It presents with systemic symptoms (fever, lymphadenopathy) and diffuse vesicles, rather than chronic, scarring ulcers. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Site:** Aphthous ulcers occur on **non-keratinized mucosa** (buccal mucosa, floor of mouth) whereas Herpetic ulcers often involve keratinized mucosa (hard palate, gingiva). * **Treatment:** Topical corticosteroids (Triamcinolone) are the first-line treatment. For Major RAS, systemic steroids or Thalidomide may be required. * **Associations:** Always rule out systemic causes like **Behçet’s disease** (triad of oral ulcers, genital ulcers, and uveitis), Celiac disease, or B12/Iron deficiency.

Q: What is the recommended treatment for leukoplakia?

Repositioning of ill-fitting dentures. **Explanation:** Leukoplakia is defined by the WHO as a "white patch or plaque that cannot be characterized clinically or pathologically as any other disease." It is a **premalignant condition** often triggered by chronic irritation. **Why Option D is Correct:** The primary management of leukoplakia begins with the **elimination of provocative factors**. Common irritants include tobacco, alcohol, sharp teeth, and **ill-fitting dentures**. In many cases, removing the source of chronic mechanical trauma (e.g., repositioning or replacing a poorly fitted denture) leads to the spontaneous regression of the lesion. Conservative management and observation are preferred before proceeding to surgical interventions, especially for homogenous types. **Why Other Options are Incorrect:** * **A. Local Excision:** While surgical excision (or laser ablation) is indicated for "speckled" leukoplakia or lesions showing high-grade dysplasia on biopsy, it is not the first-line "recommended treatment" until conservative measures and biopsy results are evaluated. * **B. Excision and Radiotherapy:** Radiotherapy is contraindicated for leukoplakia. It can cause further tissue damage and may even trigger malignant transformation in a premalignant field. * **C. Topical Chemotherapy:** While agents like Bleomycin or Vitamin A (Retinoids) have been studied, they are not standard first-line treatments due to high recurrence rates and side effects. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Most common site:** Buccal mucosa and commissures. * **Highest risk of malignancy:** The **"Speckled" (Erythroleukoplakia)** variety has the highest rate of malignant transformation compared to the homogenous type. * **Biopsy Rule:** Any leukoplakia that does not resolve within 2–4 weeks after removing the irritant must undergo biopsy to rule out squamous cell carcinoma. * **Histology:** Look for hyperkeratosis, acanthosis, and varying degrees of dysplasia.

Q: Which of the following salivary gland tumors has the highest rate of malignant transformation?

Minor salivary gland tumors. ### Explanation The risk of malignancy in salivary gland tumors follows an **inverse relationship** with the size of the gland. This is a fundamental concept in ENT oncology: the smaller the salivary gland, the higher the probability that a tumor arising from it will be malignant. **1. Why Minor Salivary Gland Tumors are Correct:** Minor salivary glands are distributed throughout the oral cavity (palate, lips, tongue). Approximately **50–80%** of tumors arising from these glands are malignant. The most common site is the hard palate, and the most common malignancy is **Adenoid Cystic Carcinoma**. **2. Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Parotid Gland (Option A):** This is the most common site for salivary tumors overall (80%), but it has the **lowest** rate of malignancy (only ~20–25%). Most are benign Pleomorphic Adenomas. * **Submandibular Gland (Option B):** Approximately **40–50%** of tumors here are malignant. While higher than the parotid, it is lower than the minor glands. * **Sublingual Gland (Option C):** Tumors here are rare, but about **70–80%** are malignant. While this rate is very high, statistically, minor salivary glands (as a group) are often cited in exams as the category with the highest overall clinical burden of malignancy. **3. High-Yield NEET-PG Pearls:** * **Rule of 80s (Parotid):** 80% occur in the parotid; 80% of those are benign; 80% of those are Pleomorphic Adenomas. * **Most Common Benign Tumor:** Pleomorphic Adenoma (all glands). * **Most Common Malignant Tumor:** Mucoepidermoid Carcinoma (overall). * **Adenoid Cystic Carcinoma:** Known for **perineural invasion** and "skip lesions." * **Warthin’s Tumor:** Almost exclusive to the parotid; associated with smoking and often bilateral.

Q: Which of the following best represents a ranula?

Cystic swelling in the floor of mouth. **Explanation:** **Ranula** is a clinical term used to describe a translucent, bluish, cystic swelling occurring in the **floor of the mouth**. It is essentially a **mucous extravasation cyst** that arises from the sublingual salivary gland. The name is derived from the Latin word *Rana* (frog), as the swelling resembles the translucent underbelly of a frog. * **Why Option C is Correct:** A ranula occurs when there is trauma or obstruction to the ducts of the **sublingual gland** (or rarely the submandibular gland), leading to the leakage and accumulation of mucus into the surrounding connective tissue of the floor of the mouth. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Option A (Epulis):** This refers to a localized tumor-like gingival enlargement (e.g., fibrous epulis, pregnancy tumor). It occurs on the gums, not the floor of the mouth. * **Option B (Thyroglossal cyst):** This is a midline neck swelling resulting from a persistent thyroglossal duct. While it moves with protrusion of the tongue, it is not an intraoral cystic swelling of the floor of the mouth. * **Option D (Forked uvula):** Also known as a bifid uvula, this is a congenital split in the uvula, often considered a marker for a sub-mucous cleft palate. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Plunging Ranula:** A clinical variant where the mucus extravasates through or around the **mylohyoid muscle**, presenting as a swelling in the submandibular region (neck). * **Treatment:** The treatment of choice is **Marsupialization** or complete surgical excision of the cyst along with the offending sublingual gland. * **Differential Diagnosis:** Must be differentiated from a **Dermoid cyst**, which is usually midline and has a "doughy" consistency, unlike the fluctuant, bluish ranula.

Q: Swollen, hyperemic fungiform papillae are seen in which of the following conditions?

Scarlet fever. ### Explanation The correct answer is **Scarlet Fever**. In Scarlet fever (caused by Group A Streptococcus), the tongue undergoes characteristic changes due to inflammation and desquamation. Initially, the tongue has a white coating through which swollen, hyperemic (red) fungiform papillae protrude, a stage known as the **"White Strawberry Tongue."** After a few days, the white coating desquamates, leaving a bright red, denuded surface with prominent, swollen papillae, known as the **"Red Strawberry Tongue"** or "Raspberry Tongue." #### Analysis of Incorrect Options: * **A. Riboflavin (B2) deficiency:** Characteristically presents with **Magenta Tongue** (purplish-red discoloration) and glossitis, often accompanied by angular stomatitis and cheilosis. * **B. Familial dysautonomia (Riley-Day syndrome):** This is a rare genetic disorder characterized by a **congenital absence of fungiform papillae**, leading to a smooth tongue and taste deficits. * **D. Median rhomboid glossitis:** Presents as a painless, **rhomboid-shaped erythematous area** in the midline of the posterior dorsal tongue, just anterior to the circumvallate papillae. It is now considered a form of chronic atrophic candidiasis. #### High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG: * **Strawberry Tongue** is also a classic feature of **Kawasaki Disease** (along with cracked lips and conjunctival injection). * **Bald Tongue (Atrophic Glossitis):** Seen in Vitamin B12, Folate, and Iron deficiency (Plummer-Vinson Syndrome). * **Geographic Tongue (Benign Migratory Glossitis):** Characterized by migrating areas of depapillation with white borders; it is a benign, inflammatory condition. * **Hairy Leukoplakia:** Seen in HIV/Immunocompromised patients, caused by **EBV**, typically on the lateral borders of the tongue.

Q: Metastasis of carcinoma of the buccal mucosa typically goes to which of the following?

Regional lymph nodes. **Explanation:** **1. Why Regional Lymph Nodes is Correct:** Carcinoma of the buccal mucosa, like most Squamous Cell Carcinomas (SCC) of the head and neck, primarily spreads via the **lymphatic route** before it ever spreads hematogenously. The buccal mucosa has a rich lymphatic network that drains primarily into the **Submandibular (Level IB)** and **Upper Deep Cervical (Level II)** lymph nodes. In clinical practice, the presence of regional nodal metastasis is the most significant prognostic factor for survival in oral cavity cancers. **2. Why the Other Options are Incorrect:** * **B. Liver:** While the liver is a common site for distant (systemic) metastasis in many visceral cancers, it is rare in buccal SCC. Distant metastasis usually occurs only in advanced stages (Stage IV) after regional lymph node involvement. * **C. Heart:** Metastasis to the heart is extremely rare for any head and neck malignancy. * **D. Brain:** Brain metastasis is uncommon for oral cancers. If distant spread occurs, the **lungs** are the most common site, followed by the bones and liver. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Most common site of distant metastasis:** Lungs (not liver). * **Staging Tip:** The "N" in TNM staging for oral cancer is determined by the size, number, and extranodal extension of these regional lymph nodes. * **Risk Factors:** In the Indian context, "Chutta" smoking and betel nut (pan masala) chewing are the leading causes of buccal mucosa SCC. * **Field Cancerization:** This concept (by Slaughter et al.) explains why patients with one oral lesion are at high risk for developing secondary primary tumors in the same region.

Q: Mikulicz's disease is characterized by:

Both of the above.. **Explanation:** **Mikulicz’s Disease** (now considered a part of the **IgG4-related disease** spectrum) is a chronic, benign condition characterized by the progressive, painless, and typically **symmetrical enlargement** of the salivary and lacrimal glands. 1. **Why Option C is correct:** The hallmark of Mikulicz’s disease is the simultaneous involvement of both the **lacrimal glands** (causing a characteristic swelling of the upper eyelids) and the **major salivary glands** (parotid and submandibular). Because it involves both sets of glands symmetrically, Option C is the most comprehensive answer. 2. **Why Options A and B are incomplete:** While both options describe features of the disease, selecting one over the other would be clinically incomplete. The disease is defined by the *combination* of dacryoadenitis (lacrimal) and sialadenitis (salivary). **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Mikulicz’s Disease vs. Mikulicz’s Syndrome:** The *Disease* is primary/idiopathic (IgG4-related). The *Syndrome* refers to similar glandular enlargement secondary to other systemic diseases like Sarcoidosis, Leukemia, Lymphoma, or Tuberculosis. * **Histopathology:** Shows intense lymphocytic infiltration and acinar atrophy, but the ductal epithelium remains intact (forming "epimyoepithelial islands"). * **Distinction from Sjögren’s Syndrome:** Unlike Sjögren’s, Mikulicz’s disease is associated with **elevated serum IgG4 levels**, responds well to steroids, and typically lacks the classic anti-Ro (SS-A) and anti-La (SS-B) antibodies. * **Treatment:** Systemic corticosteroids are the first-line management.

Question 1

Which of the following is not a risk factor for oropharyngeal carcinoma?

Accepted Answer

None of the above

Answer

Chronic hypertrophic candidiasis

Answer

Oral submucous fibrosis

Answer

Erythroplakia

Question 2

Oral ulcers which occur in groups, persist for about 6 weeks, and leave scars on healing are:

Accepted Answer

Recurrent aphthous major

Answer

Recurrent aphthous minor

Answer

Recurrent herpetiform ulcers

Answer

Acute herpetic gingivostomatitis

Question 3

Which of the following statements about salivary gland tumors is false?

Accepted Answer

Warthin's tumor is the most common malignant tumor of the salivary glands.

Answer

Pleomorphic adenoma is the most common tumor of the parotid gland.

Answer

Adenoid cystic carcinoma most commonly occurs in minor salivary glands.

Answer

Perineural invasion is seen in adenoid cystic carcinoma.

Question 4

What is the recommended treatment for leukoplakia?

Accepted Answer

Repositioning of ill-fitting dentures

Answer

Local excision

Answer

Excision and radiotherapy

Answer

Topical chemotherapy

Question 5

Diffuse erythema with pinpoint petechiae and white patches in a smoker's palate occur due to which of the following mechanisms?

Accepted Answer

Keratinization with partially occluded minor salivary glands

Answer

Complete obstruction of minor salivary gland orifices

Answer

Diffuse parakeratinization of the palate

Answer

Excessive orthokeratinization of the palate

Question 6

Which of the following salivary gland tumors has the highest rate of malignant transformation?

Accepted Answer

Minor salivary gland tumors

Answer

Parotid gland tumors

Answer

Submandibular gland tumors

Answer

Sublingual gland tumors

Question 7

Which of the following best represents a ranula?

Accepted Answer

Cystic swelling in the floor of mouth

Answer

A type of epulis

Answer

A thyroglossal cyst

Answer

Forked uvula

Question 8

Swollen, hyperemic fungiform papillae are seen in which of the following conditions?

Accepted Answer

Scarlet fever

Answer

Riboflavin deficiency

Answer

Familial dysautonomia

Answer

Median rhomboid glossitis

Question 9

Metastasis of carcinoma of the buccal mucosa typically goes to which of the following?

Accepted Answer

Regional lymph nodes

Answer

Liver

Answer

Heart

Answer

Brain

Question 10

Mikulicz's disease is characterized by:

Accepted Answer

Both of the above.

Answer

Symmetrical enlargement of the salivary glands.

Answer

Enlargement of the lacrimal gland.

Answer

None of the above.

Diseases of the Oral Cavity and Salivary Glands — MCQs

Diseases of the Oral Cavity and Salivary Glands — MCQs

On this page

Practice by Chapter

Want unlimited practice?