Irritant Contact Dermatitis in Workplace — MCQs
A person often feels that his hands are contaminated and is forced to wash his hands. Recently, he feels this repetitive, distressing thought of repetitive hand washing has begun affecting his performance. Which of the following is the best treatment option for this patient?
A patient comes to you with skin reactions after visiting the hair dresser. What will you do to confirm the diagnosis of contact dermatitis?
Characteristic of chronic eczema?
A 30-year-old male presented with silvery scales on elbow and knee, that bleed on removal. The probable diagnosis is:
Most important feature of psoriasis?
Statement 1 - A 59-year-old patient presents with flaccid bullae. Histopathology shows a suprabasal acantholytic split. Statement 2 - The row of tombstones appearance is diagnostic of Pemphigus vulgaris.
Most common precipitant of contact dermatitis is?
Treatment of choice for scabies in an infant aged 2-6 months is?
A man presents with a rash on his flank with itching for the past 2 weeks. The patient has tried several over-the-counter medications, including lotrimin and hydrocortisone, without any improvement. In physical examination, the rash is seen on his palms and the sole of one foot, but no oral lesions are found. What is the likely diagnosis?
Which of the following is not a feature of dermatomyositis?
Irritant Contact Dermatitis in Workplace Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: A person often feels that his hands are contaminated and is forced to wash his hands. Recently, he feels this repetitive, distressing thought of repetitive hand washing has begun affecting his performance. Which of the following is the best treatment option for this patient?
- A. Exposure and response prevention (Correct Answer)
- B. Systematic desensitization
- C. Dialectical Behavior Therapy (DBT)
- D. SSRI medication
Explanation: ***Exposure and Response Prevention (ERP)*** - This is the **gold standard psychotherapy** for **Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)**, which is clearly indicated by the repetitive distressing thoughts (obsessions about contamination) and compulsive handwashing (compulsion). - ERP involves gradually exposing the patient to the feared situation (contamination) while preventing the compulsive ritual (handwashing), allowing habituation to anxiety. - **CBT with ERP is considered first-line treatment** alongside SSRIs, with ERP often preferred as initial **monotherapy** due to **durable effects** and **no medication side effects**. *Systematic Desensitization* - This therapy is primarily used to treat **phobias** and other **anxiety disorders** where a specific fear is present, rather than the obsession-compulsion cycle seen in OCD. - It involves gradual exposure with relaxation techniques, but **does not include response prevention**, which is crucial for breaking the compulsive cycle in OCD. *Dialectical Behavior Therapy (DBT)* - DBT is primarily developed for **Borderline Personality Disorder** and conditions with severe emotional dysregulation, self-harm, and interpersonal difficulties. - While it can help with emotional regulation, it **does not specifically target the obsession-compulsion cycle** that is the core pathology of OCD. *SSRI Medication* - **SSRIs are also first-line treatment for OCD** and are highly effective, particularly at higher doses than those used for depression. - However, when comparing initial treatment options, **ERP (psychotherapy) is often preferred** as monotherapy because it produces **sustained improvement** even after treatment ends, with lower relapse rates compared to medication discontinuation. - **Combination therapy (ERP + SSRI)** is typically reserved for moderate-to-severe OCD or when monotherapy is insufficient. - In this scenario asking for "best treatment option," ERP represents the most specific and effective **psychotherapeutic intervention** for OCD.
Question 2: A patient comes to you with skin reactions after visiting the hair dresser. What will you do to confirm the diagnosis of contact dermatitis?
- A. S IgE
- B. Allergy Test
- C. Patch Test (Correct Answer)
- D. VDRL
Explanation: ***Patch Test*** - A **patch test** is the gold standard for diagnosing **allergic contact dermatitis** by directly applying suspected allergens to the skin. - This test identifies specific substances that cause a delayed hypersensitivity reaction, which is characteristic of contact dermatitis. *S IgE* - **Serum IgE** levels are primarily indicative of **Type I hypersensitivity** reactions, such as allergic rhinitis or asthma. - Contact dermatitis is a **Type IV delayed hypersensitivity reaction**, not mediated by IgE antibodies. *Allergy Test* - The term "allergy test" is broad and can refer to various methods including skin prick tests, IgE blood tests, or patch tests. - Without specifying **patch testing**, other forms of allergy tests are less appropriate for diagnosing contact dermatitis, as they target different immune mechanisms. *VDRL* - **VDRL (Venereal Disease Research Laboratory)** test is used to screen for **syphilis**, a sexually transmitted infection. - It has no relevance to the diagnosis of contact dermatitis, which is an inflammatory skin condition caused by contact with an allergen or irritant.
Question 3: Characteristic of chronic eczema?
- A. Erythema
- B. Induration
- C. Lichenification (Correct Answer)
- D. Edema
Explanation: ***Lichenification*** - **Lichenification** is a hallmark of chronic eczema, characterized by thickening of the epidermis with exaggerated skin markings due to persistent rubbing or scratching. - This response reflects the long-term inflammatory and reparative processes in chronically affected skin. *Erythema* - **Erythema**, or redness, is a common finding in both acute and chronic inflammatory skin conditions, including acute eczema, but is not specifically characteristic of chronicity. - While present, it does not distinguish chronic from acute phases as definitively as other features. *Induration* - **Induration** refers to hardening or firmness of the skin, often due to inflammation or infection, and while it can be present in chronic eczema, it's a more general sign and not as specific as lichenification. - It might also suggest other conditions like cellulitis or deep tissue involvement. *Edema* - **Edema**, or swelling, is more prominent in the acute phase of eczema due to vasodilation and increased vascular permeability leading to fluid extravasation. - While some edema can persist, it's a less defining feature of chronic eczema compared to the epidermal changes observed in lichenification.
Question 4: A 30-year-old male presented with silvery scales on elbow and knee, that bleed on removal. The probable diagnosis is:
- A. Secondary syphilis
- B. Psoriasis (Correct Answer)
- C. Pityriasis
- D. Seborrhoeic dermatitis
Explanation: ***Psoriasis*** - The presence of **silvery scales** on the elbows and knees, which **bleed upon removal** (Auspitz sign), is a classic presentation of **plaque psoriasis**. - Psoriasis is a chronic inflammatory skin condition characterized by **accelerated epidermal turnover**. *Secondary syphilis* - Secondary syphilis typically presents with a **generalized maculopapular rash**, which can affect the palms and soles, but it does not usually feature silvery scales or the Auspitz sign. - Other common symptoms of secondary syphilis include **fever, lymphadenopathy, and condyloma lata**. *Pityriasis* - **Pityriasis rosea** is characterized by an oval, fawn-colored, scaly rash, often preceded by a **herald patch**, and usually resolves spontaneously. It does not typically present with silvery scales or bleeding on removal. - **Pityriasis versicolor** is caused by yeast and presents as hypopigmented or hyperpigmented macules with fine scales, commonly on the trunk, not silvery scales on elbows and knees. *Seborrhoeic dermatitis* - Seborrhoeic dermatitis involves greasy, yellowish scales on red skin, typically affecting areas rich in sebaceous glands like the scalp, face (nasolabial folds, eyebrows), and chest. - It does not present with silvery scales or the Auspitz sign, which are specific to psoriasis.
Question 5: Most important feature of psoriasis?
- A. Erythema
- B. Crusting
- C. Oozing
- D. Scaling (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Scaling*** - **Scaling** is the most characteristic and prominent feature of **psoriasis**, resulting from the rapid turnover of skin cells. - The scales are typically **silvery-white** and can be thick, particularly on extensor surfaces like elbows and knees. *Erythema* - While **erythema (redness)** is present in psoriatic lesions due to inflammation and increased blood flow, it is not as specific as scaling. - Many dermatological conditions present with redness, making it less diagnostic on its own. *Crusting* - **Crusting** is generally associated with weeping lesions, infections, or dried exudates, which are not typical primary features of uncomplicated psoriasis. - It might occur secondary to scratching or infection, but isn't a hallmark lesion. *Oozing* - **Oozing** indicates active inflammation, fluid exudation, or infection, and is not a typical characteristic of classical psoriatic plaques. - Psoriasis lesions are usually dry and scaly, rather than moist or oozing.
Question 6: Statement 1 - A 59-year-old patient presents with flaccid bullae. Histopathology shows a suprabasal acantholytic split. Statement 2 - The row of tombstones appearance is diagnostic of Pemphigus vulgaris.
- A. Statements 1 & 2 are correct, 2 is not explaining 1 (Correct Answer)
- B. Statements 1 and 2 are correct and 2 is the correct explanation for 1
- C. Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect
- D. Statement 1 is incorrect
Explanation: ***Correct: Statements 1 & 2 are correct, 2 is not explaining 1*** **Analysis of Statement 1:** - A 59-year-old patient with **flaccid bullae** and **suprabasal acantholytic split** on histopathology is the classic presentation of **Pemphigus vulgaris** - The flaccid (easily ruptured) nature of bullae distinguishes it from tense bullae seen in bullous pemphigoid - The suprabasal location of the split (just above the basal layer) with acantholysis (loss of cell-to-cell adhesion) is pathognomonic - **Statement 1 is CORRECT** ✓ **Analysis of Statement 2:** - The **"row of tombstones" or "tombstone appearance"** is indeed a diagnostic histopathological feature of Pemphigus vulgaris - This appearance results from basal keratinocytes remaining attached to the basement membrane while suprabasal cells separate due to acantholysis - The intact basal cells standing upright resemble a row of tombstones - **Statement 2 is CORRECT** ✓ **Does Statement 2 explain Statement 1?** - Statement 2 describes a **histopathological appearance** (tombstone pattern) that is a **consequence** of the suprabasal split - However, it does NOT explain the **underlying cause** of the flaccid bullae or the suprabasal split - The true explanation involves **IgG autoantibodies against desmoglein 3 (and desmoglein 1)**, which attack intercellular adhesion structures (desmosomes), causing **acantholysis** - Therefore, **Statement 2 does NOT explain Statement 1** ✗ *Incorrect: Statement 2 is the correct explanation for Statement 1* - While both statements describe features of Pemphigus vulgaris, the tombstone appearance is a descriptive finding, not an explanatory mechanism *Incorrect: Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect* - Both statements are medically accurate descriptions of Pemphigus vulgaris features *Incorrect: Statement 1 is incorrect* - Statement 1 correctly describes the cardinal clinical and histopathological features of Pemphigus vulgaris
Question 7: Most common precipitant of contact dermatitis is?
- A. Gold
- B. Silver
- C. Iron
- D. Nickel (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Nickel*** - **Nickel** is the most frequent cause of **allergic contact dermatitis**, commonly found in jewelry, belt buckles, and zippers. - Exposure leads to a **Type IV hypersensitivity reaction**, characterized by erythema, itching, and vesiculation. *Gold* - While gold can cause contact dermatitis, it is **far less common** than nickel allergy. - Reactions to gold are often seen with prolonged skin contact, such as with jewelry. *Silver* - **Silver** is a **rare cause** of allergic contact dermatitis. - Allergic reactions to silver are typically observed in individuals with extensive exposure, such as jewelers. *Iron* - **Iron** is **not a common precipitant** of contact dermatitis. - Allergic reactions to iron are exceedingly rare, as iron is an essential element found naturally in the body.
Question 8: Treatment of choice for scabies in an infant aged 2-6 months is?
- A. Ivermectin
- B. Crotomiton
- C. Permethrin (Correct Answer)
- D. BHC
Explanation: ***Permethrin*** - **Permethrin 5% cream** is the **treatment of choice for scabies** in infants aged 2 months and older, as it has a proven safety profile and high efficacy. - It is applied to the entire body from the neck down (including head and scalp in infants), left on for 8-14 hours, and then washed off; a second application is often recommended 7-14 days later. - **Note:** For infants younger than 2 months, precipitated sulfur (5-6% in petrolatum) is preferred as permethrin is not approved for this age group. *Ivermectin* - **Oral ivermectin** is generally not recommended for infants and children weighing less than 15 kg or under 5 years old due to potential neurotoxicity and lack of sufficient safety data in this age group. - It is typically reserved for severe or crusted scabies in older children and adults, or when topical treatments fail. *Crotomiton* - **Crotamiton (Eurax)** is less effective than permethrin and can cause skin irritation; it is not considered a first-line treatment for scabies in infants. - Its use is often limited to cases where permethrin is contraindicated or not tolerated, and it may require multiple applications over several days. *BHC* - **Lindane (benzene hexachloride)** is **not recommended for infants** due to its potential for neurotoxicity, including seizures, especially in those with compromised skin barriers or young age. - It has largely been replaced by safer and equally effective treatments like permethrin.
Question 9: A man presents with a rash on his flank with itching for the past 2 weeks. The patient has tried several over-the-counter medications, including lotrimin and hydrocortisone, without any improvement. In physical examination, the rash is seen on his palms and the sole of one foot, but no oral lesions are found. What is the likely diagnosis?
- A. Tinea corporis
- B. Pityriasis rosea
- C. Secondary syphilis (Correct Answer)
- D. Contact dermatitis
Explanation: ***Secondary syphilis*** - The rash presenting on the **palms and soles** is highly characteristic of **secondary syphilis**, which helps differentiate it from many other dermatological conditions. - The lack of improvement with antifungal (Lotrimin) and corticosteroid (hydrocortisone) treatments further supports a diagnosis other than a fungal infection or inflammatory dermatitis. *Tinea corporis* - This fungal infection typically presents as an **annular (ring-shaped) rash** with central clearing and well-demarcated borders, often on the trunk or limbs. - It would likely show some improvement, even if partial, with **Lotrimin (an antifungal medication)**, which is not the case here. *Pityriasis rosea* - This condition is characterized by an initial **"herald patch"** followed by smaller, oval, pinkish-red patches that often align along skin cleavage lines in a **"Christmas tree" pattern** on the trunk. - It typically spares the palms and soles, which are involved in this patient's presentation. *Contact dermatitis* - This is an inflammatory skin reaction due to contact with an allergen or irritant, presenting as **pruritic (itchy) erythematous (red) patches, possibly with vesicles or bullae**, limited to exposed areas. - While hydrocortisone might offer some relief, the presentation on palms and soles without clear exposure and the lack of response to treatment make it less likely.
Question 10: Which of the following is not a feature of dermatomyositis?
- A. Salmon Patch (Correct Answer)
- B. Periungual telangiectasias
- C. Gottron's patch
- D. Mechanic's hands
Explanation: ***Salmon Patch*** - A **salmon patch** (also known as a nevus simplex or stork bite) is a common, benign vascular birthmark that presents as a flat, red or pink patch. - It is **not associated with dermatomyositis** and has no pathogenic link to the condition. *Gottron's patch* - **Gottron's patches** are a classic cutaneous manifestation of dermatomyositis, characterized by erythematous, violaceous, or dusky red papules or plaques over the **extensor surfaces of the metacarpophalangeal and interphalangeal joints**. - Their presence is highly suggestive of dermatomyositis, often preceding or co-occurring with muscle weakness. *Periungual telangiectasias* - **Periungual telangiectasias** are dilated capillaries around the nail folds and are a common skin manifestation of dermatomyositis. - They represent small vessel vasculopathy, a histological feature, and suggest microvascular damage often seen in systemic connective tissue diseases like dermatomyositis. *Mechanic's hands* - **Mechanic's hands** are a cutaneous feature seen in dermatomyositis (and other inflammatory myopathies like antisynthetase syndrome). - They are characterized by **hyperkeratosis**, fissuring, and scaling of the skin, particularly on the lateral and palmar aspects of the fingers, resembling the hands of a manual laborer.
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