Tropical Ulcers — MCQs
Marjolin's ulcer is:-
A sex worker presents with purulent urethral discharge. Microscopy reveals gram-negative diplococci. What is the most likely diagnosis?
An elderly patient presents with a non-healing ulcerative lesion on the lower lip, as shown in the image. The lesion has been gradually enlarging over the past few months. Suspecting squamous cell carcinoma (SCC), what is the most appropriate method to obtain a biopsy for definitive diagnosis?
Statement 1 - A 59-year-old patient presents with flaccid bullae. Histopathology shows a suprabasal acantholytic split. Statement 2 - The row of tombstones appearance is diagnostic of Pemphigus vulgaris.
Match the following: A) Caplan syndrome- 1) Found first in coal worker B) Asbestosis- 2) Upper lobe predominance C) Mesothelioma- 3) Involves lower lobe D) Sarcoidosis- 4) Pleural effusion is seen
A 35-year-old female presented with multiple inverted saucer-shaped ulcers over the body, with sensations near normal. The SSS test was positive, and the lepromin test was negative. What is the most appropriate management for this patient?
Which of the following conditions is characterized by the sign of the groove?
A young female presents with a history of fever and a nodular lesion over the shin. Histopathology reveals foamy histiocytes with neutrophilic infiltration. There is no evidence of vasculitis. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A young tourist presents with an erythematous lesion on the cheek with central crusting after visiting a region endemic for a specific protozoal infection. What is the likely dermatological condition?
What is characteristic of donovanosis?
Tropical Ulcers Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: Marjolin's ulcer is:-
- A. Adenoma of scar
- B. Squamous cell carcinoma from scar (Correct Answer)
- C. Amoebic ulcer
- D. Tubercular ulcer
Explanation: ***Squamous cell carcinoma from scar*** - A Marjolin's ulcer is a rare but aggressive form of squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) that arises in areas of previously traumatized, chronically inflamed, or scarred skin. - Common sites include burn scars, chronic osteomyelitis tracts, pressure ulcers, and venous ulcers. - Typically has a long latency period (average 30-35 years after initial injury). - Characterized by higher rates of local recurrence and metastasis compared to conventional SCC. *Adenoma of scar* - An adenoma is a benign tumor of glandular origin and is not typically associated with scar tissue or malignant transformation in this context. - The malignancy arising in a scar is usually carcinoma, not adenoma. *Amoebic ulcer* - An amoebic ulcer is caused by the parasite *Entamoeba histolytica* and typically affects the colon, presenting as dysentery. - It is not a type of malignant transformation within a pre-existing scar. *Tubercular ulcer* - A tubercular ulcer is a manifestation of tuberculosis, often affecting the skin or mucous membranes and caused by *Mycobacterium tuberculosis*. - This is an infectious process and not a malignant transformation of scar tissue.
Question 2: A sex worker presents with purulent urethral discharge. Microscopy reveals gram-negative diplococci. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Gonorrhea (Correct Answer)
- B. Syphilis
- C. Chancroid
- D. Lymphogranuloma venereum
Explanation: ***Gonorrhea*** - The presence of **purulent urethral discharge** and **Gram-negative diplococci** on microscopy is pathognomonic for Neisseria gonorrhoeae infection [1]. - This clinical presentation in a **sex worker** further increases the likelihood of a sexually transmitted infection like gonorrhea [1]. *Syphilis* - Caused by *Treponema pallidum*, it typically presents with a **painless chancre** in the primary stage, not urethral discharge. - Diagnosis is usually made by **serological tests** or darkfield microscopy, not Gram stain of discharge. *Chancroid* - Caused by *Haemophilus ducreyi*, it presents with **painful genital ulcers** and often **inguinal lymphadenopathy**. - Microscopy would show Gram-negative rods in a "school of fish" arrangement, not diplococci. *Lymphogranuloma venereum* - Caused by specific serovars of *Chlamydia trachomatis*, it initially presents with a **transient, often unnoticed, genital lesion**, followed by painful **inguinal lymphadenopathy (buboes)**. - Diagnosis is typically by nucleic acid amplification tests (NAAT) from bubo aspirate, not Gram stain of urethral discharge.
Question 3: An elderly patient presents with a non-healing ulcerative lesion on the lower lip, as shown in the image. The lesion has been gradually enlarging over the past few months. Suspecting squamous cell carcinoma (SCC), what is the most appropriate method to obtain a biopsy for definitive diagnosis?
- A. Incisional (Correct Answer)
- B. Excisional
- C. Deep tissue biopsy
- D. Superficial biopsy from the border with normal tissue
Explanation: ***Incisional*** - An **incisional biopsy** is the most appropriate method for obtaining a definitive diagnosis of suspected squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) of the lip. - This technique involves removing a **wedge-shaped portion of the lesion** that includes both the tumor tissue and a margin extending into normal tissue, with adequate depth to assess invasion. - Incisional biopsy provides sufficient tissue for **histopathological examination**, including assessment of tumor grade, depth of invasion, and other prognostic factors critical for staging and treatment planning. - For larger or suspicious lesions where complete excision might cause significant cosmetic deformity, incisional biopsy allows for **diagnosis confirmation before definitive surgical management**. *Superficial biopsy from the border with normal tissue* - A superficial or shave biopsy is **inadequate for SCC diagnosis** as it does not provide information about the depth of invasion, which is crucial for staging and prognosis. - Squamous cell carcinoma requires assessment of invasion into underlying dermis and deeper structures, which cannot be evaluated with superficial sampling. - Superficial biopsies may lead to **underdiagnosis** or incomplete staging, potentially compromising treatment planning. *Excisional* - While excisional biopsy (complete removal with margins) can be appropriate for **small, well-defined lesions** (<1 cm), it may not be the first choice for larger or gradually enlarging lesions. - Complete excision without prior histological confirmation might result in **inadequate margins** if malignancy is confirmed, requiring re-excision. - For lip lesions, unnecessary wide excision can cause **significant cosmetic and functional defects** if the lesion proves benign or requires specialized reconstruction. *Deep tissue biopsy* - This is not standard terminology in the context of lip lesions and lacks specificity regarding the sampling technique. - The term "deep tissue biopsy" is more commonly used for suspected soft tissue tumors or deep-seated lesions, not for mucocutaneous SCC.
Question 4: Statement 1 - A 59-year-old patient presents with flaccid bullae. Histopathology shows a suprabasal acantholytic split. Statement 2 - The row of tombstones appearance is diagnostic of Pemphigus vulgaris.
- A. Statements 1 & 2 are correct, 2 is not explaining 1 (Correct Answer)
- B. Statements 1 and 2 are correct and 2 is the correct explanation for 1
- C. Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect
- D. Statement 1 is incorrect
Explanation: ***Correct: Statements 1 & 2 are correct, 2 is not explaining 1*** **Analysis of Statement 1:** - A 59-year-old patient with **flaccid bullae** and **suprabasal acantholytic split** on histopathology is the classic presentation of **Pemphigus vulgaris** - The flaccid (easily ruptured) nature of bullae distinguishes it from tense bullae seen in bullous pemphigoid - The suprabasal location of the split (just above the basal layer) with acantholysis (loss of cell-to-cell adhesion) is pathognomonic - **Statement 1 is CORRECT** ✓ **Analysis of Statement 2:** - The **"row of tombstones" or "tombstone appearance"** is indeed a diagnostic histopathological feature of Pemphigus vulgaris - This appearance results from basal keratinocytes remaining attached to the basement membrane while suprabasal cells separate due to acantholysis - The intact basal cells standing upright resemble a row of tombstones - **Statement 2 is CORRECT** ✓ **Does Statement 2 explain Statement 1?** - Statement 2 describes a **histopathological appearance** (tombstone pattern) that is a **consequence** of the suprabasal split - However, it does NOT explain the **underlying cause** of the flaccid bullae or the suprabasal split - The true explanation involves **IgG autoantibodies against desmoglein 3 (and desmoglein 1)**, which attack intercellular adhesion structures (desmosomes), causing **acantholysis** - Therefore, **Statement 2 does NOT explain Statement 1** ✗ *Incorrect: Statement 2 is the correct explanation for Statement 1* - While both statements describe features of Pemphigus vulgaris, the tombstone appearance is a descriptive finding, not an explanatory mechanism *Incorrect: Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect* - Both statements are medically accurate descriptions of Pemphigus vulgaris features *Incorrect: Statement 1 is incorrect* - Statement 1 correctly describes the cardinal clinical and histopathological features of Pemphigus vulgaris
Question 5: Match the following: A) Caplan syndrome- 1) Found first in coal worker B) Asbestosis- 2) Upper lobe predominance C) Mesothelioma- 3) Involves lower lobe D) Sarcoidosis- 4) Pleural effusion is seen
- A. A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
- B. A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2 (Correct Answer)
- C. A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1
- D. A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1
Explanation: **A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2** - **Caplan syndrome** was first described in **coal workers** with **rheumatoid arthritis** and progressive massive fibrosis. - **Asbestosis** is often associated with **pleural effusion**, which can be benign or malignant. - **Mesothelioma** typically involves the **lower lobes** of the lungs, specifically the pleura, and is strongly linked to asbestos exposure. - **Sarcoidosis** is characterized by **non-caseating granulomas**, which have a predilection for the **upper lobes** of the lungs. *A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1* - This option incorrectly states that Caplan syndrome involves the lower lobe; **Caplan syndrome** is defined by the presence of large nodules in the lungs of coal workers with rheumatoid arthritis, and their specific lobar distribution is not a defining characteristic. - This option incorrectly states that Mesothelioma has an upper lobe predominance; **Mesothelioma** is a pleural malignancy and typically involves the **lower lobes**, extending along the pleura. *A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1* - This option incorrectly associates Caplan syndrome with pleural effusion; **Caplan syndrome** manifests as rheumatoid nodules in the lungs, not primarily pleural effusion. - This option incorrectly states that Asbestosis has an upper lobe predominance; **Asbestosis** predominantly affects the **lower lobes** of the lungs, causing interstitial fibrosis. *A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1* - This option incorrectly states that Caplan syndrome has an upper lobe predominance; the defining feature of **Caplan syndrome** is the combination of rheumatoid arthritis and pneumoconiosis, not specific lobar involvement. - This option correctly identifies pleural effusion with asbestosis and lower lobe involvement with mesothelioma, but **Caplan syndrome** is not characterized by upper lobe predominance.
Question 6: A 35-year-old female presented with multiple inverted saucer-shaped ulcers over the body, with sensations near normal. The SSS test was positive, and the lepromin test was negative. What is the most appropriate management for this patient?
- A. T.Rifampicin 600 mg and T.Clofazimine 300 mg once a month, T.Clofazimine 100 mg daily, and T.Dapsone 100 mg daily for 12 months.
- B. T.Rifampicin 600 mg and T.Clofazimine 300 mg once a month, T.Clofazimine 50 mg daily, and T.Dapsone 100 mg daily for 6 months.
- C. T.Rifampicin 600 mg and T.Clofazimine 300 mg once a month, T.Clofazimine 50 mg daily, and T.Dapsone 1000 mg daily for 12 months.
- D. T.Rifampicin 600 mg and T.Clofazimine 300 mg once a month, T.Clofazimine 50 mg daily, and T.Dapsone 100 mg daily for 12 months. (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Correct WHO MDT-MB regimen (Rifampicin 600 mg + Clofazimine 300 mg monthly, Clofazimine 50 mg daily, Dapsone 100 mg daily for 12 months)*** - The clinical presentation (multiple inverted saucer-shaped ulcers, near normal sensations, positive **SSS test**, negative **lepromin test**) is characteristic of **lepromatous leprosy** (multibacillary leprosy). - The standard WHO-recommended multidrug therapy (MDT) for multibacillary leprosy is **Rifampicin 600 mg once monthly**, **Clofazimine 300 mg once monthly** plus **50 mg daily**, and **Dapsone 100 mg daily for 12 months**. - This regimen ensures adequate bacterial clearance and prevents relapse in multibacillary cases. *Incorrect: Clofazimine 100 mg daily dose* - The daily dose of **Clofazimine** (100 mg) is incorrect, as the standard daily dose for multibacillary leprosy is **50 mg**, not 100 mg. - While other components (Rifampicin, Dapsone doses) and 12-month duration are correct, the incorrect daily clofazimine dose makes this option unsuitable. *Incorrect: 6-month duration* - The duration of treatment for multibacillary leprosy is **12 months**, not 6 months. - A 6-month regimen is indicated for **paucibacillary leprosy** only. - Inadequate treatment duration increases the risk of **relapse and drug resistance** in multibacillary cases. *Incorrect: Dapsone 1000 mg daily dose* - The daily dose of **Dapsone** (1000 mg) is significantly higher than the recommended **100 mg daily**, risking severe toxicity. - High doses of Dapsone can lead to **hemolytic anemia**, **methemoglobinemia**, and other serious adverse effects.
Question 7: Which of the following conditions is characterized by the sign of the groove?
- A. Lymphogranuloma venereum (Correct Answer)
- B. Granuloma inguinale
- C. Syphilis
- D. Chancroid
Explanation: **Explanation:** **Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV)** is caused by the **L1, L2, and L3 serovars of *Chlamydia trachomatis***. The "Sign of the Groove" (Greenblatt’s sign) is a pathognomonic clinical finding in the secondary stage of LGV. It occurs when the inguinal and femoral lymph nodes enlarge simultaneously, separated by the rigid **inguinal ligament**. This creates a visible depression or "groove" between the two groups of inflamed lymph nodes. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **B. Granuloma Inguinale (Donovanosis):** Caused by *Klebsiella granulomatis*. It presents with painless, beefy-red, velvety ulcers. It is characterized by "pseudobuboes" (subcutaneous granulation tissue) rather than true lymphadenopathy. * **C. Syphilis:** Primary syphilis presents with a painless, indurated "hard chancre." While it causes bilateral inguinal lymphadenopathy, the nodes are discrete, rubbery, and do not form a groove. * **D. Chancroid:** Caused by *Haemophilus ducreyi*. It presents with painful, soft ulcers and painful inflammatory buboes that are usually unilateral and may suppurate, but they do not form the characteristic groove sign. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Stages of LGV:** Primary (painless papule/ulcer), Secondary (Inguinal syndrome with the Groove sign), and Tertiary (Genito-anorectal syndrome/Elephantiasis). * **Diagnosis:** Frei test (historical), NAAT (current gold standard), and **Donovan bodies** (safety-pin appearance) are seen in Donovanosis, NOT LGV. * **Treatment:** Doxycycline (100 mg BID for 21 days) is the drug of choice for LGV.
Question 8: A young female presents with a history of fever and a nodular lesion over the shin. Histopathology reveals foamy histiocytes with neutrophilic infiltration. There is no evidence of vasculitis. What is the most probable diagnosis?
- A. Sweet's Syndrome
- B. Erythema nodosum (Correct Answer)
- C. Erythema nodosum leprosum
- D. Behcet's syndrome
Explanation: ### Explanation **Correct Answer: B. Erythema nodosum** **Why it is correct:** Erythema nodosum (EN) is the most common form of **septal panniculitis**. Clinically, it presents as tender, erythematous nodules typically located over the **pretibial area (shins)**, often accompanied by fever and malaise. Histopathologically, early lesions show edema and neutrophilic infiltration of the septa. As the lesion evolves, it is characterized by **Miescher’s radial granulomas**—small clusters of spindle-shaped or **foamy histiocytes** surrounding a central cleft. The absence of vasculitis is a hallmark feature that distinguishes EN from other forms of panniculitis. **Why the other options are incorrect:** * **A. Sweet’s Syndrome:** This is a neutrophilic dermatosis characterized by "juicy" erythematous plaques and high fever. Histology shows dense dermal neutrophilic infiltrate with papillary dermal edema, but it is not a primary panniculitis and does not typically present with foamy histiocytes in the septa. * **C. Erythema nodosum leprosum (ENL):** While ENL also presents with tender nodules and fever, it is a Type 2 Lepra reaction. Histologically, it is a **lobular panniculitis** and, crucially, it **must show evidence of vasculitis** (leukocytoclastic vasculitis) and the presence of *M. leprae* (AFB positive). * **D. Behcet’s syndrome:** While it can cause EN-like lesions, the systemic involvement (oral/genital ulcers, uveitis) and the characteristic histopathology (often showing vasculitis) do not fit the isolated description provided. **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Most common cause of EN:** Idiopathic (followed by Streptococcal infections, Sarcoidosis, and TB). * **Histopathology Key:** Septal panniculitis **without** vasculitis = Erythema Nodosum. * **Löfgren Syndrome:** Triad of EN, bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy, and arthritis (highly suggestive of Sarcoidosis). * **Miescher’s Radial Granulomas:** Pathognomonic histological finding for EN.
Question 9: A young tourist presents with an erythematous lesion on the cheek with central crusting after visiting a region endemic for a specific protozoal infection. What is the likely dermatological condition?
- A. Cutaneous Leishmaniasis (Correct Answer)
- B. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
- C. Lupus vulgaris
- D. Chilblains
Explanation: ### Explanation **Correct Option: A. Cutaneous Leishmaniasis** Cutaneous Leishmaniasis (CL), often referred to as "Oriental Sore" or "Delhi Boil," is caused by the protozoan *Leishmania* species and transmitted by the bite of an infected **female sandfly (*Phlebotomus*)**. The classic presentation begins as a small erythematous papule at the inoculation site (usually exposed areas like the face), which evolves into a nodule and eventually develops **central crusting** or ulceration with a raised, indurated border. The history of travel to an endemic region is a crucial diagnostic clue. **Why Incorrect Options are Wrong:** * **B. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE):** Typically presents with a "malar rash" (butterfly distribution) that spares the nasolabial folds. It is an autoimmune condition, not associated with travel to protozoal endemic areas or central crusting. * **C. Lupus Vulgaris:** This is a chronic form of cutaneous tuberculosis. While it affects the face, it typically presents as "apple-jelly" nodules on diascopy and follows a very chronic, progressive course rather than an acute post-travel presentation. * **D. Chilblains (Pernio):** An inflammatory response to cold, damp conditions. It presents as itchy, purple-red bumps on fingers or toes, not as a crusted facial lesion following tropical travel. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Vector:** Female Sandfly (*Phlebotomus*). * **Diagnosis:** Skin biopsy or slit-skin smear showing **LD bodies** (Leishman-Donovan bodies) within macrophages. * **Treatment of Choice:** Intralesional or systemic **Sodium Stibogluconate** (Pentavalent antimonials) or Miltefosine. * **Volcano Sign:** The appearance of a crusted ulcer with a central pit is often described as the "volcano sign."
Question 10: What is characteristic of donovanosis?
- A. Pseudolymphadenopathy (Correct Answer)
- B. Penicillin is used for treatment
- C. Painful ulcer
- D. Suppurative lymphadenopathy
Explanation: **Donovanosis (Granuloma Inguinale)** is a chronic, progressive bacterial infection caused by the intracellular Gram-negative organism *Klebsiella granulomatis*. ### **Explanation of the Correct Answer** **A. Pseudolymphadenopathy:** This is the hallmark of Donovanosis. Unlike other STIs, the infection does not typically involve the regional lymph nodes. Instead, the subcutaneous granulation tissue spreads along the inguinal folds, causing firm, non-tender swellings that mimic enlarged lymph nodes. These are called **"pseudobuboes."** ### **Why Other Options are Incorrect** * **B. Penicillin is used for treatment:** Penicillin is ineffective. The CDC-recommended first-line treatment is **Azithromycin** (1g weekly or 500mg daily for at least 3 weeks). * **C. Painful ulcer:** Donovanosis is classically **painless**. It presents as beefy-red, friable (bleeds easily on touch) ulcers with rolled-out edges. Pain only occurs if there is secondary bacterial superinfection. * **D. Suppurative lymphadenopathy:** This is characteristic of **Lymphogranuloma Venereum (LGV)** or **Chancroid**, where true fluctuant buboes form. Donovanosis lacks true lymph node involvement. ### **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG** * **Donovan Bodies:** Diagnosis is confirmed by seeing "safety-pin" appearing organisms within large macrophages on a Giemsa or Wright stain (crush smear). * **Clinical Appearance:** Often described as "beefy-red" granulation tissue with a "velvety" texture. * **Extragenital Involvement:** Can occur in the mouth, liver, or bone via autoinoculation or hematogenous spread. * **Mnemonic:** Remember the **"4 Ps"** of Donovanosis: **P**ainless, **P**rogressive, **P**seudobuboes, and **P**olymorphic (various clinical types like ulcerogranulomatous, hypertrophic, etc.).
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