Cutaneous Larva Migrans — MCQs
Cutaneous larva migrans is due to ?
A child presented with perianal itching. The swab specimen is shown in the image. What is the diagnosis?
Erythema chronicum migrans is associated with which of the following conditions?
Which among the following occupations is a risk factor for cutaneous larva migrans?
Identify the parasite shown in the image.
A 42-year-old Bengali male presents with painless nodules over the face. The face is erythematous, and the surface of some of the large nodules is discolored. He gives a history of an insect bite in the past while he went to the jungle for work. What is the most likely diagnosis?
The burrow in scabies is in
Tropical pulmonary eosinophilia is most characteristically seen due to which of the following infections?
Adult scabies is characterized by which of the following?
An 8-month-old child presented with itchy, exudative lesions on the face, palms, and soles. The siblings also have similar complaints. Which of the following is the treatment of choice?
Cutaneous Larva Migrans Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: Cutaneous larva migrans is due to ?
- A. W.bancrofti
- B. B. Malayi
- C. D. medinensis
- D. Ancylostoma braziliense (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Ancylostoma braziliense*** - **Cutaneous larva migrans** is primarily caused by the larvae of **dog and cat hookworms**, especially *Ancylostoma braziliense*. - Humans become **accidental hosts** when these larvae penetrate the skin but cannot complete their life cycle, leading to **serpiginous tracks**. *W. bancrofti* - This parasite, **Wuchereria bancrofti**, is a filarial nematode that causes **lymphatic filariasis** (elephantiasis). - Its effects are characterized by **lymphedema** and **hydrocele**, not migrating skin lesions. *B. Malayi* - **Brugia malayi** is another filarial nematode responsible for **lymphatic filariasis** in humans, similar to *W. bancrofti*. - It primarily causes **swelling of the limbs** and scrotum, not cutaneous larva migrans. *D. medinensis* - **Dracunculus medinensis** is the parasite that causes **dracunculiasis**, also known as **Guinea worm disease**. - This infection is characterized by a **painful blister** and subsequent emergence of the adult worm, which is distinct from creeping eruptions.
Question 2: A child presented with perianal itching. The swab specimen is shown in the image. What is the diagnosis?
- A. Enterobius (Correct Answer)
- B. Ascaris
- C. Trichiura
- D. Ancylostoma
Explanation: ***Enterobius*** - The image shows **D-shaped** (plano-convex) and **transparent eggs**, which are characteristic of *Enterobius vermicularis* (**pinworm** or **threadworm**). - **Perianal itching**, especially at night, is the hallmark symptom due to the female worm migrating to the perianal region to lay eggs. *Ascaris* - *Ascaris lumbricoides* eggs are typically **round to oval**, with a thick, mamillated (bumpy) outer shell, or smooth in the case of decorticated eggs, which is different from the eggs pictured. - Infection with *Ascaris* can cause pulmonary symptoms (Loeffler's syndrome) and intestinal obstruction, but not typically perianal itching. *Trichiura* - *Trichuris trichiura* (**whipworm**) eggs are distinctly **barrel-shaped** with prominent **polar plugs** at each end, which is not seen in the image. - Whipworm infection is often associated with bloody diarrhea, rectal prolapse, and growth retardation, not primarily perianal itching. *Ancylostoma* - *Ancylostoma duodenale* and *Necator americanus* (hookworms) eggs are typically **oval** with a **thin shell** and segmented embryo (morula stage) within, which lacks the distinct D-shape and transparency of the pictured eggs. - Hookworm infection primarily causes iron-deficiency anemia and can lead to cutaneous larva migrans, not perianal itching as a primary symptom.
Question 3: Erythema chronicum migrans is associated with which of the following conditions?
- A. Lyme disease (Correct Answer)
- B. Glucagonoma
- C. Gastrinoma
- D. Phaeochromocytoma
Explanation: ***Lyme disease*** - **Erythema chronicum migrans** (ECM) is the characteristic expanding annular rash seen in the early localized stage of **Lyme disease**. - It results from infection with **Borrelia burgdorferi**, transmitted by **Ixodes ticks**. *Glucagonoma* - This is a pancreatic neuroendocrine tumor that secretes **glucagon**. - It is classically associated with **necrolytic migratory erythema**, a distinct rash, not erythema chronicum migrans. *Gastrinoma* - A gastrinoma is a tumor that secretes **gastrin**, leading to **Zollinger-Ellison syndrome**, characterized by severe peptic ulcer disease. - It is not associated with skin rashes like erythema chronicum migrans. *Phaeochromocytoma* - This is a tumor of the adrenal medulla that secretes **catecholamines**, causing symptoms like hypertension, palpitations, and headaches. - It does not present with erythema chronicum migrans or other characteristic skin rashes.
Question 4: Which among the following occupations is a risk factor for cutaneous larva migrans?
- A. A poultry worker
- B. A kennel worker
- C. A lifeguard in a swimming pool
- D. Farmer (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Farmer*** - Farmers are at high risk due to frequent direct contact with **contaminated soil** or sandy environments where animal feces, especially from dogs and cats, might be present. - Exposure to **larvae of hookworms** such as *Ancylostoma braziliense* and *Ancylostoma caninum*, which can penetrate unprotected skin (e.g., bare feet while working) from the soil. *A lifeguard in a swimming pool* - Lifeguards primarily work in **chlorinated water** or on clean, well-maintained pool decks, which do not typically harbor hookworm larvae. - While they might be exposed to other skin conditions, **cutaneous larva migrans** is not a common risk associated with this occupation. *A poultry worker* - Poultry workers are primarily exposed to avian environments, where hookworm species that cause cutaneous larva migrans in humans are typically **not found**. - Their work environment generally does not involve direct contact with soil contaminated by **canine or feline feces**. *A kennel worker* - While kennel workers handle dogs and cats, which are carriers of hookworms, their primary exposure is to the animals themselves or their immediate cleaned environments, not typically **soil contaminated with larvae**. - The mode of transmission for cutaneous larva migrans is through **soil contact** rather than direct animal handling in a controlled kennel setting.
Question 5: Identify the parasite shown in the image.
- A. Trichuris trichiura (Correct Answer)
- B. Ancylostoma duodenale
- C. Strongyloides stercoralis
- D. Paragonimus westermani
Explanation: ***Trichuris trichiura*** - The image displays characteristic **lemon-shaped** or **barrel-shaped eggs** with distinctive **polar plugs** at each end, which are pathognomonic for *Trichuris trichiura* (whipworm) eggs. - These eggs are thick-shelled and typically measure 50-55 µm by 20-25 µm, containing an undeveloped larva when passed in feces. *Ancylostoma duodenale* - Eggs of *Ancylostoma duodenale* (Old World hookworm) are **oval-shaped** with blunt ends, and a **thin shell**. - They typically contain a **segmented ovum** or an early-stage larva, lacking the polar plugs seen in the image. *Paragonimus westermani* - *Paragonimus westermani* (lung fluke) eggs are generally **oval-shaped** with a **flattened operculum** at one end, which is not visible in the image. - They are larger than *Trichuris* eggs, often measuring around 80-120 µm by 45-70 µm, and are often coughed up in sputum or passed in feces. *Strongyloides stercoralis* - *Strongyloides stercoralis* primarily produces **larvae** (rhabditiform or filariform) in stool samples rather than eggs. - If eggs are seen (rarely, in cases of severe diarrhea), they are small, thin-shelled, and typically contain a developed larva, unlike the eggs shown.
Question 6: A 42-year-old Bengali male presents with painless nodules over the face. The face is erythematous, and the surface of some of the large nodules is discolored. He gives a history of an insect bite in the past while he went to the jungle for work. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Chronic Fungal infections
- B. Cutaneous Leishmaniasis (Correct Answer)
- C. Cutaneous tuberculosis
- D. Leprosy
Explanation: ***Cutaneous Leishmaniasis*** - The presentation of **painless erythematous nodules** on the face, especially in a person with a history of **insect bites** and exposure to a **jungle environment** (where sandflies, vectors of Leishmania, are common), strongly suggests cutaneous leishmaniasis. - The discoloration of the surface of large nodules is also consistent with the typical appearance of **chronic cutaneous leishmaniasis lesions**. *Chronic Fungal infections* - While chronic fungal infections can cause skin nodules, they typically present with features like **scaling, itching, or satellite lesions**, which are not described here. - The specific history of **insect bites** and geographical context points away from common fungal etiologies. *Cutaneous tuberculosis* - Cutaneous tuberculosis can manifest as nodules (**lupus vulgaris** or **scrofuloderma**), but these are often associated with other signs of tuberculosis, such as **pulmonary involvement** or **lymph nodal enlargement**, and typically have a slower progression. - The history of **insect bite** is not a primary risk factor for cutaneous tuberculosis. *Leprosy* - Leprosy, particularly **lepromatous leprosy**, can cause extensive facial nodules, but these are often associated with **nerve involvement** leading to sensory loss, and the lesions tend to be diffusely infiltrative rather than discrete, discolored nodules. - The rapid onset or history of a single insect bite is less characteristic of leprosy, which has a very **long incubation period**.
Question 7: The burrow in scabies is in
- A. S. corneum (Correct Answer)
- B. Malpighian layer
- C. S. germinatum
- D. S. granulosum
Explanation: ***S. corneum*** - The **burrow** created by the *Sarcoptes scabiei* mite is specifically found within the **stratum corneum** of the epidermis. - This superficial location allows the mite to feed on **keratinocytes** and deposit eggs, leading to the characteristic rash and intense itching. - The burrow appears as a **serpiginous tract** and is a pathognomonic finding in scabies. *Malpighian layer* - The **Malpighian layer** encompasses the **stratum basale** and **stratum spinosum**, which are deeper layers of the epidermis. - The scabies mite does not burrow into these deeper, metabolically active layers. *S. germinatum* - **Stratum germinativum** is another term for the **stratum basale**, the deepest epidermal layer responsible for cell division. - The scabies mite creates burrows at a much more superficial level in the stratum corneum. *S. granulosum* - The **stratum granulosum** lies between the stratum spinosum and stratum corneum. - While closer to the surface than the Malpighian layer, scabies burrows are specifically located in the more superficial **stratum corneum**, not the granulosum layer.
Question 8: Tropical pulmonary eosinophilia is most characteristically seen due to which of the following infections?
- A. Roundworm
- B. Trichinella
- C. Ancylostoma
- D. Filaria (Correct Answer)
Explanation: *Filaria* - **Tropical pulmonary eosinophilia (TPE)** is a hypersensitivity reaction to microfilariae from filarial nematodes like *Wuchereria bancrofti* and *Brugia malayi* [1]. - It is characterized by cough, dyspnea, wheezing, and marked **peripheral eosinophilia**, with interstitial infiltrates on chest X-ray [1]. *Roundworm* - **Ascaris lumbricoides** can cause **Loeffler's syndrome**, a transient pulmonary infiltration with eosinophilia during larval migration, but not chronic TPE [2]. - Symptoms are usually less severe and self-limiting compared to TPE [2]. *Trichinella* - **Trichinella spiralis** causes **trichinellosis**, presenting with muscle pain, fever, and periorbital edema, possibly with eosinophilia, but typically does not manifest as TPE. - Pulmonary involvement is rare and not the characteristic feature. *Ancylostoma* - **Hookworm (Ancylostoma duodenale, Necator americanus)** larvae can cause mild pulmonary symptoms and eosinophilia during migration through the lungs [3]. - However, they also do not typically lead to the severe and chronic pulmonary symptoms seen in TPE [3].
Question 9: Adult scabies is characterized by which of the following?
- A. Involvement of palms and soles (Correct Answer)
- B. Involvement of the face
- C. Involvement of the anterior abdomen
- D. All of the above
Explanation: **Explanation:** Scabies is a contagious skin infestation caused by the mite *Sarcoptes scabiei var. hominis*. The distribution of lesions is the most critical diagnostic feature in NEET-PG questions. **1. Why Option A is Correct:** In **adult scabies**, the "Circle of Hebra" defines the classic distribution. This includes the interdigital spaces, wrists, elbows, axillae, periumbilical area, and genitalia. While traditionally taught that palms and soles are spared in adults compared to infants, modern clinical dermatology (and standard textbooks like IADVL) recognizes that **palms and soles** are frequently involved in adults, especially in cases of high mite burden or crusted scabies. Among the given options, it is the most characteristic site of involvement. **2. Why Options B and C are Incorrect:** * **Option B (Face):** The face and scalp are characteristically **spared** in adult scabies. This is because adults have a higher density of sebaceous glands; the sebum is thought to be inhibitory to the mites. Facial involvement is a hallmark of **infantile scabies** or **crusted (Norwegian) scabies**. * **Option C (Anterior Abdomen):** While the periumbilical area is involved, "anterior abdomen" is too broad and less specific than the involvement of the palms/soles or the web spaces. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Infantile Scabies:** Unlike adults, infants show involvement of the **face, scalp, palms, and soles** with common secondary vesicopustules. * **Pathognomonic Sign:** The **Burrow** (a S-shaped track) is the clinical hallmark, most commonly found on the finger webs and wrists. * **Nocturnal Pruritus:** Itching is worst at night due to a Type IV hypersensitivity reaction to the mite, its eggs, and scybala (feces). * **Treatment of Choice:** Topical **Permethrin (5%)** is the gold standard. Oral Ivermectin (200 µg/kg) is an alternative or adjunct for crusted scabies.
Question 10: An 8-month-old child presented with itchy, exudative lesions on the face, palms, and soles. The siblings also have similar complaints. Which of the following is the treatment of choice?
- A. Systemic ampicillin
- B. Topical permethrin (Correct Answer)
- C. Systemic prednisolone
- D. Topical betamethasone
Explanation: ### Explanation **Diagnosis: Infantile Scabies** The clinical presentation of itchy, exudative lesions involving the **palms and soles**, combined with a **positive family history** (siblings affected), is pathognomonic for Scabies. In infants, unlike adults, the lesions frequently involve the face, scalp, palms, and soles and often present as vesicles or pustules due to secondary eczematization. **1. Why Topical Permethrin is Correct:** * **Permethrin (5% cream)** is the **drug of choice** for scabies in infants older than 2 months. * **Mechanism:** It acts by disrupting the sodium channel currents in the neurons of the *Sarcoptes scabiei* mite, leading to paralysis and death. * **Application:** It should be applied from head to toe in infants (including the face and scalp, avoiding eyes/mouth) and washed off after 8–12 hours. **2. Why Other Options are Incorrect:** * **Systemic Ampicillin:** While lesions may appear "exudative" due to secondary bacterial infection (impetiginization), the primary pathology is parasitic. Antibiotics alone will not cure the underlying infestation. * **Systemic Prednisolone & Topical Betamethasone:** These are corticosteroids. Using steroids in scabies is contraindicated as they mask the symptoms ("Scabies Incognito") and can worsen the infestation by suppressing the local immune response against the mites. **3. NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Drug of Choice in Pregnancy/Lactation:** Permethrin 5%. * **Ivermectin:** Oral ivermectin (200 µg/kg) is an alternative but is generally **avoided in children weighing <15 kg** or pregnant women. * **Nodular Scabies:** Characterized by reddish-brown itchy nodules in the axilla and genitalia; treated with intralesional steroids. * **Crusted (Norwegian) Scabies:** Seen in immunocompromised patients; characterized by thousands of mites and minimal itching. Requires combination therapy (Oral Ivermectin + Topical Permethrin). * **Key Management Rule:** Always treat all close contacts simultaneously, even if asymptomatic, to prevent re-infestation.
Want unlimited practice?
Get full access to all questions, explanations, and performance tracking.
Start For Free