Hair Disorders in Children — MCQs
A child comes with a circular 3cm x 3cm scaly patchy hair loss with itching in the lesions. The investigation of choice is
An eleven-year-old boy has Tinea capitis on his scalp. Which of the following is the most appropriate line of treatment for this condition?
An 8-year-old child has localized non-cicatricial alopecia over scalp with itching and scales. The diagnosis is :
A male presents with alopecia and exclamation mark hairs. Diagnosis?
A 7-year-old boy presents with patchy hair loss, boggy scalp swelling and broken and fragmented hair follicles at the surface of the scalp resembling black dots. What is the next step in establishing a diagnosis:
HAIR-AN syndrome consists of which of the following?
A child presented with asymptomatic lesions on the forearm and on the shaft of the penis. The lesions on the forearm are shown below. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A male patient presents with patchy loss of hair involving the scalp, eyebrows, and beard with presence of grey hair in the affected areas. What is the most likely diagnosis?
The following patient presented to the OPD with history of hair loss. There was no erythema, scarring or scratching. Diagnosis is:
Which of the following is not a part of P. versicolor treatment -
Hair Disorders in Children Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: A child comes with a circular 3cm x 3cm scaly patchy hair loss with itching in the lesions. The investigation of choice is
- A. Tzanck smear
- B. Gram stain
- C. KOH mount (Correct Answer)
- D. Split skin smear
Explanation: ***Correct: KOH mount (Potassium Hydroxide mount)*** - A **KOH mount** is the investigation of choice for suspected **dermatophyte infections** (tinea capitis), which commonly present as circular, scaly patches of hair loss with itching in children. - It involves dissolving keratinous material to visualize **fungal hyphae** and spores directly under a microscope. - This is a quick, cost-effective, and highly specific first-line diagnostic test. *Incorrect: Tzanck smear* - A **Tzanck smear** is primarily used to diagnose **viral infections** like herpes simplex or varicella-zoster by identifying multinucleated giant cells. - It is not effective for detecting fungal elements responsible for scaly hair loss. *Incorrect: Gram stain* - A **Gram stain** is a technique used to classify **bacteria** based on their cell wall properties. - It would not reveal fungal hyphae or spores relevant to the described condition. *Incorrect: Split skin smear* - A **split skin smear** (or slit-skin smear) is typically used in the diagnosis of **leprosy** to identify acid-fast bacilli. - This technique involves scraping the dermis and is not suitable for diagnosing superficial fungal infections.
Question 2: An eleven-year-old boy has Tinea capitis on his scalp. Which of the following is the most appropriate line of treatment for this condition?
- A. Shaving of the scalp
- B. Topical griseofulvin therapy
- C. Oral griseofulvin therapy (Correct Answer)
- D. Selenium sulphide shampoo
Explanation: ***Oral griseofulvin therapy*** - **Systemic antifungal agents** are essential for treating **Tinea capitis**, as the fungal infection is deep within the hair follicles and cannot be reached effectively by topical treatments alone. - **Griseofulvin** is a well-established and effective oral antifungal for **Tinea capitis** in children. *Shaving of the scalp* - While shaving the scalp might reduce some fungal load and facilitate topical treatment, it is **not a definitive treatment** for **Tinea capitis** on its own, as the infection remains deep in the hair follicles. - It does not address the underlying systemic nature of the infection within the hair shaft. *Topical griseofulvin therapy* - **Topical griseofulvin** is generally **ineffective** for **Tinea capitis** because the fungus resides deep within the hair follicle and hair shaft, where topical preparations cannot penetrate sufficiently. - **Systemic absorption** is required to deliver adequate drug concentrations to the site of infection. *Selenium sulphide shampoo* - **Selenium sulfide shampoo** can be used as an **adjunctive therapy** to reduce shedding of spores and prevent spread, but it is **not curative** for **Tinea capitis**. - It helps to reduce skin scaling and fungal burden on the surface but does not eradicate the infection deep within the hair follicles.
Question 3: An 8-year-old child has localized non-cicatricial alopecia over scalp with itching and scales. The diagnosis is :
- A. Lichen planus
- B. Tinea Capitis (Correct Answer)
- C. Tinea Barbae
- D. Alopecia areata
Explanation: ***Tinea Capitis*** - **Tinea capitis** typically presents as **localized, non-cicatricial alopecia** with features like **scaling**, **itching**, and broken hairs, which are consistent with the child's symptoms. - It's a common **dermatophyte infection** of the scalp, particularly in children, caused by fungi like *Trichophyton* or *Microsporum*. *Lichen planus* - **Lichen planus** can cause alopecia, but it is typically a **cicatricial (scarring)** alopecia, unlike the non-cicatricial finding described. - It is more commonly associated with **purplish, polygonal, pruritic papules** on the skin and mucous membranes. *Tinea Barbae* - **Tinea barbae** specifically affects the **beard and mustache area** in adult males and would not present as alopecia on the scalp in an 8-year-old child. - It usually involves deep follicular inflammation with **pustules and nodules**. *Alopecia areata* - **Alopecia areata** is characterized by **smooth, circular patches of non-scarring hair loss** without associated scaling or significant itching. - The presence of **scaling and itching** in this case makes alopecia areata less likely.
Question 4: A male presents with alopecia and exclamation mark hairs. Diagnosis?
- A. Alopecia areata (Correct Answer)
- B. Tinea capitis
- C. Telogen effluvium
- D. Androgenic alopecia
Explanation: ***Alopecia areata*** - **Alopecia areata** is characterized by sudden, non-scarring hair loss that can affect any hair-bearing area, including the scalp. - The presence of **exclamation mark hairs** (hairs that are narrower closer to the scalp) is a classic dermatoscopic finding in alopecia areata and is highly suggestive of the diagnosis. *Tinea capitis* - **Tinea capitis** is a fungal infection of the scalp often presenting with scaling, erythema, and broken hairs, but typically not "exclamation mark hairs." - It may cause **patchy alopecia** but is usually associated with inflammation and sometimes pustules. *Telogen effluvium* - **Telogen effluvium** is a diffuse, non-scarring hair shedding that occurs after a stressful event, leading to widespread thinning rather than localized patches. - It primarily involves an increase in the number of hairs in the **telogen (resting) phase** and does not typically feature exclamation mark hairs. *Androgenic alopecia* - **Androgenic alopecia**, or male/female pattern baldness, is characterized by a gradual, patterned hair loss due to genetic and hormonal factors. - It involves the miniaturization of hair follicles and progressive thinning, but it does not present with **exclamation mark hairs** or discrete patches of complete hair loss.
Question 5: A 7-year-old boy presents with patchy hair loss, boggy scalp swelling and broken and fragmented hair follicles at the surface of the scalp resembling black dots. What is the next step in establishing a diagnosis:
- A. Antibiotics
- B. KOH smear (Correct Answer)
- C. Biopsy
- D. Culture
Explanation: ***KOH smear*** - A **KOH (potassium hydroxide) smear** is the **immediate next step** and first-line diagnostic test for suspected **tinea capitis** (ringworm of the scalp). - The clinical presentation (boggy swelling/kerion, black dots) strongly suggests an **endothrix fungal infection**, which requires rapid confirmation. - KOH mount is **rapid (results in minutes)**, inexpensive, minimally invasive, and highly effective for visualizing **fungal hyphae and spores**, allowing immediate initiation of antifungal therapy. - This test establishes the diagnosis at the point of care without delays. *Antibiotics* - **Antibiotics** treat bacterial infections, not fungal infections like tinea capitis. - While secondary bacterial superinfection can occur in kerion, the primary pathology here is **fungal** and requires antifungal treatment. - Unnecessary antibiotic use contributes to antimicrobial resistance and delays appropriate management. *Biopsy* - A **scalp biopsy** is invasive, costly, and typically reserved for unclear cases after initial non-invasive tests fail, or when evaluating scarring alopecia (cicatricial alopecia). - It is not the first-line diagnostic approach for clinically evident tinea capitis. - KOH smear should be attempted first before considering invasive procedures. *Culture* - **Fungal culture** is valuable for identifying the specific dermatophyte species (e.g., *Trichophyton tonsurans*, *Microsporum canis*) and guiding targeted therapy or epidemiological studies. - However, culture results take **2-4 weeks**, making it unsuitable as the immediate "next step" when rapid diagnosis is needed. - In practice, KOH smear is performed first; culture may be sent simultaneously but does not delay initial treatment decisions.
Question 6: HAIR-AN syndrome consists of which of the following?
- A. Acanthosis nigricans
- B. Insulin resistance
- C. Hyperandrogenism
- D. All of the options (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***All of the options*** - HAIR-AN syndrome is an acronym representing the combination of **HyperAndrogenism**, **Insulin Resistance**, and **Acanthosis Nigricans**. - This syndrome is often associated with **severe hyperinsulinemia** and is considered a severe form of polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) [1]. *Acanthosis nigricans* - While **acanthosis nigricans** is a key component of HAIR-AN syndrome, it does not, by itself, define the entire syndrome. - This condition is characterized by **darkening and thickening of the skin**, particularly in body folds, and is a marker of insulin resistance. *Insulin resistance* - **Insulin resistance** is central to HAIR-AN syndrome, driving many of its metabolic and dermatological manifestations. - However, the definition of HAIR-AN syndrome requires the presence of hyperandrogenism and acanthosis nigricans in addition to insulin resistance to be complete. *Hyperandrogenism* - **Hyperandrogenism**, characterized by elevated androgen levels leading to symptoms like hirsutism and acne, is a critical feature of HAIR-AN syndrome [1]. - Similar to the other components, hyperandrogenism alone does not constitute the full syndrome, which necessitates the presence of insulin resistance and acanthosis nigricans.
Question 7: A child presented with asymptomatic lesions on the forearm and on the shaft of the penis. The lesions on the forearm are shown below. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Lichen planus
- B. Lichen nitidus (Correct Answer)
- C. Scabies
- D. Scrofuloderma
Explanation: ***Lichen nitidus*** - Presents as **multiple, asymptomatic, tiny (1-2 mm), shiny, dome-shaped papules** that are often skin-colored or slightly hypopigmented, as seen in the image and described. - Common sites include the **forearms, penis, abdomen, and flexural areas**, consistent with the case presentation. *Lichen planus* - Characterized by **purplish, polygonal, planar, pruritic papules and plaques**, often with **Wickham's striae**, which are not seen in the image. - While it can affect the penis, its lesions are typically more intensely colored and often symptomatic (**itchy**), unlike the asymptomatic lesions described. *Scabies* - Presents with intensely **pruritic papules, vesicles, and burrows**, especially in the web spaces of fingers, wrists, axillae, and genitalia, which are very symptomatic and not usually described as shiny papules. - The primary symptom is **severe itching**, which is absent in this patient. *Scrofuloderma* - A form of **cutaneous tuberculosis** presenting as cold abscesses that eventually rupture to form ulcers, sinuses, and scars. - The image shows distinct, small papules, not ulcerating or scarring lesions characteristic of scrofuloderma.
Question 8: A male patient presents with patchy loss of hair involving the scalp, eyebrows, and beard with presence of grey hair in the affected areas. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Androgenic alopecia
- B. Anagen effluvium
- C. Alopecia areata (Correct Answer)
- D. Telogen effluvium
Explanation: ***Alopecia areata*** - This condition is characterized by **patchy hair loss** that can affect the scalp, eyebrows, and beard, and is often associated with the presence of **grey hairs** in the affected areas. - It is an **autoimmune disorder** where the immune system mistakenly attacks **hair follicles**, leading to non-scarring hair loss. *Androgenic alopecia* - This is commonly known as **male-pattern baldness** and typically presents as a receding hairline and thinning at the crown. - It is primarily driven by **genetics** and **androgen hormones**, and does not usually involve patchy loss or affect eyebrows and beard in the same way. *Anagen effluvium* - This condition is often caused by **chemotherapy** or other strong chemical exposures, leading to an abrupt and widespread loss of hair during the **anagen (growth) phase**. - Hair loss is typically diffuse and rapid, not usually localized to patches or accompanied by grey hair in specific areas. *Telogen effluvium* - This is a common form of **temporary hair loss** that occurs following a stressful event, fever, childbirth, or severe illness, causing premature shedding of hairs in the **telogen (resting) phase**. - It results in diffuse thinning rather than discrete patchy hair loss and is not typically associated with grey hair in the manner described.
Question 9: The following patient presented to the OPD with history of hair loss. There was no erythema, scarring or scratching. Diagnosis is:
- A. Trichotillomania
- B. Alopecia areata (Correct Answer)
- C. Telogen effluvium
- D. Tinea infection
Explanation: ***Alopecia areata*** - The image shows **well-demarcated patches of hair loss** with no signs of inflammation or scarring, which is characteristic of alopecia areata. - This condition is an **autoimmune disorder** where the immune system attacks hair follicles, leading to patchy hair loss. - Classic presentation includes **smooth, round patches** with no erythema or scarring. *Trichotillomania* - This condition involves **compulsive hair pulling**, which typically results in **irregularly shaped patches of hair loss** with hairs of varying lengths. - Hair loss in trichotillomania often shows **broken hair shafts** and may be associated with signs of trauma or follicular damage. - The absence of scratching/pulling behavior and the well-defined patches make this less likely. *Telogen effluvium* - Telogen effluvium presents as **diffuse hair shedding** (increased shedding of resting phase hairs) rather than the distinct, localized patches seen in the image. - It usually follows a **stressful event** (e.g., illness, surgery, childbirth) and there's no visible inflammation or scarring. - Would not present as well-demarcated patches. *Tinea infection* - Tinea capitis (ringworm of the scalp) would typically present with **erythema, scaling, inflammation**, and sometimes pustules or kerion formation within the patches of hair loss. - The patches of hair loss in tinea infections often show **broken hairs** or "black dots" where hairs have broken off at the scalp surface. - The **absence of erythema** in this case rules out tinea infection.
Question 10: Which of the following is not a part of P. versicolor treatment -
- A. Selenium sulfide
- B. Clotrimazole
- C. Ketoconazole
- D. Griseofulvin (Correct Answer)
Explanation: **Griseofulvin (Correct - NOT used for P. versicolor)** - **Griseofulvin** interferes with fungal cell division and is primarily used for dermatophyte infections of the skin, hair, and nails, not superficial yeast infections like *P. versicolor*. - It is systemically absorbed and incorporated into **keratin precursor cells**, offering protection against dermatophytes in newly formed tissue. - *Malassezia* species (causing P. versicolor) are **yeasts**, not dermatophytes, making griseofulvin ineffective. *Selenium sulfide (Incorrect - IS used)* - **Selenium sulfide** is an effective topical antifungal agent commonly used in shampoos and lotions to treat *P. versicolor* by inhibiting the growth of *Malassezia* species. - It works by reducing **sebum production** and having a direct fungistatic effect on the yeast. *Clotrimazole (Incorrect - IS used)* - **Clotrimazole** is a broad-spectrum azole antifungal that is very effective as a topical treatment for *P. versicolor* by inhibiting ergosterol synthesis in the fungal cell membrane. - It works well for localized patches of the infection. *Ketoconazole (Incorrect - IS used)* - **Ketoconazole**, another azole antifungal, is highly effective for *P. versicolor* and can be used topically (shampoos, creams) or orally in more extensive or recalcitrant cases. - It disrupts the fungal cell membrane by inhibiting the synthesis of **ergosterol**.
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