Laryngeal Trauma — MCQs
Which of the following injuries is the most serious?
A man takes peanut and develops tongue swelling, neck swelling, stridor, hoarseness of voice. What is the probable diagnosis?
A patient is admitted following a road traffic accident. He has sustained significant blunt injury to his head, chest and abdomen and has a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 8/15. His saturations are poor at 89% on 15 L of oxygen a rebreathing mask. You note bruising around both eyes and blood-stained fluid issuing from his left ear, which forms concentric circles when dripped on a white sheet. You wish to support his airway to improve oxygenation. The first choice of airway adjunct would be
Road traffic accident (RTA) with multiple fractures - initial treatment would be:
Emergency tracheostomy is not indicated in
Most common nerve injured in ligation of inferior thyroid artery
Which of the following statements about laryngomalacia is true?
True about carcinoma of the larynx?
Which of the following is NOT used in the treatment of Juvenile Laryngeal Papillomatosis?
What is the standard treatment for T1N0M0 laryngeal cancer?
Laryngeal Trauma Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: Which of the following injuries is the most serious?
- A. Open pneumothorax (sucking chest wound) (Correct Answer)
- B. Flail chest (multiple rib fractures with paradoxical movement)
- C. Diaphragmatic injury (rupture of the diaphragm)
- D. Single rib fracture (isolated rib injury)
Explanation: ***Open pneumothorax (sucking chest wound)*** - An **open pneumothorax** allows air to enter and exit the pleural space directly through a chest wall defect, leading to rapid lung collapse and severe respiratory distress. - This condition can quickly progress to a **tension pneumothorax** and compromise both ventilation and circulation, making it immediately life-threatening. *Flail chest (multiple rib fractures with paradoxical movement)* - **Flail chest** involves a segment of the thoracic cage that separates independently from the rest of the chest wall, leading to **paradoxical chest wall movement**. - While serious and often causing significant pain and respiratory compromise, it is generally less acutely life-threatening than an open pneumothorax. *Diaphragmatic injury (rupture of the diaphragm)* - A **diaphragmatic injury** can lead to herniation of abdominal contents into the chest cavity, causing respiratory distress and potential organ strangulation. - While serious and requiring surgical repair, it is often not an immediate threat to life compared to direct impairment of gas exchange seen in an open pneumothorax. *Single rib fracture (isolated rib injury)* - A **single rib fracture** is generally the least serious of the options and can cause pain, but typically does not lead to significant respiratory compromise unless associated with other complications. - Management primarily involves pain control and monitoring for potential secondary injuries like a simple pneumothorax or hemothorax.
Question 2: A man takes peanut and develops tongue swelling, neck swelling, stridor, hoarseness of voice. What is the probable diagnosis?
- A. FB in larynx
- B. Angioneurotic edema (Correct Answer)
- C. Parapharyngeal abscess
- D. FB bronchus
Explanation: Andioneurotic edema - The combination of **tongue swelling**, **neck swelling**, **stridor**, and **hoarseness of voice** following peanut ingestion is highly suggestive of **angioneurotic edema**, a severe allergic reaction that can lead to airway obstruction [1]. - This is a life-threatening condition requiring immediate medical intervention, often associated with generalized **anaphylaxis** when triggered by allergens [2]. *FB in larynx* - While a **foreign body (FB) in the larynx** can cause stridor and hoarseness, the widespread swelling of the tongue and neck points away from a localized laryngeal obstruction [3]. - A laryngeal FB would typically be associated with a more sudden onset of choking and coughing, not diffuse edema [3]. *Parapharyngeal abscess* - A **parapharyngeal abscess** would typically present with **fever**, **severe throat pain**, and **trismus** (difficulty opening the mouth), which are not mentioned in this scenario. - The acute, rapid onset of symptoms after peanut consumption is inconsistent with the slower progression of an abscess. *FB bronchus* - A **foreign body in the bronchus** would primarily cause **coughing**, **wheezing**, and possibly **respiratory distress**, often unilateral, rather than severe global swelling of the tongue and neck. - Inspiratory stridor and hoarseness are more indicative of upper airway involvement than bronchial obstruction.
Question 3: A patient is admitted following a road traffic accident. He has sustained significant blunt injury to his head, chest and abdomen and has a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 8/15. His saturations are poor at 89% on 15 L of oxygen a rebreathing mask. You note bruising around both eyes and blood-stained fluid issuing from his left ear, which forms concentric circles when dripped on a white sheet. You wish to support his airway to improve oxygenation. The first choice of airway adjunct would be
- A. Nasopharyngeal tube
- B. Intubation
- C. Laryngeal mask
- D. Oropharyngeal airway (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Oropharyngeal airway*** - An **oropharyngeal airway (OPA)** is the most appropriate initial airway adjunct in a patient with a **depressed GCS (8/15)** and poor oxygenation, as it helps to relieve **upper airway obstruction** caused by the tongue falling back. - Given the potential for a **basal skull fracture** (bruising around eyes, blood-stained fluid from ear forming concentric circles), a **nasopharyngeal airway (NPA)** is contraindicated due to the risk of intracranial insertion. *Nasopharyngeal tube* - A **nasopharyngeal airway (NPA)** is contraindicated in this patient due to signs suggestive of a **basal skull fracture**, which include **raccoon eyes (periorbital bruising)** and **Battle's sign (bruising behind the ear)**, as well as the **halo sign (concentric circles of blood and CSF)** from the ear. - Inserting an NPA in such a scenario risks inadvertently entering the **cranial cavity**, leading to further neurological damage or infection. *Intubation* - While **intubation** may eventually be necessary given the patient's low GCS and poor oxygenation, it is not the *first choice* of airway adjunct. - The immediate priority is to establish a **patent airway** quickly and safely, which an OPA can achieve while preparations for definitive intubation are made. *Laryngeal mask* - A **laryngeal mask airway (LMA)** could be considered for airway management, but it is typically a more advanced adjunct than an OPA. - Its insertion requires a certain level of skill and might be more time-consuming than an OPA, which is crucial in an emergency setting.
Question 4: Road traffic accident (RTA) with multiple fractures - initial treatment would be:
- A. Management of shock
- B. Splinting of limbs
- C. Airway management (Correct Answer)
- D. Cervical spine protection
Explanation: ***Airway management*** - In trauma, **establishing and maintaining a patent airway** is the absolute priority, as compromised breathing can lead to rapid deterioration and death. - The **ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation)** of trauma care dictate that airway intervention precedes other life-saving measures. *Management of shock* - While crucial, **managing shock (C)** follows **airway (A)** and **breathing (B)** in the primary survey of trauma care. - Addressing profound shock without a patent airway can be ineffective and leads to irreversible damage. *Splinting of limbs* - **Splinting fractures** is important for pain control, preventing further injury, and minimizing blood loss in open fractures, but it is not an immediate life-saving intervention. - This falls under the **secondary survey** or definitive management, after life-threatening issues have been addressed. *Cervical spine protection* - **Cervical spine protection** is essential in trauma to prevent further neurological injury and is performed simultaneously with airway management (often with in-line stabilization). - However, a patent airway is the **most immediate life-sustaining intervention** if the airway is compromised.
Question 5: Emergency tracheostomy is not indicated in
- A. Bilateral vocal cord paralysis
- B. Foreign body larynx
- C. Acute severe asthma (Correct Answer)
- D. Stridor due to laryngeal growth
Explanation: ***Acute severe asthma*** - While life-threatening, acute severe asthma is primarily managed with **bronchodilators**, **steroids**, and potentially **non-invasive or invasive ventilation**. - **Tracheostomy** is generally reserved for situations involving upper airway obstruction that cannot be managed by other means, which is not the primary issue in asthma. *Bilateral vocal cord paralysis* - This condition can cause severe **upper airway obstruction** due to the adduction of both vocal cords. - In an emergency setting, a tracheostomy may be life-saving to bypass the obstructed larynx. *Foreign body larynx* - An obstructing **foreign body in the larynx** can lead to immediate and complete airway compromise. - If efforts like the **Heimlich maneuver** or direct laryngoscopy with removal fail, an emergency tracheostomy might be necessary. *Stridor due to laryngeal growth* - A laryngeal growth causing **stridor** indicates significant airway narrowing, which can acutely worsen and lead to respiratory distress. - In cases of severe or rapidly progressive obstruction, an **emergency tracheostomy** is needed to secure the airway below the level of the growth.
Question 6: Most common nerve injured in ligation of inferior thyroid artery
- A. Sympathetic trunk
- B. Phrenic nerve
- C. Recurrent laryngeal nerve (Correct Answer)
- D. External branch of superior laryngeal nerve
Explanation: **Recurrent laryngeal nerve** - The **recurrent laryngeal nerve (RLN)** runs in close proximity to the inferior thyroid artery, especially on the right side, making it highly vulnerable during ligation or thyroid surgery. - Injury to the RLN can cause **hoarseness** due to paralysis of the vocal cords, as it innervates most intrinsic laryngeal muscles. *Sympathetic trunk* - The **sympathetic trunk** lies more medially and posteriorly in the neck, generally not in the immediate surgical field for inferior thyroid artery ligation. - Injury to the sympathetic trunk typically leads to **Horner's syndrome** (ptosis, miosis, anhidrosis). *Phrenic nerve* - The **phrenic nerve** courses over the anterior scalene muscle, lateral to the thyroid gland and major vessels, making it relatively safe during standard thyroid surgery. - Damage to the phrenic nerve would result in **diaphragmatic paralysis** and respiratory compromise. *External branch of superior laryngeal nerve* - The **external branch of the superior laryngeal nerve (EBSLN)** is located more superiorly, running with the superior thyroid artery to the cricothyroid muscle. - Injury to the EBSLN would affect the **pitch of the voice** but is less commonly injured during inferior thyroid artery ligation compared to the RLN.
Question 7: Which of the following statements about laryngomalacia is true?
- A. It is characterized by an omega-shaped epiglottis.
- B. It requires immediate surgical intervention.
- C. It always requires surgical intervention in newborns.
- D. It typically presents with inspiratory stridor. (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***It typically presents with inspiratory stridor.*** - **Laryngomalacia** is the most common cause of **inspiratory stridor** in infants, usually presenting within the first few weeks of life due to collapse of supraglottic structures during inspiration. - The stridor is characteristically **worse when crying, feeding, or lying supine**, and often improves when the infant is prone. *It is characterized by an omega-shaped epiglottis.* - While an **omega-shaped epiglottis** can be a feature seen in laryngomalacia, it is not the sole or defining characteristic and is not universally present. - The primary characteristic is the **collapse of the supraglottic structures** (arytenoids, aryepiglottic folds, and epiglottis) into the laryngeal inlet upon inspiration. *It requires immediate surgical intervention.* - The vast majority of **laryngomalacia cases are mild to moderate** and resolve spontaneously by 12-18 months of age, requiring only conservative management. - **Surgical intervention** (supraglottoplasty) is reserved for severe cases with significant feeding difficulties, failure to thrive, severe airway obstruction, or apneic episodes. *It always requires surgical intervention in newborns.* - As mentioned, **most cases are self-limiting** and do not require surgery, especially in newborns. - Surgical intervention is only considered when there are **severe symptoms** impacting the infant's health and development.
Question 8: True about carcinoma of the larynx?
- A. Glottis is the most common site. (Correct Answer)
- B. It rarely presents with metastasis.
- C. Adenocarcinoma is the commonest type.
- D. It responds to chemotherapy very well.
Explanation: ### Explanation **Correct Option: A. Glottis is the most common site.** In the Indian subcontinent and globally, the **glottis (vocal cords)** is the most common site for laryngeal carcinoma (approx. 60-65%), followed by the supraglottis (30-35%) and the subglottis (1-5%). Glottic tumors often present early due to hoarseness of voice, which occurs even with tiny lesions. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **B. It rarely presents with metastasis:** This is incorrect. While glottic cancers have a low rate of metastasis due to sparse lymphatic drainage, **supraglottic cancers** have a rich lymphatic network and frequently present with early cervical lymph node metastasis (often bilateral). * **C. Adenocarcinoma is the commonest type:** Incorrect. Over 95% of laryngeal cancers are **Squamous Cell Carcinomas (SCC)**. Adenocarcinoma is rare and usually arises from minor salivary glands. * **D. It responds to chemotherapy very well:** Incorrect. The primary treatment modalities for laryngeal cancer are **Surgery and Radiotherapy**. Chemotherapy is typically used as an adjuvant or for "organ preservation" protocols (e.g., Cisplatin) rather than being the definitive treatment of choice. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Best Prognosis:** Glottic cancer (due to early symptoms and poor lymphatics). * **Worst Prognosis:** Subglottic cancer (presents late and has a high risk of paratracheal node involvement). * **Most Common Site of Distant Metastasis:** Lungs. * **Staging:** T1a involves one vocal cord; T1b involves both cords. T3 implies vocal cord fixation. * **Risk Factors:** Smoking (strongest association) and Alcohol (synergistic effect).
Question 9: Which of the following is NOT used in the treatment of Juvenile Laryngeal Papillomatosis?
- A. Interferon alpha (INF α)
- B. Interferon beta (INF β) (Correct Answer)
- C. Bevacizumab
- D. Cedofovir
Explanation: **Explanation:** Juvenile Laryngeal Papillomatosis (JLP), caused by **HPV types 6 and 11**, is characterized by recurrent benign epithelial tumors. The primary treatment is surgical debulking (CO2 laser or microdebrider), but adjuvant medical therapy is indicated when the disease is aggressive (requiring >4 surgeries per year). **Why Option B is Correct:** **Interferon beta (INF β)** is not a standard treatment for JLP. While Interferons have antiviral and antiproliferative properties, clinical evidence and established protocols specifically utilize **Interferon alpha (INF α)**. INF β does not have a proven role in the management of this condition. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Interferon alpha (INF α):** Historically the first-line adjuvant therapy. It slows the rate of recurrence by inducing antiviral states in cells, though it rarely provides a permanent cure and has significant side effects (flu-like symptoms, growth retardation). * **Cidofovir:** A potent antiviral (cytosine nucleotide analog) administered via **intralesional injection**. It is currently one of the most commonly used adjuvant agents for recalcitrant cases. * **Bevacizumab:** An anti-VEGF monoclonal antibody. It is a newer, highly effective treatment (administered systemically or intralesionally) that inhibits the angiogenesis required for papilloma growth. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Most common benign tumor** of the larynx in children. * **Triad of symptoms:** Hoarseness (most common), stridor, and respiratory distress. * **Diagnosis:** Direct laryngoscopy shows "cauliflower-like" masses. * **Gold Standard Adjuvant:** Cidofovir (Intralesional). * **Newer Trend:** Bevacizumab is increasingly preferred for severe cases. * **Note:** Tracheostomy should be avoided as it may lead to "stomal seeding" of the papilloma.
Question 10: What is the standard treatment for T1N0M0 laryngeal cancer?
- A. Radiotherapy (Correct Answer)
- B. Total laryngectomy
- C. Laser therapy
- D. Microlaryngoscopic surgery
Explanation: **Explanation:** The management of early-stage laryngeal cancer (T1N0M0) focuses on **organ preservation** and maintaining voice quality. For T1 lesions, both **Radiotherapy (RT)** and **Endoscopic CO2 Laser Excision** are considered standard treatments, as they offer similar local control and survival rates (approx. 90-95%). **Why Radiotherapy is the Correct Answer:** In the context of standard examinations like NEET-PG, **Radiotherapy** is traditionally favored as the primary answer for T1 glottic lesions because it provides an excellent functional outcome with a superior voice quality compared to surgery. It treats the entire larynx, addressing potential multicentricity of the disease without the need for surgical margins. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **B. Total Laryngectomy:** This is a radical procedure reserved for advanced stages (T3 or T4) where the larynx is non-functional or there is extensive cartilage destruction. It is never the first-line treatment for T1 disease. * **C. Laser Therapy:** While highly effective and increasingly popular (Transoral Laser Microsurgery - TLM), it is often considered an alternative to RT. In many textbooks, RT remains the "classic" gold standard for voice preservation in T1. * **D. Microlaryngoscopic Surgery:** While used for biopsy or very superficial "stripping," it is generally insufficient as a standalone curative treatment for invasive T1 cancer unless performed via CO2 laser (TLM). **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **T1a:** Involves one vocal cord; **T1b:** Involves both vocal cords. * **Voice Quality:** RT generally offers a better "smooth" voice, whereas Laser surgery may result in a "breathy" or "rough" voice due to tissue loss. * **Salvage:** If RT fails, surgery (Partial or Total Laryngectomy) can still be performed. * **Treatment of Choice for T3/T4:** Concurrent Chemoradiotherapy (for organ preservation) or Total Laryngectomy.
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