Nasal Trauma — MCQs

10 questions

Reduction rhinoplasty is done for

A lady comes to OPD after fall from scooty. Her vitals are stable. She is having continuous, clear watery discharge from nose after 2 days. This is most likely a feature of?

Which of the following is a contraindication for open reduction & internal fixation (ORIF)?

Which of the following is not a type of skull fracture?

A 14-year-old child with a history of recurrent nasal bleeding has the endoscopic view provided. What is the investigation of choice?

Halo sign and handkerchief test are positive in which condition?

The most common bone involved in facial fractures is:

All of the following are indications for open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF) of fractures EXCEPT:

Investigations used for CSF rhinorrhea are all except:

Q10

A 35-year-old female patient presents with complaints of nasal obstruction and post-nasal drip. There is a past history of FESS for failed conservative management 5 years ago. Uncinectomy and maxillary ostium dilation was done during the previous FESS. A DNE done now shows patent ostia and mucosal edema of the maxillary sinus lining. What is the next best step in management? FESS - Functional endoscopic sinus surgery

Nasal Trauma Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 1: Reduction rhinoplasty is done for

A. Saddle nose
B. Crooked nose
C. Narrow nose
D. Hump nose (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Hump nose*** - **Reduction rhinoplasty** aims to decrease the size of specific nasal structures, making it the appropriate procedure for a **hump nose** where the dorsal hump needs to be reduced. - This involves removing excess bone and cartilage to achieve a smoother, straighter nasal profile. *Saddle nose* - **Saddle nose** is characterized by a depressed nasal dorsum and requires **augmentation rhinoplasty** to build up the bridge, often using grafts, rather than reduction. - The goal is to add tissue, not remove it, to correct the concavity. *Crooked nose* - A **crooked nose** involves deviation of the nasal pyramid and septum, requiring a septorhinoplasty or reconstructive techniques to straighten the nose, which is a complex reshaping process, not just reduction. - The focus is on realigning structures rather than simply making them smaller. *Narrow nose* - A **narrow nose** typically requires **augmentation or spreader grafts** to widen the nasal passages or define the dorsum, which would involve adding tissue, not removing it. - Reduction rhinoplasty would further narrow the nose, which is counterproductive for this condition.

Question 2: A lady comes to OPD after fall from scooty. Her vitals are stable. She is having continuous, clear watery discharge from nose after 2 days. This is most likely a feature of?

A. CSF rhinorrhoea (Correct Answer)
B. Acute respiratory infection
C. Rhinitis
D. Middle cranial fossa fracture

Explanation: ***CSF rhinorrhoea*** - **Clear watery discharge** appearing **two days after head trauma** (fall from scooty) is highly suggestive of **cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) rhinorrhoea**. - This occurs due to a breach in the **skull base**, allowing CSF to leak from the subarachnoid space into the nasal cavity. *Acute respiratory infection* - An acute respiratory infection typically presents with symptoms like **fever, cough**, and **nasal discharge** that is often thicker and discolored, not clear and watery. - The onset of discharge two days after trauma without other signs of infection also makes this less likely. *Rhinitis* - Rhinitis involves inflammation of the nasal mucosa, leading to watery discharge, sneezing, and congestion. - However, the traumatic etiology and the specific timing of the discharge make **CSF leak** a more pertinent diagnosis than simple rhinitis. *Middle cranial fossa fracture* - While a **middle cranial fossa fracture** can cause CSF leakage, the discharge from the nose (rhinorrhoea) typically originates from an **anterior cranial fossa fracture**. - A middle cranial fossa fracture is more commonly associated with **otorrhoea** (CSF leakage from the ear) if the temporal bone is involved.

Question 3: Which of the following is a contraindication for open reduction & internal fixation (ORIF)?

A. Active infection
B. Soft bones
C. Soft tissue contractures around the fracture site
D. All of the options (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***All of the options*** - **Active infection** at the surgical site is a significant contraindication for ORIF due to the high risk of **osteomyelitis** and implant failure. - **Soft bones**, such as those found in patients with **osteoporosis**, may not adequately hold the internal fixation devices (screws, plates), leading to implant loosening or cutout. - **Soft tissue contractures** around the fracture site can make surgical access difficult, compromise soft tissue coverage, and increase the risk of wound complications and poor functional outcomes. *Active infection* - While a direct contraindication, it's not the *only* one for ORIF. - Performing ORIF in the presence of infection significantly increases the risk of **surgical site infection** and implant failure, potentially leading to chronic osteomyelitis. *Soft bones* - This is a significant challenge for ORIF, as the bone quality may not be sufficient to hold the hardware securely. - It increases the risk of **implant failure** and non-union, but again, it's not the sole contraindication listed. *Soft tissue contractures around the fracture site* - Severe contractures can **impede surgical exposure**, make anatomical reduction difficult, and compromise the vascularity of the tissues. - This can lead to increased rates of **wound complications** and poor healing, but it is one of several contraindications.

Question 4: Which of the following is not a type of skull fracture?

A. Linear
B. Depressed
C. Basal
D. Diffuse axonal injury (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Diffuse axonal injury*** - **Diffuse axonal injury (DAI)** is a type of **traumatic brain injury** caused by shearing forces that damage axons. - It is a **microscopic brain injury** and does not involve a fracture of the skull bones. *Linear* - A **linear skull fracture** is a break in a cranial bone that appears as a thin line without bone displacement. - It is a common type of skull fracture, often occurring from low-energy blunt trauma. *Depressed* - A **depressed skull fracture** occurs when pieces of fractured bone are driven inward towards the brain. - This type of fracture often requires surgical intervention to elevate the bone fragments and reduce pressure on the brain. *Basal* - A **basal skull fracture** involves a break in the bones at the base of the skull. - It is often associated with signs like **raccoon eyes**, **Battle's sign**, and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leakage from the nose or ears.

Question 5: A 14-year-old child with a history of recurrent nasal bleeding has the endoscopic view provided. What is the investigation of choice?

A. Biopsy
B. X-ray
C. FESS (Functional Endoscopic Sinus Surgery)
D. CECT (Contrast-Enhanced CT) (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***CECT (Contrast-Enhanced CT)*** - Given the history of recurrent nasal bleeding in an adolescent male suggestive of a **juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibroma (JNA)**, CECT is the investigation of choice to delineate the tumor's extent, vascularity, and involvement of surrounding structures. - CECT provides crucial information for surgical planning and assessing intracranial extension due to the highly vascular nature of JNAs. *Biopsy* - Biopsy of a suspected angiofibroma is generally **contraindicated** due to the high risk of severe and uncontrolled hemorrhage because the tumor is highly vascular and lacks a true capsule. - The diagnosis of JNA is usually made based on clinical presentation and imaging findings. *X-ray* - **X-rays** (like plain radiographs of the sinuses) offer limited soft tissue detail and are **insufficient** to accurately visualize the extent or vascularity of a nasopharyngeal mass. - They may show some bony erosion but cannot provide the detailed information needed for diagnosis or surgical planning of a JNA. *FESS (Functional Endoscopic Sinus Surgery)* - **FESS** is a **surgical procedure** used for treating chronic sinusitis and other sinonasal conditions, not primarily an investigative tool for a suspected tumor like JNA. - While endoscopy is used for initial visualization, **surgery** is a treatment, and detailed imaging must precede it to understand tumor boundaries.

Question 6: Halo sign and handkerchief test are positive in which condition?

A. Cerebrospinal Fluid Rhinorrhea (Correct Answer)
B. Nasal Septum Deviation
C. Nasal Myiasis Infection
D. Choanal Atresia Condition

Explanation: ***Cerebrospinal Fluid Rhinorrhea*** - The **halo sign** (or double ring sign) is a common diagnostic indicator for **CSF leakage**, appearing as a blood stain surrounded by a clear ring on filter paper. - The **handkerchief test** observes the spreading pattern of fluid, where CSF forms a distinct outer ring due to its capillary action, differentiating it from mucus or blood. *Nasal Septum Deviation* - This condition involves the displacement of the **nasal septum**, leading to symptoms like nasal obstruction and difficulty breathing. - It does not involve any fluid leakage and therefore would not present with a **halo sign** or be relevant to the **handkerchief test**. *Nasal Myiasis Infection* - **Nasal myiasis** is an infestation of the nasal cavity by fly larvae (maggots), causing pain, discharge, and obstruction. - The discharge associated with this condition is typically purulent and bloody, but it would not exhibit the characteristic **halo sign** or react uniquely to the **handkerchief test** like CSF. *Choanal Atresia Condition* - **Choanal atresia** is a congenital malformation where the back of the nasal passage (choana) is blocked, usually by bone or soft tissue. - Symptoms include difficulty breathing and feeding in neonates due to complete or partial nasal obstruction; there is no abnormal CSF leakage involved.

Question 7: The most common bone involved in facial fractures is:

A. Zygomatic
B. Nasal bones
C. Maxilla
D. Mandible (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Mandible*** - The **mandible** is the most frequently fractured facial bone due to its prominent and exposed position, making it highly susceptible to trauma. - Common mechanisms of injury include **motor vehicle accidents**, falls, and assaults. *Zygomatic* - Although the **zygoma** (cheekbone) is commonly fractured, it ranks second or third after the mandible and nasal bones. - Fractures of the zygoma often involve displacement of the **zygomaticomaxillary complex (ZMC)**. *Nasal bones* - **Nasal bone fractures** are very common due to their delicate structure and exposed location on the face. - However, in terms of overall facial fractures, the **mandible** is more frequently involved. *Maxilla* - **Maxillary fractures**, often classified by Le Fort patterns, are less common than mandibular or nasal bone fractures. - These fractures typically result from **high-impact trauma** and can involve significant midfacial disruption.

Question 8: All of the following are indications for open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF) of fractures EXCEPT:

A. Multiple trauma
B. Stable closed fracture (Correct Answer)
C. Compound fracture
D. Intra-articular fracture

Explanation: ***Stable closed fracture*** - A **stable closed fracture** typically does not require surgical intervention with ORIF as it can usually be managed non-surgically with casting or bracing. - The goal of ORIF is to achieve **anatomic reduction and rigid fixation**, which is not necessary for stable fractures that maintain alignment. *Multiple trauma* - In patients with **multiple trauma**, early stabilization of long bone fractures using ORIF can help reduce pain, prevent further injury, and facilitate patient mobilization. - This approach aims to reduce the risk of complications such as **ARDS (acute respiratory distress syndrome)** and fat embolism for critically ill patients. *Compound fracture* - **Compound (open) fractures** involve a break in the skin, exposing the bone to the external environment, and are a classic indication for surgical management. - ORIF in these cases helps to achieve **stabilization** after debridement, crucial for preventing infection and promoting bone healing. *Intra-articular fracture* - **Intra-articular fractures** involve the joint surface, and accurate anatomical reduction is critical to prevent post-traumatic arthritis and preserve joint function. - ORIF provides the precise reduction and stable fixation needed to restore the **joint congruity**.

Question 9: Investigations used for CSF rhinorrhea are all except:

A. Skull X-ray (Correct Answer)
B. CT cisternogram
C. Beta-2 transferrin
D. Nasal endoscopy

Explanation: ***Skull X-ray*** - A **skull X-ray** is generally not useful for diagnosing **CSF rhinorrhea** as it lacks the detailed soft tissue resolution needed to identify CSF leaks. - It cannot visualize small defects in the skull base or detect the presence of CSF distinct from other nasal secretions. *CT cisternogram* - A **CT cisternogram** is a highly effective imaging modality for localizing **CSF leaks**, involving an intrathecal injection of contrast followed by CT scanning. - It can pinpoint the exact site of the leak in the skull base, which is crucial for surgical planning. *Beta-2 transferrin* - **Beta-2 transferrin** is a protein found almost exclusively in **cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)**, making its detection in nasal discharge diagnostic of CSF rhinorrhea. - This biochemical test offers high specificity for confirming the presence of CSF. *Nasal endoscopy* - **Nasal endoscopy** allows direct visualization of the nasal cavity and can help identify the source of the leak, especially if active dripping is observed. - During the procedure, the Valsalva maneuver or changes in head position can sometimes provoke or increase the flow of CSF, aiding in localization.

Question 10: A 35-year-old female patient presents with complaints of nasal obstruction and post-nasal drip. There is a past history of FESS for failed conservative management 5 years ago. Uncinectomy and maxillary ostium dilation was done during the previous FESS. A DNE done now shows patent ostia and mucosal edema of the maxillary sinus lining. What is the next best step in management? FESS - Functional endoscopic sinus surgery

A. Tissue biopsy for histopathological examination (Correct Answer)
B. Immediate revision FESS
C. High-dose systemic steroids
D. Topical antifungal therapy

Explanation: ***Tissue biopsy for histopathological examination*** - The patient has persistent **mucosal edema** despite previous FESS and patent ostia, raising suspicion for less common etiologies such as **eosinophilic mucin rhinosinusitis** or even a **neoplastic process**, which require histological confirmation. - A biopsy is essential to differentiate between inflammatory conditions not responsive to standard medical therapy and other distinct pathologies, guiding further specific treatment. *Immediate revision FESS* - Revision FESS is usually considered when there is evidence of **recurrent obstruction** or **sinus scarring**, neither of which is indicated by the "patent ostia" observed during DNE. - Performing FESS without addressing the underlying cause of persistent mucosal edema is unlikely to be curative and risks repeat failure. *High-dose systemic steroids* - While systemic steroids can reduce inflammation, persistent symptoms despite prior surgical intervention and observed mucosal edema warrant investigating the underlying cause before resorting to high-dose systemic therapy. - Prolonged use of high-dose systemic steroids carries significant side effects and should be reserved for cases where the etiology is well-defined and responsive, such as severe asthma or certain inflammatory conditions. *Topical antifungal therapy* - While fungal elements can contribute to rhinosinusitis, the broad application of topical antifungals without specific evidence of fungal infection (e.g., fungal balls, invasive fungal sinusitis) is not standard initial management. - The description of "mucosal edema" and absence of specific fungal features (like thick, inspissated mucin or fungal hyphae) makes empirical antifungal therapy less appropriate as the primary next step.

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