Diseases of the Oral Cavity and Salivary Glands — MCQs

Diseases of the Oral Cavity and Salivary Glands Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 101: In transoral sialolithotomy of the submandibular duct, where should the incision for removal of an anterior sialolith be placed?

A. Medial to the plica (Correct Answer)
B. Lateral to the plica
C. Directly over the duct
D. Lateral to the duct

Explanation: ### Explanation The submandibular (Wharton’s) duct runs along the floor of the mouth, medial to the sublingual gland. The **sublingual fold (plica sublingualis)** is the mucosal elevation created by the underlying sublingual gland. **1. Why "Medial to the plica" is correct:** In transoral sialolithotomy for an anterior stone, the incision is made **medial to the plica sublingualis** (between the plica and the tongue). This approach provides the most direct access to Wharton’s duct while minimizing the risk of injury to the **lingual nerve**. The lingual nerve crosses lateral to the duct posteriorly and then loops medially under it; staying medial to the plica in the anterior region keeps the dissection away from the nerve's lateral trajectory. **2. Why other options are incorrect:** * **Lateral to the plica:** An incision here would go through or lateral to the sublingual gland, increasing the risk of bleeding and potentially damaging the lingual nerve or creating a ranula. * **Directly over the duct:** While intuitive, the duct is a mobile structure. The anatomical landmark for the surgical approach is the plica; an incision directly over the perceived duct without referencing the plica increases the risk of accidental nerve injury. * **Lateral to the duct:** The lingual nerve is located lateral to the duct in the posterior floor of the mouth. A lateral approach increases the risk of neurovascular trauma. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **80% Rule:** 80% of all salivary stones occur in the submandibular gland (due to alkaline pH, high calcium/mucin content, and the upward "anti-gravity" course of the duct). * **Radiopacity:** 80% of submandibular stones are radiopaque (visible on X-ray), whereas 80% of parotid stones are radiolucent. * **Imaging:** The best initial view for a submandibular stone is an **intraoral occlusal radiograph**. * **Surgical Landmark:** The lingual nerve "double crosses" the Wharton’s duct (lateral to medial).

Question 102: Which odontogenic cyst is characterized by local aggression and a high chance of recurrence?

A. Periapical cyst
B. Dentigerous cyst
C. Odontogenic keratocyst (Correct Answer)
D. Eruption cyst

Explanation: **Odontogenic Keratocyst (OKC)** is a unique clinical entity derived from the remnants of the dental lamina. Unlike most cysts that grow due to osmotic pressure, OKC grows through **active epithelial proliferation**, which explains its **locally aggressive behavior** and tendency to infiltrate bone marrow spaces. It has a notorious **high recurrence rate (up to 30-60%)** because of its thin, friable lining and the presence of "daughter" or "satellite" cysts that are often left behind during simple enucleation. **Analysis of Options:** * **Periapical (Radicular) Cyst:** The most common odontogenic cyst, usually caused by dental caries leading to pulp necrosis. It is inflammatory, not aggressive, and rarely recurs after root canal treatment or extraction. * **Dentigerous Cyst:** Originates from the follicle of an unerupted tooth (usually the 3rd molar). While it can grow large, it is typically non-aggressive and cured by simple enucleation. * **Eruption Cyst:** A soft tissue variant of the dentigerous cyst seen in children. It usually ruptures spontaneously as the tooth erupts and requires no aggressive management. **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** 1. **Histology:** Characterized by a 6–8 layer thick parakeratinized epithelium with a **palisaded basal layer** (often described as "tombstone" appearance). 2. **Syndromic Association:** Multiple OKCs are a hallmark of **Gorlin-Goltz Syndrome** (Nevoid Basal Cell Carcinoma Syndrome), which also includes bifid ribs and calcification of the falx cerebri. 3. **Management:** Due to high recurrence, treatment often involves aggressive curettage, **Carnoy’s solution** application, or en bloc resection. 4. **Radiology:** Typically presents as a well-defined unilocular or multilocular radiolucency, often in the **posterior mandible/ramus**.

Question 103: Which of the following is NOT a feature of torus mandibularis?

A. Common in Mongoloids
B. Present on the lingual surface of the mandible below the mylohyoid line (Correct Answer)
C. Usually bilateral
D. May or may not be associated with torus palatinus

Explanation: ### Explanation **Torus mandibularis** is a benign, non-neoplastic bony exostosis (overgrowth) occurring on the mandible. **1. Why Option B is the Correct Answer (The Incorrect Feature):** The anatomical location described in Option B is incorrect. Torus mandibularis is found on the **lingual surface** of the mandible, but it is located **above the mylohyoid line**, typically in the premolar and molar region. Bony growths found *below* the mylohyoid line are anatomically inconsistent with a torus and may suggest other pathologies or normal anatomical variations. **2. Analysis of Other Options:** * **Option A (Common in Mongoloids):** This is a correct feature. There is a significant racial predilection; it is most common in Mongoloid populations (Eskimos, Asians) and less common in Caucasians. * **Option C (Usually bilateral):** This is a correct feature. In over 90% of cases, these bony protuberances occur bilaterally, often appearing as symmetrical, hard, smooth, or multinodular masses. * **Option D (Association with torus palatinus):** This is a correct feature. While they can occur independently, patients with a mandibular torus may also have a **torus palatinus** (a similar bony overgrowth in the midline of the hard palate). **3. Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Clinical Presentation:** Usually asymptomatic and discovered incidentally. They are slow-growing and do not require treatment unless they interfere with speech, swallowing, or the fitting of dental dentures. * **Radiology:** Appears as a dense, radiopaque mass on X-ray. * **Differential Diagnosis:** Must be distinguished from osteomas, salivary gland tumors, or abscesses. * **Etiology:** Likely a combination of genetic factors and masticatory stress (bruxism).

Question 104: What is the most common antecedent of erythroplakia and leukoplakia?

A. Diphtheria
B. Tobacco use (Correct Answer)
C. Alcohol
D. Poor oral hygiene

Explanation: **Explanation:** **Leukoplakia** (a white patch) and **erythroplakia** (a red patch) are the most common premalignant lesions of the oral cavity. **Why Tobacco use is the correct answer:** Tobacco, in both smoking and smokeless (chewing) forms, is the primary etiological factor. It contains potent carcinogens like N-nitrosamines and polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons. Chronic exposure to these chemicals causes mucosal irritation, hyperkeratosis, and cellular dysplasia. While alcohol acts as a synergistic co-carcinogen, **tobacco use** remains the most significant independent risk factor and the most common antecedent for these lesions. **Why other options are incorrect:** * **Diphtheria:** This is an acute infectious disease caused by *Corynebacterium diphtheriae*, characterized by a "greyish-white pseudomembrane" on the tonsils/pharynx. It is not a chronic premalignant condition. * **Alcohol:** While alcohol is a major risk factor for oral cancer, it primarily acts as a solvent that increases the permeability of the mucosa to other carcinogens (like tobacco). It is rarely the sole antecedent for leukoplakia. * **Poor oral hygiene:** Chronic irritation from sharp teeth or ill-fitting dentures can cause "frictional keratosis," but it is not the primary driver for the dysplastic changes seen in classic leukoplakia or erythroplakia. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Erythroplakia** has a much higher malignant transformation rate (up to 90%) compared to leukoplakia. * **Speckled Leukoplakia** (Erythroleukoplakia) carries a higher risk of malignancy than homogenous leukoplakia. * **Most common site:** Buccal mucosa (especially in tobacco chewers). * **Biopsy** is mandatory for any suspicious red or white patch persisting for more than 2-3 weeks to rule out squamous cell carcinoma.

Question 105: What is the most common precancerous lesion?

A. Leukoplakia (Correct Answer)
B. Erythroplakia
C. Nicotinic stomatitis
D. Oral submucous fibrosis (OSMF)

Explanation: **Explanation:** **Leukoplakia** is the most common precancerous (potentially malignant) lesion of the oral cavity. It is clinically defined as a white patch or plaque that cannot be characterized clinically or pathologically as any other disease and cannot be scraped off. Its high prevalence in the population, particularly among tobacco users, makes it the most frequently encountered premalignant condition in clinical practice. **Analysis of Options:** * **A. Leukoplakia (Correct):** While it has a lower malignant transformation rate (approx. 1–5%) compared to Erythroplakia, it is significantly more **common** in terms of incidence. * **B. Erythroplakia:** This is the most **dangerous** precancerous lesion with the highest malignant transformation rate (over 50%), but it is clinically rare compared to Leukoplakia. * **C. Nicotinic stomatitis:** Also known as "Smoker’s Palate," it is generally considered a benign reactive change to heat rather than a premalignant lesion, except in cases of "reverse smoking." * **D. Oral Submucous Fibrosis (OSMF):** This is a precancerous **condition** (not a lesion) common in South Asia due to areca nut chewing. While high-yield, it is less common globally than Leukoplakia. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Most common site for Leukoplakia:** Buccal mucosa and commissures. * **Highest risk site for malignancy:** Floor of the mouth, tongue, and soft palate. * **Speckled Leukoplakia (Erythroleukoplakia):** A variant with a much higher risk of malignancy than homogenous leukoplakia. * **Biopsy:** Mandatory for any white patch to rule out dysplasia or carcinoma in situ.

Question 106: Crocodile tears are seen in which condition?

A. Frey's syndrome
B. Conjunctivitis
C. Lacrimal tumour
D. Abnormal VII nerve regeneration (Correct Answer)

Explanation: **Explanation:** **Crocodile Tears Syndrome (Bogorad’s Syndrome)** is a rare complication occurring during the recovery phase of **Bell’s Palsy** or following traumatic injury to the Facial Nerve (CN VII). **Why the correct answer is right:** The underlying mechanism is **synkinesis** due to **abnormal/faulty regeneration of nerve fibers**. Normally, parasympathetic secretomotor fibers from the *superior salivatory nucleus* travel via the greater petrosal nerve to the submandibular ganglion to supply the salivary glands. Following injury proximal to the geniculate ganglion, these regenerating fibers are misdirected. Instead of reaching the salivary glands, they travel via the greater petrosal nerve to the **lacrimal gland**. Consequently, a gustatory stimulus (smelling or tasting food) that should trigger salivation instead triggers lacrimation (tearing). **Why the other options are wrong:** * **Frey’s Syndrome:** This involves abnormal regeneration of the **Auriculotemporal nerve** (branch of CN V3) following parotid surgery. It results in *gustatory sweating* and flushing of the cheek, not tearing. * **Conjunctivitis:** This is an inflammatory/infectious condition of the eye leading to reflex tearing due to irritation, not a neurological miswiring. * **Lacrimal Tumour:** These present with localized swelling, proptosis, or mechanical epiphora (overflow of tears) due to duct obstruction, but do not involve gustatory-linked tearing. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Site of Lesion:** Proximal to the geniculate ganglion. * **Treatment:** Injection of **Botulinum toxin** into the lacrimal gland is the gold standard for symptomatic relief. * **Frey’s Syndrome vs. Crocodile Tears:** Both are "gustatory" phenomena. Remember: **Frey’s = Sweating; Crocodile = Tearing.**

Question 107: What is the earliest complaint of a patient with Oral Submucous Fibrosis (OSMF)?

A. Blanching
B. Burning sensation (Correct Answer)
C. Restricted mouth opening
D. Shrunken uvula

Explanation: ### **Explanation** **Oral Submucous Fibrosis (OSMF)** is a chronic, progressive, premalignant condition primarily caused by the habit of chewing areca nut (betel nut). **1. Why "Burning Sensation" is the correct answer:** The earliest clinical symptom of OSMF is a **burning sensation** in the oral mucosa, particularly when consuming spicy food. This occurs during the initial inflammatory phase, where the mucosa becomes thin, sensitive, and erythematous. This is often accompanied by the appearance of small vesicles or ulcerations, preceding the actual fibrotic changes. **2. Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Blanching (Option A):** While blanching (a marble-like, pale appearance of the mucosa) is a classic clinical **sign**, it is not the earliest **complaint**. It occurs as the disease progresses and vascularity decreases due to fibrosis. * **Restricted mouth opening (Option B):** This is the most common **late symptom** and the hallmark of the disease. It occurs due to the formation of vertical fibrous bands in the buccal mucosa and circumoral tissues. * **Shrunken uvula (Option D):** This is a late-stage feature. Fibrosis eventually involves the soft palate and uvula, leading to a "bud-shaped" or shrunken uvula and impaired speech/deglutition. **3. High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Etiology:** Areca nut (contains alkaloids like arecoline which stimulate collagen synthesis). * **Pathognomonic Sign:** Palpable vertical fibrous bands (usually in the buccal mucosa). * **Pre-malignant Potential:** OSMF has a high malignant transformation rate (approx. 7–13%), most commonly leading to **Squamous Cell Carcinoma**. * **Other Features:** Loss of gustatory papillae on the tongue (depapillation) and "hockey-stick" appearance of the uvula in early stages before it shrinks.

Question 108: Recurrent oral ulcers with pain and an erythematous halo around them, what is the diagnosis?

A. Aphthous ulcer (Correct Answer)
B. Herpes
C. Chickenpox
D. Measles

Explanation: **Explanation:** The clinical presentation of **recurrent, painful oral ulcers** characterized by a central yellowish-white floor and a surrounding **erythematous halo** is a classic description of **Aphthous Ulcers** (Canker sores). These are the most common inflammatory lesions of the oral mucosa. **Why Aphthous Ulcer is correct:** Aphthous ulcers typically present as shallow, round, or oval ulcers with a necrotic center. The "erythematous halo" is a hallmark sign representing localized inflammation. They are non-contagious and often triggered by stress, trauma, or nutritional deficiencies (B12, Iron, Folic acid). **Why other options are incorrect:** * **Herpes (Herpes Simplex):** Usually starts as multiple small **vesicles** that rupture to form ulcers. They commonly affect the keratinized mucosa (hard palate, gingiva) and are often accompanied by systemic symptoms like fever. * **Chickenpox (Varicella):** Presents with a generalized pruritic "dew-drop on a rose petal" rash across the body. While oral lesions can occur, they are part of a systemic viral exanthem, not isolated recurrent oral ulcers. * **Measles:** Characterized by **Koplik’s spots** (small white spots on an erythematous base) found on the buccal mucosa opposite the lower molars. These appear *before* the maculopapular rash and are not chronic/recurrent ulcers. **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** 1. **Types:** Minor (most common, <1cm, heal without scarring), Major (Sutton’s disease, >1cm, heal with scarring), and Herpetiform (crops of tiny ulcers). 2. **Behçet’s Syndrome:** Suspect this if recurrent aphthous ulcers are associated with genital ulcers and uveitis. 3. **Management:** Topical corticosteroids (e.g., Triamcinolone) are the first-line treatment to reduce pain and healing time.

Question 109: Which anatomical structure is injured in the excision of a ranula?

A. Lingual vein
B. Lingual artery
C. Submandibular duct (Correct Answer)
D. Parotid duct

Explanation: **Explanation:** A **ranula** is a clinical term for a mucous extravasation cyst or a mucous retention cyst occurring in the floor of the mouth. It typically arises from the **sublingual gland**. **Why the Submandibular duct is the correct answer:** The submandibular duct (Wharton’s duct) runs along the floor of the mouth, passing from lateral to medial and crossing the lingual nerve. Because a ranula is located in the sublingual space, surgical excision (or marsupialization) involves dissecting tissue in the immediate vicinity of this duct. The duct is often displaced or compressed by the cyst, making it highly susceptible to accidental trauma, ligation, or transection during the procedure. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Lingual vein:** While superficial veins are present in the floor of the mouth, they are generally easily identified and retracted; they are not the primary structure at risk compared to the deeper ductal anatomy. * **Lingual artery:** This artery lies deep to the hyoglossus muscle. Unless the dissection is unnecessarily deep or involves a "plunging ranula" with an aggressive neck approach, it is usually not at risk during a standard intraoral excision. * **Parotid duct (Stensen’s duct):** This duct opens opposite the crown of the upper second molar. It is anatomically distant from the floor of the mouth where a ranula occurs. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Plunging Ranula:** A variant that herniates through the mylohyoid muscle into the submandibular space, presenting as a neck swelling. * **Treatment of Choice:** Complete excision of the ranula along with the **ipsilateral sublingual gland** to prevent recurrence. * **Nerve at Risk:** The **lingual nerve** is also at risk during excision as it loops under the submandibular duct.

Question 110: Metastatic disease to the oral region is most likely to occur in which of these locations?

A. Tongue
B. Posterior maxilla
C. Posterior mandible (Correct Answer)
D. Floor of the mouth

Explanation: **Explanation:** Metastatic tumors to the oral cavity are rare, representing approximately 1% of all oral malignancies. However, when they occur, the **posterior mandible** (molar-ramus region) is the most common site. **Why the Posterior Mandible?** The primary reason for this predilection is the presence of **active red bone marrow** in the posterior mandible of adults. Metastatic cells traveling via the bloodstream (hematogenous spread) tend to deposit in areas with high vascularity and hematopoietic activity. In the adult facial skeleton, the posterior mandible and the posterior maxilla retain more marrow than other areas, but the mandible is involved far more frequently (ratio of roughly 4:1). **Analysis of Options:** * **Posterior Mandible (Correct):** The most frequent site due to rich marrow content. Common primary sources include the breast, lung, kidney, prostate, and colon. * **Posterior Maxilla:** While it contains marrow, it is significantly less involved than the mandible. * **Tongue & Floor of the Mouth:** These are soft tissue sites. While metastases can occur in the oral soft tissues (most commonly the **attached gingiva**), they are less frequent than bone metastases. The tongue is the most common *soft tissue* site, but it ranks lower than the mandible overall. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Primary Source:** In females, the most common primary source is the **breast**; in males, it is the **lung**. * **Clinical Presentation:** Often mimics a dental infection or periapical lesion. Symptoms include swelling, pain, and notably, **numb chin syndrome** (mental nerve paresthesia), which should always raise suspicion of malignancy. * **Radiographic Appearance:** Usually presents as an ill-defined, "moth-eaten" radiolucency.

Practice by Chapter

Stomatitis

Practice Questions

Oral Ulcers

Practice Questions

Oral Leukoplakia

Practice Questions

Oral Cancers

Practice Questions

Sialadenitis

Practice Questions

Sialolithiasis

Practice Questions

Salivary Gland Tumors

Practice Questions

Ranula

Practice Questions

Xerostomia

Practice Questions

Sjögren's Syndrome

Practice Questions

Oral Manifestations of Systemic Diseases

Practice Questions

Temporomandibular Joint Disorders

Practice Questions

Want unlimited practice?

Get full access to all questions, explanations, and performance tracking.

Start For Free