Stasis Dermatitis — MCQs
All are predisposing factors of Deep Vein thrombosis, EXCEPT :
A young man presents with skin lesions as shown in the image below. All of the following organisms can spread through dermal and subcutaneous lymphatics, except
The ideal indication for injection of sclerosing agents is:
A 65M presents with worsening dyspnea and leg swelling. Physical examination reveals an elevated jugular venous pressure and bilateral lower extremity pitting edema. Most likely cause of his symptoms?
A patient with typical cutaneous lesions, slightly elevated red or purple macules often covered by gray or yellow adherent scales. Forceful removal of the scale reveals numerous ‘carpet tack’ extensions. The lesion is:
Dermatological manifestation of which of the following diseases?
Pompholyx affects:
A child presented with itchy plaques over the neck, the bilateral popliteal and cubital fossa. What could be the diagnosis?
What condition is likely to be present in the child shown in the image, whose mother has asthma?
Rakesh, a 7-year-old boy, presents with a 3-year history of itchy, excoriated papules on his forehead and exposed parts of his arms and legs. The condition is most severe during the rainy season and improves completely in winter. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Stasis Dermatitis Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: All are predisposing factors of Deep Vein thrombosis, EXCEPT :
- A. Lower limb trauma
- B. Cushing's syndrome
- C. Hip surgery
- D. Subungual melanoma (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Subungual melanoma*** - This is a rare form of melanoma that develops under the nail, and while serious, it is **not a recognized predisposing factor for deep vein thrombosis (DVT)**. Its primary concerns are local invasion and metastasis. - Unlike conditions affecting blood clotting or endothelium, **subungual melanoma does not directly promote hypercoagulability, venous stasis, or endothelial damage** that contribute to DVT. *Lower limb trauma* - **Trauma to the lower limb** can cause **endothelial damage** to blood vessels and **venous stasis** due to immobility or swelling, both key components of **Virchow's triad** for DVT [1]. - **Fractures or severe soft tissue injuries** often necessitate immobilization and can lead to inflammation, further increasing the risk of clot formation [1]. *Cushing's syndrome* - **Cushing's syndrome** is associated with **hypercoagulability** due to increased levels of clotting factors, such as **factor VIII** and **fibrinogen**, and decreased fibrinolytic activity. - The **elevated cortisol levels** seen in Cushing's syndrome [2] can directly contribute to a prothrombotic state, significantly increasing DVT risk. *Hip surgery* - **Major orthopedic surgeries**, especially hip surgery [1], are well-known to cause significant **venous stasis** and **endothelial damage**. - **Post-operative immobility** and a generalized **inflammatory response** following surgery contribute to a high risk of DVT formation [1].
Question 2: A young man presents with skin lesions as shown in the image below. All of the following organisms can spread through dermal and subcutaneous lymphatics, except
- A. Sporothrix schenckii
- B. Staphylococcus aureus (Correct Answer)
- C. Nocardia asteroides
- D. Mycobacterium marinum
Explanation: ***Staphylococcus aureus*** - While *Staphylococcus aureus* can cause various skin infections, it primarily spreads through **direct extension** or the **bloodstream**, not typically through the dermal and subcutaneous lymphatics in a pattern like the one shown. - Infections like cellulitis, abscesses, and impetigo caused by *Staphylococcus aureus* are usually localized or spread via contiguous tissue, rather than forming **linear nodular lesions** along lymphatic channels. *Sporothrix schenckii* - This fungus is a classic cause of **sporotrichosis**, which often presents with **lymphocutaneous spread** following traumatic inoculation. - The image shows **linearly arranged subcutaneous nodules** proximally along the arm, characteristic of lymphatic dissemination, often seen in sporotrichosis. *Nocardia asteroides* - **Nocardia infections** can also cause **lymphocutaneous disease** with a similar appearance to sporotrichosis, especially in immunocompromised individuals. - It can lead to a **chain of subcutaneous nodules and abscesses** tracking along lymphatic vessels from the initial site of infection. *Mycobacterium marinum* - **Mycobacterium marinum** causes **fish tank granuloma** or **swimming pool granuloma** following skin trauma in contaminated water. - It characteristically produces **ascending lymphocutaneous nodules** along lymphatic channels, similar to sporotrichosis, creating a **sporotrichoid pattern**. - The infection typically starts as a papule at the inoculation site and spreads proximally along lymphatics.
Question 3: The ideal indication for injection of sclerosing agents is:
- A. External hemorrhoids
- B. Internal hemorrhoids (Correct Answer)
- C. Immediate surgery for strangulated hemorrhoids
- D. Surgical intervention for prolapsed hemorrhoids
Explanation: ***Internal hemorrhoids*** - Sclerotherapy is most effective for **first- and second-degree internal hemorrhoids**, where symptomatic bleeding is the primary concern. - The injected agent causes **fibrosis** and **scarring**, leading to fixation of the hemorrhoidal tissue and reduced blood flow. *External hemorrhoids* - External hemorrhoids are located **below the dentate line** and are covered by sensitive anoderm. - Sclerosing agents can cause **significant pain** and are generally ineffective for external hemorrhoids. *Immediate surgery for strangulated hemorrhoids* - **Strangulated hemorrhoids** are a medical emergency requiring **urgent surgical intervention** to prevent tissue necrosis. - Sclerotherapy is absolutely **contraindicated** in this scenario due to the risk of exacerbating ischemia and complications. *Surgical intervention for prolapsed hemorrhoids* - While sclerotherapy can be used for some early-stage prolapsed internal hemorrhoids (second degree), **surgical intervention** is more appropriate for **third- and fourth-degree prolapsed hemorrhoids**. - These more advanced hemorrhoids often require techniques like **hemorrhoidectomy** or stapling for definitive treatment.
Question 4: A 65M presents with worsening dyspnea and leg swelling. Physical examination reveals an elevated jugular venous pressure and bilateral lower extremity pitting edema. Most likely cause of his symptoms?
- A. Hypothyroidism
- B. Right-sided heart failure (Correct Answer)
- C. Chronic kidney disease
- D. Liver cirrhosis
Explanation: Right-sided heart failure - **Elevated jugular venous pressure (JVP)** and **bilateral lower extremity pitting edema** are classic signs of fluid overload due to the inability of the right ventricle to effectively pump blood [2], [4]. - **Dyspnea** can occur due to congestion in the lungs (if left-sided failure is also present) or due to increased effort of breathing with significant fluid retention [1], [3]. *Hypothyroidism* - While **hypothyroidism** can cause **non-pitting edema** (myxedema), it does not typically lead to elevated JVP. - The dyspnea in hypothyroidism is often related to respiratory muscle weakness or pleural effusions, not primarily venous congestion. *Chronic kidney disease* - **Chronic kidney disease** can cause **fluid overload** and **edema**, but it typically presents with **pitting edema** and elevated JVP. - However, the primary cause of the fluid retention in CKD is impaired renal excretion, not cardiac pump dysfunction, as in this case. *Liver cirrhosis* - **Liver cirrhosis** can lead to **ascites** and **peripheral edema** due to low albumin and portal hypertension. - Elevate JVP is not a typical feature of cirrhosis unless there is a co-existing cardiac condition.
Question 5: A patient with typical cutaneous lesions, slightly elevated red or purple macules often covered by gray or yellow adherent scales. Forceful removal of the scale reveals numerous ‘carpet tack’ extensions. The lesion is:
- A. Scleroderma
- B. DLE (Correct Answer)
- C. SLE
- D. Lichen planus
Explanation: ***DLE*** - **Discoid lupus erythematosus (DLE)** lesions are characterized by **erythematous-to-violaceous plaques**, often with **follicular plugging** and a **firmly adherent scale**. - The "carpet tack" sign refers to the painful, prickly projections observed on the undersurface of a removed scale, indicating keratinous plugs within hair follicles, which is highly suggestive of DLE. *Scleroderma* - **Scleroderma** involves **fibrosis** of the skin, leading to hardening and thickening, often preceded by Raynaud's phenomenon. - It does not typically present with elevated red or purple macules with adherent scales or the "carpet tack" sign. *SLE* - **Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)** is a multi-system autoimmune disease that can have cutaneous manifestations, but these are often more diffuse (**malar rash**, photosensitivity) or non-scarring. - While DLE can occur in SLE patients, the description specifically points to the localized, scarring nature of DLE rather than the systemic features of SLE itself. *Lichen planus* - **Lichen planus** typically presents with **pruritic, polygonal, planar, purple papules and plaques** (the "6 Ps"). - While it can have scaling, it does not exhibit the "carpet tack" sign or the distinct follicular plugging seen in DLE.
Question 6: Dermatological manifestation of which of the following diseases?
- A. Photo dermatitis
- B. Pellagra (Correct Answer)
- C. Acrodermatitis enteropathica
- D. Vitamin B deficiency
Explanation: ***Pellagra*** - The image shows a classic "butterfly" rash on the face, specifically a photosensitive dermatitis, which is a hallmark of **pellagra**. - Pellagra is caused by a deficiency of **niacin (vitamin B3)**, characterized by the "3 D's": **dermatitis**, **diarrhea**, and **dementia**. *Photo dermatitis* - While pellagra often presents with photosensitive dermatitis, "photo dermatitis" is a general term for **skin inflammation caused by light exposure** and not a specific disease itself. - It could be caused by various factors, including medication, immune reactions, or other underlying conditions, but the pattern seen here is highly suggestive of pellagra. *Acrodermatitis enteropathica* - This condition is a **hereditary zinc deficiency** that typically presents with a periorificial and acral dermatitis. - The skin lesions are typically **vesicular-pustular or eczematous** and do not usually have the distinct butterfly pattern of photosensitive dermatitis seen in the image. *Vitamin B deficiency* - While pellagra is a vitamin B **(niacin, B3)** deficiency, this option is too broad. - Other vitamin B deficiencies, such as **riboflavin (B2)** or **pyridoxine (B6)** deficiency, have different dermatological manifestations like angular cheilitis, glossitis, or seborrheic dermatitis, but not the characteristic facial rash seen here.
Question 7: Pompholyx affects:
- A. Groin
- B. Scalp
- C. Trunk
- D. Palms and soles (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Palms and soles*** - **Pompholyx**, also known as **dyshidrotic eczema**, is characterized by recurrent outbreaks of **vesicles and bullae** predominantly on the palms and soles. - These lesions are typically very **itchy** and can cause significant discomfort. *Groin* - Conditions like **tinea cruris** (jock itch) or **intertrigo** commonly affect the groin, presenting with erythema and scaling rather than vesicles. - While eczema can occur in the groin, classical pompholyx has a predilection for the acral regions. *Scalp* - The scalp is more commonly affected by conditions such as **seborrheic dermatitis** or **psoriasis**, which manifest as scaling, redness, and flaking. - Vesicular eruptions are rare on the scalp unless due to specific conditions like herpes zoster. *Trunk* - The trunk is a common site for various dermatoses, including **atopic dermatitis**, **psoriasis**, or **pityriasis rosea**, but these typically present with different morphologic features (e.g., plaques, patches). - Pompholyx is specific to palms and soles and does not usually involve the trunk.
Question 8: A child presented with itchy plaques over the neck, the bilateral popliteal and cubital fossa. What could be the diagnosis?
- A. Dermatitis herpetiformis
- B. Psoriasis
- C. Pemphigus vegetans
- D. Atopic dermatitis (Correct Answer)
Explanation: **Atopic dermatitis** - The presentation of **itchy plaques** in the anatomical locations described (neck, bilateral popliteal fossa, and cubital fossa) is highly characteristic of **atopic dermatitis** in children. - Atopic dermatitis typically involves **flexural surfaces** in older children and adults, and is characterized by **intense pruritus**. *Dermatitis herpetiformis* - This condition presents with **extremely itchy, grouped vesicles and papules**, primarily on extensor surfaces, buttocks, and scalp. - It is strongly associated with **celiac disease** and is unlikely to present as plaques in flexural areas. *Psoriasis* - Psoriasis typically presents with **well-demarcated, erythematous plaques** covered with **silvery scales**, often on extensor surfaces (knees, elbows) and the scalp. - While it can occur in flexural areas (inverse psoriasis), **itching is usually less prominent** than in atopic dermatitis, and the characteristic scaling is usually present. *Pemphigus vegetans* - Pemphigus vegetans is a rare variant of pemphigus, characterized by **verrucous, vegetative lesions** and **bullae**, often in intertriginous areas. - This condition is a chronic autoimmune blistering disease and does not typically present as simple itchy plaques in a child.
Question 9: What condition is likely to be present in the child shown in the image, whose mother has asthma?
- A. Atopic dermatitis (Correct Answer)
- B. SLE
- C. Erythema
- D. TEN
Explanation: ***Atopic dermatitis*** - The image shows an infant with **red, scaly, and irritated skin**, particularly on the cheeks and around the mouth, consistent with the characteristic presentation of **atopic dermatitis (eczema)** in infants. - Atopic dermatitis often occurs in individuals with a family history of **atopy**, which includes conditions like **asthma**, allergic rhinitis, and food allergies; a mother with asthma significantly increases the child's risk. *SLE* - **Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)** is a **chronic autoimmune inflammatory disease** that rarely presents in infancy with such prominent skin findings, especially without other systemic symptoms. - Skin manifestations of SLE typically include a **malar (butterfly) rash** or **discoid lesions**, which are different from the diffuse eczematous rash seen here. *Erythema* - **Erythema** simply refers to **redness of the skin** caused by inflammation or dilation of blood capillaries. - While the infant's skin is erythematous, erythema is a **symptom**, not a specific diagnosis, and does not fully describe the scaly, papular nature of the rash or the underlying condition. *TEN* - **Toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN)** is a **severe, life-threatening skin condition** characterized by widespread epidermal detachment, forming large blisters and skin sloughing, often triggered by medications. - The skin lesions in the image do not show the extensive blistering and denudation characteristic of TEN, and a history of an asthmatic mother is not a risk factor for TEN.
Question 10: Rakesh, a 7-year-old boy, presents with a 3-year history of itchy, excoriated papules on his forehead and exposed parts of his arms and legs. The condition is most severe during the rainy season and improves completely in winter. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Insect bite hypersensitivity
- B. Scabies
- C. Atopic dermatitis (Correct Answer)
- D. Urticaria
Explanation: ***Atopic dermatitis*** - The **chronic itchy dermatitis** starting at age 4 and the presence of **excoriated papules** are consistent with atopic dermatitis, which is one of the most common chronic dermatoses in children. - While atopic dermatitis in school-age children typically affects **flexural areas** (antecubital and popliteal fossae), it can also involve the face and extensor surfaces, particularly as a continuation from earlier infantile patterns. - The **seasonal variation** can occur in atopic dermatitis due to changes in humidity, allergen exposure, and temperature, though the pattern of worsening in rainy season is somewhat atypical. - Given the chronic course and age of onset in early childhood with persistent itchy papules, atopic dermatitis remains the most likely diagnosis among the given options. *Insect bite hypersensitivity* - This would typically present with localized **urticarial papules** or **vesicles** at discrete bite sites, not a diffuse chronic condition lasting 3 years. - While insect bites can be seasonal and cause itchy excoriated papules, the **continuous 3-year duration** with consistent distribution patterns is not typical for bite reactions. *Scabies* - Scabies presents with intense itching (worse at night) and **pathognomonic burrows** in characteristic sites: finger webs, wrists, axillae, belt line, and genitalia. - The **distribution** described (forehead and exposed extremities) is not typical for scabies, nor would it show complete improvement seasonally without treatment. - Untreated scabies would not spontaneously resolve completely in winter. *Urticaria* - Urticaria manifests as **transient, migratory wheals** (hives) that typically resolve within 24 hours, even in chronic cases. - The description of persistent **excoriated papules** over 3 years is incompatible with urticaria, which is characterized by evanescent lesions, not fixed papules.
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