Excisional Surgery — MCQs
Wound contraction can be most effectively minimized by:
Objectives of pre-prosthetic surgical procedures include all, except:
A patient with grossly contaminated wound presents 12 hours after an accident. His wound should be managed by -
A patient has a lacerated, untidy wound of the leg and attended the casualty department after 2 hours. His wound should be:
An elderly patient presents with a non-healing ulcerative lesion on the lower lip, as shown in the image. The lesion has been gradually enlarging over the past few months. Suspecting squamous cell carcinoma (SCC), what is the most appropriate method to obtain a biopsy for definitive diagnosis?
Percentage of adrenaline with lignocaine for local infiltration is?
Shave biopsy is not done in:
Which of the following are true about epidermal cyst? 1. It is lined by stratified squamous epithelium. 2. It is derived from hair follicle. 3. It contains keratin debris. 4. It is not fixed to the skin.
Which of the following is the MOST characteristic feature of skin tags (acrochordons)?
Unna boot is used for the treatment of which condition?
Excisional Surgery Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: Wound contraction can be most effectively minimized by:
- A. Allowing secondary granulation
- B. Full thickness grafting (Correct Answer)
- C. Split skin graft
- D. Dressing with placenta
Explanation: ***Full thickness grafting*** - **Full-thickness skin grafts** include the epidermis and full dermis, which contains **fewer myofibroblasts** than split-thickness grafts, thus minimizing contraction. - The greater amount of dermal tissue acts as a **mechanical barrier** to prevent excessive wound contraction, providing a more stable and aesthetically pleasing result. *Allowing secondary granulation* - Healing by **secondary intention** involves substantial granulation tissue formation, which is rich in **myofibroblasts** and leads to significant wound contraction. - This method of healing is often used for infected or contaminated wounds but results in the **most contraction**. *Split skin graft* - **Split-thickness skin grafts** contain only a portion of the dermis, making them prone to **moderate to significant wound contraction**. - While better than secondary intention, the thin dermal layer provides less resistance to the contractile forces of the **myofibroblasts**. *Dressing with placenta* - **Placental tissue dressings** can promote wound healing by providing growth factors and a scaffold for regeneration. - However, they do not inherently prevent or minimize **wound contraction** in the same way that a full-thickness graft mechanically does, as they do not replace the entire dermal layer.
Question 2: Objectives of pre-prosthetic surgical procedures include all, except:
- A. All of the above (Correct Answer)
- B. Removal of epulis fissuratum
- C. Correction of unfavorably located frenular attachments
- D. Vestibuloplasty
Explanation: ***All of the above*** - The question asks for what is *not* an objective of pre-prosthetic surgical procedures, and since the specific options provided (removal of epulis fissuratum, correction of unfavorably located frenular attachments, and vestibuloplasty) are indeed common objectives, "All of the above" is the correct choice, indicating that none of these procedures are exceptions to the objectives. - The other options represent specific objectives, meaning that they are *included* in the goals of pre-prosthetic surgery. *Removal of epulis fissuratum* - **Epulis fissuratum** is a hyperplastic tissue growth often caused by ill-fitting dentures, and its removal is a common pre-prosthetic surgical procedure. - Its presence can interfere with **denture stability** and cause discomfort, thus its removal is an important objective. *Correction of unfavorably located frenular attachments* - **Frenular attachments** that are too high or thick can dislodge a denture or cause pain, and their surgical correction (frenectomy) is a standard pre-prosthetic procedure. - This procedure aims to improve **denture retention** and comfort by modifying the soft tissue architecture. *Vestibuloplasty* - **Vestibuloplasty** is a surgical procedure designed to increase the depth of the **vestibule**, which is essential for improving denture stability and retention. - This procedure creates a more favorable anatomical foundation for **denture support**, especially in cases of severe alveolar ridge resorption.
Question 3: A patient with grossly contaminated wound presents 12 hours after an accident. His wound should be managed by -
- A. Thorough cleaning with debridement of all dead and devitalised tissue without primary closure (Correct Answer)
- B. Primary closure over a drain
- C. Covering the defect with split skin graft after cleaning
- D. Thorough cleaning and primary repair
Explanation: ***Thorough cleaning with debridement of all dead and devitalised tissue without primary closure*** - For a **grossly contaminated wound** presenting 12 hours after injury, thorough **wound lavage** and **debridement** of all non-viable tissue are crucial to reduce bacterial load. - **Delayed primary closure** or **secondary intention healing** is preferred over primary closure in such cases to prevent infection spread. *Primary closure over a drain* - **Primary closure** of a grossly contaminated wound significantly increases the risk of **wound infection**, even with a drain. - Drains may help with fluid collection but do not sufficiently mitigate the risk of infection in a dirty wound. *Covering the defect with split skin graft after cleaning* - Applying a **skin graft** to a potentially infected wound is contraindicated as it will likely fail due to the **bacterial burden**. - Grafting is typically performed on clean, well-vascularized wound beds. *Thorough cleaning and primary repair* - While **thorough cleaning** is essential, **primary repair** (closure) of a grossly contaminated wound is associated with a high risk of **surgical site infection**. - **Delayed closure** allows for observation and further debridement if necessary.
Question 4: A patient has a lacerated, untidy wound of the leg and attended the casualty department after 2 hours. His wound should be:
- A. Debrided and sutured immediately
- B. Sutured immediately
- C. Cleaned and dressed
- D. Debrided and sutured secondarily (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Debrided and sutured secondarily*** - An **untidy wound** indicates contamination, irregular edges, and devitalized tissue, which significantly increases the **risk of wound infection**. - The standard management involves **thorough debridement** to remove all contaminated and non-viable tissue, followed by **delayed primary closure** (suturing after 3-5 days once the wound shows healthy granulation) or **healing by secondary intention**. - This approach is especially important for **lower extremity wounds**, which have a higher infection risk due to relatively poorer blood supply compared to facial wounds. - Even though the patient presented within 2 hours (well within the "golden period"), the **untidy nature** of the wound makes **immediate primary closure risky** and secondary closure the safer, preferred option. *Debrided and sutured immediately* - While **debridement is essential** for untidy wounds, **immediate primary closure** after debridement is generally reserved for **tidy wounds** with minimal contamination. - For untidy wounds, immediate closure increases the risk of **trapping bacteria and devitalized tissue**, leading to **wound infection**, abscess formation, or dehiscence despite being within the golden period. - Primary closure may be considered in select cases with minimal contamination and excellent debridement, but this is not the standard teaching for untidy wounds. *Sutured immediately* - **Immediate suturing without debridement** of an untidy wound would be dangerous, as it would trap contaminants, foreign material, and devitalized tissue. - This approach would significantly increase the risk of **serious wound infection**, including **gas gangrene** or necrotizing fasciitis in contaminated wounds. - Proper wound preparation is mandatory before any closure is considered. *Cleaned and dressed* - Simple **cleaning and dressing** is insufficient for an untidy wound as it does not address the devitalized tissue that requires **surgical debridement**. - While this avoids the risk of premature closure, it fails to provide adequate treatment for a wound that needs formal surgical debridement to remove non-viable tissue and reduce bacterial load. - This approach might be acceptable only as a temporary measure if surgical debridement cannot be performed immediately.
Question 5: An elderly patient presents with a non-healing ulcerative lesion on the lower lip, as shown in the image. The lesion has been gradually enlarging over the past few months. Suspecting squamous cell carcinoma (SCC), what is the most appropriate method to obtain a biopsy for definitive diagnosis?
- A. Incisional (Correct Answer)
- B. Excisional
- C. Deep tissue biopsy
- D. Superficial biopsy from the border with normal tissue
Explanation: ***Incisional*** - An **incisional biopsy** is the most appropriate method for obtaining a definitive diagnosis of suspected squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) of the lip. - This technique involves removing a **wedge-shaped portion of the lesion** that includes both the tumor tissue and a margin extending into normal tissue, with adequate depth to assess invasion. - Incisional biopsy provides sufficient tissue for **histopathological examination**, including assessment of tumor grade, depth of invasion, and other prognostic factors critical for staging and treatment planning. - For larger or suspicious lesions where complete excision might cause significant cosmetic deformity, incisional biopsy allows for **diagnosis confirmation before definitive surgical management**. *Superficial biopsy from the border with normal tissue* - A superficial or shave biopsy is **inadequate for SCC diagnosis** as it does not provide information about the depth of invasion, which is crucial for staging and prognosis. - Squamous cell carcinoma requires assessment of invasion into underlying dermis and deeper structures, which cannot be evaluated with superficial sampling. - Superficial biopsies may lead to **underdiagnosis** or incomplete staging, potentially compromising treatment planning. *Excisional* - While excisional biopsy (complete removal with margins) can be appropriate for **small, well-defined lesions** (<1 cm), it may not be the first choice for larger or gradually enlarging lesions. - Complete excision without prior histological confirmation might result in **inadequate margins** if malignancy is confirmed, requiring re-excision. - For lip lesions, unnecessary wide excision can cause **significant cosmetic and functional defects** if the lesion proves benign or requires specialized reconstruction. *Deep tissue biopsy* - This is not standard terminology in the context of lip lesions and lacks specificity regarding the sampling technique. - The term "deep tissue biopsy" is more commonly used for suspected soft tissue tumors or deep-seated lesions, not for mucocutaneous SCC.
Question 6: Percentage of adrenaline with lignocaine for local infiltration is?
- A. 1:1000
- B. 1:10000
- C. 1:50000 (Correct Answer)
- D. 1:200000
Explanation: ***1:50000*** - This concentration of **adrenaline (epinephrine)** is commonly used with **lignocaine (lidocaine)** for local infiltration to prolong the anesthetic effect and reduce bleeding. - At this concentration, adrenaline acts as a **vasoconstrictor**, decreasing systemic absorption of lignocaine and allowing a higher dose locally. *1:1000* - This concentration of adrenaline is typically used for the treatment of **anaphylaxis** and is considered too high for local infiltration with lignocaine. - Using such a high concentration locally can lead to severe **vasoconstriction**, tissue ischemia, and systemic side effects like **tachycardia** and **hypertension**. *1:10000* - This concentration is too strong for routine local infiltration and is usually reserved for **cardiac arrest** protocols or severe anaphylaxis when administered intravenously. - It would carry a significant risk of **tissue damage** and systemic effects if used for local infiltration. *1:200000* - While sometimes used, **1:50000** is generally the more common and effective concentration for achieving **hemostasis** and prolonging anesthesia during local infiltration. - A 1:200000 concentration provides a lesser degree of **vasoconstriction**, potentially leading to less prolonged local anesthetic effect and reduced bleeding control compared to 1:50000.
Question 7: Shave biopsy is not done in:
- A. Seborrheic keratoses
- B. Basal cell carcinoma
- C. Melanoma (Correct Answer)
- D. Viral warts
Explanation: ***Melanoma*** - **Shave biopsy is absolutely contraindicated for suspected melanoma** because it does not provide sufficient depth to accurately measure **Breslow thickness**, which is the most important prognostic factor. - An **excisional biopsy with 1-3mm margins** down to subcutaneous fat is the gold standard to ensure complete histological evaluation and accurate staging. - Inadequate depth sampling can lead to **understaging, incorrect prognosis, and inappropriate treatment planning**. *Basal cell carcinoma* - Shave biopsy **can be performed** for basal cell carcinoma and is commonly used for diagnostic purposes, especially for **superficial and nodular types**. - While punch or excisional biopsy may be preferred for morpheaform or infiltrative subtypes to assess depth, shave biopsy is not contraindicated and provides adequate tissue for diagnosis in most cases. *Seborrheic keratoses* - **Shave biopsy is ideal** for seborrheic keratoses as they are **benign, superficial epidermal growths**. - The technique allows for complete removal and histological confirmation with excellent cosmetic outcomes. *Viral warts* - **Shave biopsy can be used** for diagnosis and treatment of viral warts, particularly for **exophytic lesions**. - The superficial nature of warts makes shave excision an appropriate and effective method.
Question 8: Which of the following are true about epidermal cyst? 1. It is lined by stratified squamous epithelium. 2. It is derived from hair follicle. 3. It contains keratin debris. 4. It is not fixed to the skin.
- A. 1, 3 and 4
- B. 1, 2 and 4
- C. 2, 3 and 4
- D. 1, 2 and 3 (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***1, 2 and 3*** - An **epidermal cyst** is indeed derived from the **infundibulum of a hair follicle**. - It is lined by **stratified squamous epithelium** and contains **keratin debris**, giving it a cheesy consistency. *1, 3 and 4* - While an epidermal cyst is lined by stratified squamous epithelium and contains keratin, it is often **fixed to the skin** due to its attachment to the follicular opening, making statement 4 incorrect. - The cyst's connection to the surface epithelium is a distinguishing feature, preventing it from being freely mobile. *1, 2 and 4* - Although statements 1 and 2 are true, statement 4, claiming it is not fixed to the skin, is generally **incorrect**. - Epidermal cysts typically have a punctum or small opening to the skin surface, indicating its attachment. *2, 3 and 4* - Statements 2 and 3 are correct, but statement 4, suggesting it is not fixed, is **false**. - The presence of a **central punctum**, which is common in epidermal cysts, signifies its epidermal origin and attachment to the skin.
Question 9: Which of the following is the MOST characteristic feature of skin tags (acrochordons)?
- A. They commonly occur on the neck and axilla.
- B. They have malignant potential.
- C. They are associated with seborrhoeic keratosis.
- D. They are typically pedunculated. (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***They are typically pedunculated.*** - **Skin tags (acrochordons)** are benign soft tissue tumors characterized by their **pedunculated morphology** - they are attached to the skin by a narrow stalk or pedicle. - This **pedunculated appearance** is the **most characteristic** and **defining feature** that distinguishes them from other benign skin lesions. - They are typically **soft, flesh-colored or hyperpigmented**, and range from 1-5 mm in size. *They commonly occur on the neck and axilla.* - While **skin tags** frequently occur in areas of friction such as the neck, axilla, eyelids, groin, and inframammary folds, this **location is not specific**. - Many other skin conditions also favor these sites, so location alone is not a characteristic diagnostic feature. *They are associated with seborrhoeic keratosis.* - There is **no established clinical association** between skin tags and seborrheic keratoses. - Both are common **benign skin growths** in adults but represent different pathological entities with different clinical appearances. *They have malignant potential.* - This is **incorrect**. Skin tags are **benign fibrous polyps** with **no malignant potential**. - They do not require removal unless symptomatic or for cosmetic reasons.
Question 10: Unna boot is used for the treatment of which condition?
- A. Diabetic foot ulcer
- B. Varicose ulcers (Correct Answer)
- C. Ankle instability
- D. Calcaneum fracture
Explanation: **Explanation:** The **Unna boot** is a specialized compression dressing used primarily for the management of **venous stasis ulcers (varicose ulcers)**. It consists of a zinc oxide-impregnated bandage, often containing calamine and glycerin, which is wrapped around the lower leg from the base of the toes to just below the knee. **Why it is the correct answer:** The mechanism of action is based on **compression therapy**. As the bandage dries, it becomes semi-rigid. When the patient walks, the calf muscles contract against this rigid barrier, significantly enhancing the **musculovenous pump** efficiency. This reduces venous hypertension, decreases edema, and promotes the healing of chronic venous ulcers. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Diabetic foot ulcer:** These are primarily neuropathic or ischemic. Treatment focuses on offloading pressure (e.g., total contact casts) and revascularization, rather than the semi-rigid compression provided by an Unna boot. * **Ankle instability:** This requires mechanical stabilization via braces, taping, or surgical intervention to protect ligaments, not a medicated compression wrap. * **Calcaneum fracture:** Fractures require rigid immobilization (plaster casts) or surgical fixation. An Unna boot does not provide sufficient structural support for bone healing. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Composition:** Zinc oxide (promotes healing), Calamine (soothes skin), and Glycerin. * **Contraindication:** It should **not** be used in patients with severe Peripheral Arterial Disease (ABI < 0.5) as compression can worsen ischemia. * **Application:** It is typically changed once a week. * **Gold Standard:** While Unna boots are classic, multilayer compression wraps are now often considered the gold standard for venous ulcers.
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