Pigmentary Demarcation Lines — MCQs
Hyperpigmentation is seen with which hormone?
All are true about lichen planus EXCEPT:
What is the best method to treat a large port-wine stain?
Which of the following is the platinum-based chemotherapeutic agent used as first-line treatment for ovarian carcinoma?
Identify the diagnosis based on the dermatology immunofluorescence (IF) image provided.
The skin biopsy shown below is most consistent with which of the following conditions? 
Arlt's line is seen in?
A 2-year-old child is brought by parents with a history of seizures and developmental delay, and he has multiple hypopigmented macules over the back. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A patient with typical cutaneous lesions, slightly elevated red or purple macules often covered by gray or yellow adherent scales. Forceful removal of the scale reveals numerous ‘carpet tack’ extensions. The lesion is:
A 24-year-old male presents with a lesion at the site shown in the image for 4 years. He says it has increased in thickness over the years. Diagnosis is:
Pigmentary Demarcation Lines Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: Hyperpigmentation is seen with which hormone?
- A. TSH
- B. ACTH (Correct Answer)
- C. FSH
- D. LH
Explanation: ***ACTH*** - In conditions like **Addison's disease**, the adrenal glands' inability to produce cortisol leads to increased **ACTH** (adrenocorticotropic hormone) secretion due to a lack of negative feedback [3], [4]. - ACTH is derived from proopiomelanocortin (POMC), which also gives rise to alpha-melanocyte-stimulating hormone (α-MSH). Elevated ACTH levels can thus stimulate melanocytes, causing **hyperpigmentation** in skin folds, buccal mucosa, and pressure points [4]. *FSH* - **FSH** (follicle-stimulating hormone) primarily regulates the development of **follicles in the ovaries** and sperm production in the testes [1]. - There is no known direct association between excessive FSH levels and **hyperpigmentation**. *TSH* - **TSH** (thyroid-stimulating hormone) stimulates the **thyroid gland** to produce thyroid hormones (T3 and T4) [1]. - While thyroid disorders can affect skin texture and moisture, there is no direct link between elevated TSH and **hyperpigmentation**. *LH* - **LH** (luteinizing hormone) plays a key role in **ovulation** in females and testosterone production in males [2]. - High LH levels are not associated with **hyperpigmentation**.
Question 2: All are true about lichen planus EXCEPT:
- A. Spares oral mucosa (Correct Answer)
- B. Wickham's striae present
- C. Violaceous flat papules
- D. Koebner phenomenon positive
Explanation: ***Spares oral mucosa*** - This statement is incorrect because **lichen planus frequently involves the oral mucosa**, presenting as white reticular lesions, erosions, or plaques. - Oral involvement is common and can be the only manifestation of lichen planus. *Wickham's striae present* - **Wickham's striae** are characteristic **white, lacy reticular patterns** seen on the surface of lichen planus lesions, especially on the oral mucosa and cutaneous papules. - Their presence is a classic diagnostic feature of lichen planus. *Violaceous flat papules* - Cutaneous lesions of lichen planus are typically described as **pruritic, polygonal, planar (flat-topped), purple (violaceous) papules and plaques**. - This classic description helps in the clinical diagnosis of the condition. *Koebner phenomenon positive* - The **Koebner phenomenon**, or isomorphic response, refers to the development of new skin lesions in areas of trauma or injury. - This phenomenon is often observed in lichen planus, where scratching or irritation can precipitate new lesions along the lines of trauma.
Question 3: What is the best method to treat a large port-wine stain?
- A. Radiotherapy
- B. Excision with skin grafting
- C. Pulsed dye laser (Correct Answer)
- D. Tattooing
Explanation: ***Pulsed dye laser*** - The **pulsed dye laser (PDL)** is considered the **gold standard** for treating port-wine stains due to its specific targeting of hemoglobin in the dilated capillaries without damaging surrounding tissue. - This treatment involves multiple sessions to progressively lighten the stain and prevent complications such as **nodularity** and **tissue hypertrophy**. *Radiotherapy* - **Radiotherapy** is generally not recommended for port-wine stains due to its potential for **scarring**, **pigment changes**, and risk of **malignancy**. - It is an aggressive treatment typically reserved for **cancerous conditions** or severe proliferative vascular lesions not amenable to other treatments. *Tattooing* - **Tattooing** involves injecting skin-colored pigments into the lesion to camouflage it, but it does not treat the underlying vascular abnormality. - This method can result in an **artificial appearance**, **uneven coverage**, and potential for **allergic reactions** or infections. *Excision with skin grafting* - **Surgical excision** of a large port-wine stain would result in a **significant scar** and require **skin grafting**, which carries risks of graft failure, poor aesthetic outcome, and color mismatch. - This method is generally reserved for very small, localized lesions or those with significant **nodular hypertrophy** that cannot be effectively managed by laser therapy.
Question 4: Which of the following is the platinum-based chemotherapeutic agent used as first-line treatment for ovarian carcinoma?
- A. Cyclophosphamide
- B. Methotrexate
- C. Cisplatin (Correct Answer)
- D. Dacarbazine
Explanation: ***Cisplatin*** - **Cisplatin** is a platinum-based chemotherapy drug that forms **DNA cross-links**, inhibiting DNA synthesis and leading to the death of rapidly dividing cells, making it highly effective against **ovarian carcinoma**. - It is a cornerstone of chemotherapy regimens for ovarian cancer, often used in combination with other agents such as paclitaxel. *Methotrexate* - **Methotrexate** is an **antimetabolite** that inhibits dihydrofolate reductase, thereby interfering with DNA synthesis. - While it is used in various cancers like leukemia, lymphoma, and some solid tumors (e.g., breast cancer, gestational trophoblastic disease), it is **not a primary recommended drug for ovarian carcinoma**. *Cyclophosphamide* - **Cyclophosphamide** is an **alkylating agent** that causes DNA damage, leading to cell death. - It is used in many cancers, including lymphoma, breast cancer, and some leukemias, but it is **not a first-line or primary agent for ovarian carcinoma** in contemporary treatment guidelines. *Dacarbazine* - **Dacarbazine** is an **alkylating agent** primarily used in the treatment of **malignant melanoma** and Hodgkin lymphoma. - It is **not indicated for the treatment of ovarian carcinoma**.
Question 5: Identify the diagnosis based on the dermatology immunofluorescence (IF) image provided.
- A. Pemphigus vulgaris
- B. Pemphigus foliaceus
- C. Bullous pemphigoid
- D. Dermatitis herpetiformis (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Dermatitis herpetiformis*** - The immunofluorescence image shows **granular IgA deposits** at the **dermal papillae region**, which is characteristic of dermatitis herpetiformis. - This condition is strongly associated with **celiac disease** and presents with intensely pruritic papules and vesicles. *Pemphigus vulgaris* - Immunofluorescence in pemphigus vulgaris typically shows a **fishnet pattern** of IgG deposits throughout the **epidermis**, reflecting antibodies against desmoglein 3 and 1. - This pattern is an intercellular deposition, not granular at the dermal papillae. *Pemphigus foliaceus* - Similar to pemphigus vulgaris, pemphigus foliaceus also exhibits **intercellular IgG deposits** in the epidermis, but it is usually more superficial, targeting desmoglein 1. - The image does not show this intercellular epidermal staining. *Bullous pemphigoid* - Bullous pemphigoid is characterized by **linear IgG and C3 deposits along the dermal-epidermal junction** (basement membrane zone). - The image distinctly shows granular IgA, not linear IgG/C3, and specifically in the dermal papillae.
Question 6: The skin biopsy shown below is most consistent with which of the following conditions? 
- A. Lichen planus (Correct Answer)
- B. Lichen nitidus
- C. Morphea
- D. Lupus erythematosus
Explanation: ***Lichen planus*** - The image shows **basal cell degeneration** (liquefaction degeneration), a **sawtooth rete ridge pattern**, and a band-like inflammatory infiltrate primarily composed of lymphocytes at the dermo-epidermal junction, which are classic histological features of **lichen planus**. - **Civatte bodies** (apoptotic keratinocytes forming colloid bodies) are typically present, resulting from keratinocyte damage at the basal layer. - These features make lichen planus the most consistent diagnosis. *Lichen nitidus* - Characterized by **"ball and claw" lesions**, which are small, localized epidermal invaginations enclosing a central infiltrate of lymphocytes and histiocytes. - The granulomatous infiltrate is more focal and circumscribed compared to the band-like pattern of lichen planus. - While both are interface dermatitides, the architectural pattern differs significantly. *Morphea* - This is a localized form of **scleroderma**, characterized by increased **collagen deposition**, thickening of the dermis, and loss of adnexal structures like hair follicles and sweat glands. - The inflammatory infiltrate is typically perivascular and interstitial, not band-like at the dermo-epidermal junction. - The image does not show features of dermal fibrosis or homogenization of collagen bundles expected in morphea. *Lupus erythematosus* - Also shows **interface dermatitis** with basal vacuolar changes and lymphocytic infiltrate. - However, lupus typically shows a **perivascular and periappendageal pattern** of infiltrate rather than the dense band-like pattern of lichen planus. - Additional features in lupus include dermal mucin deposition, thickened basement membrane (PAS-positive), and follicular plugging. - The dense, continuous band-like infiltrate and sawtooth rete ridges favor lichen planus over lupus.
Question 7: Arlt's line is seen in?
- A. Bacterial conjunctivitis
- B. Trachoma (Correct Answer)
- C. Vernal catarrh
- D. Allergic conjunctivitis
Explanation: ***Trachoma*** - Arlt's line is a **subtarsal fibrous white line** seen on the upper tarsal conjunctiva, resulting from repeated episodes of inflammation and scarring in **trachoma**. - This scarring can lead to **entropion** and **trichiasis**, causing corneal abrasion and potential blindness. *Vernal catarrh* - Characterized by giant papillae (cobblestone papillae) on the upper tarsal conjunctiva and **Horner-Trantas dots** at the limbus. - It is an allergic condition, and while it causes conjunctival changes, it does not typically result in Arlt's line. *Allergic conjunctivitis* - Presents with itching, redness, tearing, and sometimes mild conjunctival swelling or papillae. - It is an acute or chronic allergic reaction and does not cause the specific scarring pattern known as Arlt's line. *Bacterial conjunctivitis* - Typically presents with **purulent discharge**, redness, and lid crusting. - While it causes acute inflammation, it usually resolves without the chronic scarring that leads to Arlt's line unless it is a severe, recurrent infection.
Question 8: A 2-year-old child is brought by parents with a history of seizures and developmental delay, and he has multiple hypopigmented macules over the back. What is the most probable diagnosis?
- A. Neurofibromatosis type 1
- B. Tuberous sclerosis (Correct Answer)
- C. Sturge weber's syndrome
- D. Linear Sebaceous nevus syndrome
- E. Hypomelanosis of Ito
Explanation: ***Tuberous sclerosis*** - The classic triad of **seizures**, **developmental delay**, and **hypopigmented macules** (ash-leaf spots) is highly suggestive of tuberous sclerosis. - This condition is an **autosomal dominant neurocutaneous disorder** characterized by the formation of **hamartomas** in various organs, including the brain, skin, kidneys, and heart. *Neurofibromatosis type 1* - Characterized by **multiple café-au-lait spots**, **axillary/inguinal freckling**, and **neurofibromas**. - While seizures and developmental delay can occur, the presence of **hypopigmented macules** points away from NF1. *Sturge weber's syndrome* - Presents with a **port-wine stain** (facial cutaneous angioma) in the distribution of the trigeminal nerve. - Associated with **leptomeningeal angioma**, leading to seizures and neurological deficits, but not with hypopigmented macules. *Linear Sebaceous nevus syndrome* - Involves a **large sebaceous nevus** (usually on the face or scalp) in association with **CNS abnormalities** (e.g., seizures, developmental delay) and other systemic findings. - The hallmark skin lesion is a **yellow-orange, waxy nevus**, not hypopigmented macules. *Hypomelanosis of Ito* - Characterized by **hypopigmented whorled streaks or patches** along the lines of Blaschko. - Can be associated with seizures and developmental delay, but the key distinguishing feature is the **bilateral whorled pattern** rather than discrete oval ash-leaf spots seen in tuberous sclerosis.
Question 9: A patient with typical cutaneous lesions, slightly elevated red or purple macules often covered by gray or yellow adherent scales. Forceful removal of the scale reveals numerous ‘carpet tack’ extensions. The lesion is:
- A. Scleroderma
- B. DLE (Correct Answer)
- C. SLE
- D. Lichen planus
Explanation: ***DLE*** - **Discoid lupus erythematosus (DLE)** lesions are characterized by **erythematous-to-violaceous plaques**, often with **follicular plugging** and a **firmly adherent scale**. - The "carpet tack" sign refers to the painful, prickly projections observed on the undersurface of a removed scale, indicating keratinous plugs within hair follicles, which is highly suggestive of DLE. *Scleroderma* - **Scleroderma** involves **fibrosis** of the skin, leading to hardening and thickening, often preceded by Raynaud's phenomenon. - It does not typically present with elevated red or purple macules with adherent scales or the "carpet tack" sign. *SLE* - **Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)** is a multi-system autoimmune disease that can have cutaneous manifestations, but these are often more diffuse (**malar rash**, photosensitivity) or non-scarring. - While DLE can occur in SLE patients, the description specifically points to the localized, scarring nature of DLE rather than the systemic features of SLE itself. *Lichen planus* - **Lichen planus** typically presents with **pruritic, polygonal, planar, purple papules and plaques** (the "6 Ps"). - While it can have scaling, it does not exhibit the "carpet tack" sign or the distinct follicular plugging seen in DLE.
Question 10: A 24-year-old male presents with a lesion at the site shown in the image for 4 years. He says it has increased in thickness over the years. Diagnosis is:
- A. Spitz nevus
- B. Hyper-melanosis of Ito
- C. Becker's nevus (Correct Answer)
- D. Congenital melanocytic nevus
Explanation: ***Becker's nevus*** - This lesion typically presents as a **unilateral, hyperpigmented patch** that often appears during childhood or adolescence, increasing in size and thickness with associated **hypertrichosis** (increased hair growth). The image shows a large, irregularly shaped, hyperpigmented area on the torso of a young male, consistent with this description. - The history of increasing thickness over four years further supports **Becker's nevus**, as it is known to progress in thickness and texture, often becoming more indurated and sometimes verrucous. *Spitz nevus* - Spitz nevus is a benign melanocytic nevus typically presenting as a **pink or red, dome-shaped papule or nodule**, commonly on the face or limbs. - It rapidly grows but does not typically present as a large, hyperpigmented patch with associated hypertrichosis like the lesion shown. *Hyper-melanosis of Ito* - Hypermelanosis of Ito (also known as incontinentia pigmenti achromians) is characterized by **streaky or whorled hypopigmented (lighter) skin lesions**, often present at birth or in early infancy. - The image clearly shows a **hyperpigmented (darker) lesion**, which directly contradicts the characteristic hypopigmentation of hypermelanosis of Ito. *Congenital melanocytic nevus* - Congenital melanocytic nevi are typically present **at birth** or become apparent shortly thereafter. While they can be large and hyperpigmented, they usually do not have the prominent feature of increasing thickness and hypertrichosis developing many years later in adolescence or early adulthood in the same way as Becker's nevus. - The description of a lesion appearing during adolescence and increasing in thickness and hairiness for four years makes Becker's nevus a more specific diagnosis than a general congenital melanocytic nevus.
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