Asteatotic Eczema — MCQs
Which of the following are treatment options for acne vulgaris?
Pruritus is a feature of which of the following conditions?
A 2-year-old child with a history of eczema presents with a red, scaly rash around the mouth and extremities. A dietary history reveals excessive consumption of cow's milk. What nutritional deficiency is most likely?
A 30-year-old male presented with silvery scales on elbow and knee, that bleed on removal. The probable diagnosis is:
Statement 1 - A 59-year-old patient presents with flaccid bullae. Histopathology shows a suprabasal acantholytic split. Statement 2 - The row of tombstones appearance is diagnostic of Pemphigus vulgaris.
A child presented with itchy plaques over the neck, the bilateral popliteal and cubital fossa. What could be the diagnosis?
What condition is likely to be present in the child shown in the image, whose mother has asthma?
A child presents with a rash in the neck folds as shown in the image. The area appears erythematous with satellite lesions and maceration. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A 22-year-old female presents with dry papules in the seborrheic areas, especially in the summer. Her father also has a history of similar lesions. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Spongiosis is a characteristic histological finding in which of the following conditions?
Asteatotic Eczema Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: Which of the following are treatment options for acne vulgaris?
- A. Isotretinoin
- B. All of the options (Correct Answer)
- C. Topical erythromycin
- D. Oral Minocycline
Explanation: ***All of the options*** - All listed options (Isotretinoin, Topical erythromycin, and Oral Minocycline) are well-established and commonly used **treatment options for acne vulgaris**, depending on the severity and type of acne. - The choice of treatment often follows a stepped approach, starting with topical agents for mild to moderate acne and progressing to oral medications like antibiotics or isotretinoin for more severe or resistant cases. *Isotretinoin* - **Isotretinoin** is a powerful oral retinoid primarily used for **severe, recalcitrant nodular acne** that has not responded to other treatments. - It works by reducing sebum production, follicular hyperkeratinization, inflammation, and the growth of *P. acnes*. *Topical erythromycin* - **Topical erythromycin** is an **antibiotic** used to treat mild to moderate inflammatory acne by reducing the growth of *Cutibacterium acnes* (formerly *Propionibacterium acnes*) and decreasing inflammation. - It is often combined with other topical agents like benzoyl peroxide to minimize the development of **antibiotic resistance**. *Oral Minocycline* - **Oral minocycline** is a **tetracycline antibiotic** used for moderate to severe inflammatory acne. - It reduces bacterial populations on the skin and exhibits **anti-inflammatory properties**, making it effective for widespread or deeper lesions.
Question 2: Pruritus is a feature of which of the following conditions?
- A. Pemphigus foliaceous
- B. Pemphigus vulgaris
- C. Bullous pemphigoid (Correct Answer)
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***Bullous pemphigoid*** - **Pruritus**, often severe, is a common and early symptom of bullous pemphigoid, often preceding the appearance of skin lesions. - The disease involves autoantibodies against **hemidesmosomal proteins** (BPAG1, BPAG2), leading to subepidermal blister formation. *Pemphigus foliaceous* - This condition is characterized by **superficial blistering** and erosions, but **pruritus is typically mild or absent**. - Blisters form in the **granular layer of the epidermis** due to autoantibodies against desmoglein 1. *Pemphigus vulgaris* - Patients with pemphigus vulgaris present with **flaccid blisters and erosions**, mainly affecting the skin and mucous membranes, but **pruritus is not a prominent feature**. - The disease involves intraepidermal blistering caused by autoantibodies targeting **desmoglein 3 (and sometimes desmoglein 1)**. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect, as **pruritus is a characteristic symptom of bullous pemphigoid**.
Question 3: A 2-year-old child with a history of eczema presents with a red, scaly rash around the mouth and extremities. A dietary history reveals excessive consumption of cow's milk. What nutritional deficiency is most likely?
- A. Zinc deficiency (Correct Answer)
- B. Iron deficiency
- C. Vitamin D deficiency
- D. Vitamin C deficiency
Explanation: ***Zinc deficiency*** - The combination of **eczema**, perioral and acral **dermatitis** (red, scaly rash around the mouth and extremities), and a diet rich in **cow's milk** in a 2-year-old strongly points to zinc deficiency. - Cow's milk can inhibit **zinc absorption**, and infants with eczema may have increased zinc demands or impaired absorption. *Iron deficiency* - While common in toddlers, especially with high cow's milk intake, **iron deficiency** primarily manifests as **anemia**, pallor, and fatigue, not a characteristic rash. - It does not typically cause the specific **dermatitis** described. *Vitamin D deficiency* - Primarily linked to **rickets** in children, causing bone deformities and growth delays. - Does not present with a **red, scaly rash** around the mouth and extremities. *Vitamin C deficiency* - Leads to **scurvy**, characterized by swollen, bleeding gums, perifollicular hemorrhages, and poor wound healing. - The described **dermatological symptoms** are not typical of vitamin C deficiency.
Question 4: A 30-year-old male presented with silvery scales on elbow and knee, that bleed on removal. The probable diagnosis is:
- A. Secondary syphilis
- B. Psoriasis (Correct Answer)
- C. Pityriasis
- D. Seborrhoeic dermatitis
Explanation: ***Psoriasis*** - The presence of **silvery scales** on the elbows and knees, which **bleed upon removal** (Auspitz sign), is a classic presentation of **plaque psoriasis**. - Psoriasis is a chronic inflammatory skin condition characterized by **accelerated epidermal turnover**. *Secondary syphilis* - Secondary syphilis typically presents with a **generalized maculopapular rash**, which can affect the palms and soles, but it does not usually feature silvery scales or the Auspitz sign. - Other common symptoms of secondary syphilis include **fever, lymphadenopathy, and condyloma lata**. *Pityriasis* - **Pityriasis rosea** is characterized by an oval, fawn-colored, scaly rash, often preceded by a **herald patch**, and usually resolves spontaneously. It does not typically present with silvery scales or bleeding on removal. - **Pityriasis versicolor** is caused by yeast and presents as hypopigmented or hyperpigmented macules with fine scales, commonly on the trunk, not silvery scales on elbows and knees. *Seborrhoeic dermatitis* - Seborrhoeic dermatitis involves greasy, yellowish scales on red skin, typically affecting areas rich in sebaceous glands like the scalp, face (nasolabial folds, eyebrows), and chest. - It does not present with silvery scales or the Auspitz sign, which are specific to psoriasis.
Question 5: Statement 1 - A 59-year-old patient presents with flaccid bullae. Histopathology shows a suprabasal acantholytic split. Statement 2 - The row of tombstones appearance is diagnostic of Pemphigus vulgaris.
- A. Statements 1 & 2 are correct, 2 is not explaining 1 (Correct Answer)
- B. Statements 1 and 2 are correct and 2 is the correct explanation for 1
- C. Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect
- D. Statement 1 is incorrect
Explanation: ***Correct: Statements 1 & 2 are correct, 2 is not explaining 1*** **Analysis of Statement 1:** - A 59-year-old patient with **flaccid bullae** and **suprabasal acantholytic split** on histopathology is the classic presentation of **Pemphigus vulgaris** - The flaccid (easily ruptured) nature of bullae distinguishes it from tense bullae seen in bullous pemphigoid - The suprabasal location of the split (just above the basal layer) with acantholysis (loss of cell-to-cell adhesion) is pathognomonic - **Statement 1 is CORRECT** ✓ **Analysis of Statement 2:** - The **"row of tombstones" or "tombstone appearance"** is indeed a diagnostic histopathological feature of Pemphigus vulgaris - This appearance results from basal keratinocytes remaining attached to the basement membrane while suprabasal cells separate due to acantholysis - The intact basal cells standing upright resemble a row of tombstones - **Statement 2 is CORRECT** ✓ **Does Statement 2 explain Statement 1?** - Statement 2 describes a **histopathological appearance** (tombstone pattern) that is a **consequence** of the suprabasal split - However, it does NOT explain the **underlying cause** of the flaccid bullae or the suprabasal split - The true explanation involves **IgG autoantibodies against desmoglein 3 (and desmoglein 1)**, which attack intercellular adhesion structures (desmosomes), causing **acantholysis** - Therefore, **Statement 2 does NOT explain Statement 1** ✗ *Incorrect: Statement 2 is the correct explanation for Statement 1* - While both statements describe features of Pemphigus vulgaris, the tombstone appearance is a descriptive finding, not an explanatory mechanism *Incorrect: Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect* - Both statements are medically accurate descriptions of Pemphigus vulgaris features *Incorrect: Statement 1 is incorrect* - Statement 1 correctly describes the cardinal clinical and histopathological features of Pemphigus vulgaris
Question 6: A child presented with itchy plaques over the neck, the bilateral popliteal and cubital fossa. What could be the diagnosis?
- A. Dermatitis herpetiformis
- B. Psoriasis
- C. Pemphigus vegetans
- D. Atopic dermatitis (Correct Answer)
Explanation: **Atopic dermatitis** - The presentation of **itchy plaques** in the anatomical locations described (neck, bilateral popliteal fossa, and cubital fossa) is highly characteristic of **atopic dermatitis** in children. - Atopic dermatitis typically involves **flexural surfaces** in older children and adults, and is characterized by **intense pruritus**. *Dermatitis herpetiformis* - This condition presents with **extremely itchy, grouped vesicles and papules**, primarily on extensor surfaces, buttocks, and scalp. - It is strongly associated with **celiac disease** and is unlikely to present as plaques in flexural areas. *Psoriasis* - Psoriasis typically presents with **well-demarcated, erythematous plaques** covered with **silvery scales**, often on extensor surfaces (knees, elbows) and the scalp. - While it can occur in flexural areas (inverse psoriasis), **itching is usually less prominent** than in atopic dermatitis, and the characteristic scaling is usually present. *Pemphigus vegetans* - Pemphigus vegetans is a rare variant of pemphigus, characterized by **verrucous, vegetative lesions** and **bullae**, often in intertriginous areas. - This condition is a chronic autoimmune blistering disease and does not typically present as simple itchy plaques in a child.
Question 7: What condition is likely to be present in the child shown in the image, whose mother has asthma?
- A. Atopic dermatitis (Correct Answer)
- B. SLE
- C. Erythema
- D. TEN
Explanation: ***Atopic dermatitis*** - The image shows an infant with **red, scaly, and irritated skin**, particularly on the cheeks and around the mouth, consistent with the characteristic presentation of **atopic dermatitis (eczema)** in infants. - Atopic dermatitis often occurs in individuals with a family history of **atopy**, which includes conditions like **asthma**, allergic rhinitis, and food allergies; a mother with asthma significantly increases the child's risk. *SLE* - **Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)** is a **chronic autoimmune inflammatory disease** that rarely presents in infancy with such prominent skin findings, especially without other systemic symptoms. - Skin manifestations of SLE typically include a **malar (butterfly) rash** or **discoid lesions**, which are different from the diffuse eczematous rash seen here. *Erythema* - **Erythema** simply refers to **redness of the skin** caused by inflammation or dilation of blood capillaries. - While the infant's skin is erythematous, erythema is a **symptom**, not a specific diagnosis, and does not fully describe the scaly, papular nature of the rash or the underlying condition. *TEN* - **Toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN)** is a **severe, life-threatening skin condition** characterized by widespread epidermal detachment, forming large blisters and skin sloughing, often triggered by medications. - The skin lesions in the image do not show the extensive blistering and denudation characteristic of TEN, and a history of an asthmatic mother is not a risk factor for TEN.
Question 8: A child presents with a rash in the neck folds as shown in the image. The area appears erythematous with satellite lesions and maceration. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Intertrigo (Correct Answer)
- B. Heat rash
- C. Eczema
- D. Impetigo
Explanation: ***Intertrigo*** - The image shows a reddened, inflamed rash in skin folds (neck creases), which is characteristic of **intertrigo**. This condition results from skin-on-skin friction, moisture, and warmth. - The rash appears to have satellite lesions and a somewhat macerated appearance, which would be consistent with secondary fungal (e.g., Candida) or bacterial infection, common complications of intertrigo. *Heat rash* - **Heat rash (miliaria)** typically presents as small, itchy red bumps or clear blisters, often found in areas prone to sweating. - While it can occur in skin folds, the diffuse, raw-looking erythema and presence of potential satellite lesions shown in the image are less typical for simple heat rash. *Eczema* - **Eczema (atopic dermatitis)** is characterized by dry, itchy, inflamed skin, often with scaling, crusting, or lichenification during chronic stages. - While eczema can affect skin folds, the appearance in the image (intense redness, maceration, potential satellite lesions) is more suggestive of an irritant or infectious process like intertrigo rather than typical eczema. *Impetigo* - **Impetigo** is a bacterial skin infection characterized by honey-colored crusts, vesicles, or bullae, typically appearing anywhere on the body, especially around the nose and mouth. - The rash in the image lacks the characteristic honey-colored crusts or vesiculobullous lesions associated with impetigo.
Question 9: A 22-year-old female presents with dry papules in the seborrheic areas, especially in the summer. Her father also has a history of similar lesions. What is the most probable diagnosis?
- A. Pemphigus foliaceus
- B. Keratosis pilaris
- C. Darier's disease (Correct Answer)
- D. Seborrheic dermatitis
Explanation: ### Explanation **Correct Answer: C. Darier’s Disease** **Why it is correct:** Darier’s disease (Keratosis Follicularis) is an autosomal dominant genodermatosis caused by a mutation in the **ATP2A2 gene**, which encodes the **SERCA2 calcium pump**. This defect leads to a loss of cell-to-cell adhesion (acantholysis) and abnormal keratinization. * **Clinical Presentation:** It typically manifests as greasy, crusted, "dirty-looking" **malodorous papules** in a **seborrheic distribution** (chest, back, forehead, and scalp). * **Exacerbating Factors:** A classic hallmark is **photo-exacerbation**; lesions characteristically flare up during the **summer** due to heat, humidity, and UV exposure. The positive family history in this case further supports an inherited condition. **Why the other options are incorrect:** * **A. Pemphigus foliaceus:** While it involves acantholysis and affects seborrheic areas, it presents with superficial blisters and erosions rather than persistent keratotic papules, and it lacks a strong genetic/hereditary pattern. * **B. Keratosis pilaris:** Presents as "goose-flesh" papules on the extensor surfaces of arms and thighs. It is not typically found in seborrheic areas and does not flare specifically with summer heat. * **D. Seborrheic dermatitis:** Though it occurs in the same distribution, it presents as erythematous plaques with greasy yellow scales (dandruff-like) rather than discrete keratotic papules, and it usually improves or remains stable in summer rather than worsening. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Nail Findings:** Pathognomonic **"V-shaped" nicking** at the distal margin and longitudinal red/white bands. * **Mucosal Findings:** "Cobblestone" appearance of the oral mucosa. * **Histopathology:** Look for **"Corps ronds"** (in the stratum spinosum) and **"Grains"** (in the stratum corneum). * **Hand Findings:** Palmar pits and punctate keratosis.
Question 10: Spongiosis is a characteristic histological finding in which of the following conditions?
- A. Acute eczema (Correct Answer)
- B. Lichen planus
- C. Psoriasis
- D. Pemphigus
Explanation: **Explanation:** **Spongiosis** is the hallmark histological feature of **Acute Eczema**. It refers to **intercellular edema** within the epidermis. As fluid accumulates between keratinocytes, the desmosomes (intercellular bridges) become stretched and prominent, giving the epidermis a "sponge-like" appearance. If the fluid accumulation is severe, it leads to the formation of intraepidermal vesicles. **Analysis of Options:** * **A. Acute Eczema (Correct):** Spongiosis is the defining pathological process in all forms of eczematous dermatitis (atopic, contact, seborrheic). In the acute stage, spongiosis is maximal, often leading to clinical weeping and crusting. * **B. Lichen Planus:** Characterized by **interface dermatitis**. Key findings include "saw-tooth" rete ridges, basal cell degeneration (liquefaction necrosis), and Civatte bodies (apoptotic keratinocytes). * **C. Psoriasis:** Characterized by **regular acanthosis** (test-tube-like elongation of rete ridges), parakeratosis, Munro’s microabscesses (neutrophils in the stratum corneum), and Kogoj’s pustules. * **D. Pemphigus:** Characterized by **Acantholysis** (loss of intercellular connections leading to detached, rounded keratinocytes), not spongiosis. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Spongiotic Dermatitis** is a synonym for Eczema. * **Acanthosis** (thickening of the stratum spinosum) is seen in *Chronic* Eczema (Lichen Simplex Chronicus). * **Acantholysis vs. Spongiosis:** Acantholysis is the *primary failure* of adhesions (Pemphigus); Spongiosis is the *mechanical stretching* of adhesions due to fluid (Eczema). * **Munro’s Microabscess** is a classic "spotter" for Psoriasis on pathology slides.
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