Hair Removal Techniques — MCQs
What phase of hair growth is primarily responsible for the length of eyebrows?
Wood's lamp is not used for diagnosing:
Which anatomical structure is most commonly the target of incisions during major gynecological surgical procedures?
Enucleation is done for - a) Retinoblastoma b) Malignant melanoma c) Glaucoma d) Phthisis bulbi
Contraindicated in Androgenic Alopecia –
Which of the following is not typically performed during septoplasty?
Which of the following are true about epidermal cyst? 1. It is lined by stratified squamous epithelium. 2. It is derived from hair follicle. 3. It contains keratin debris. 4. It is not fixed to the skin.
Cutis marmorata occurs due to exposure to –
A cosmetic dermatologist plans to introduce microneedling radiofrequency for acne scars. Which parameter combination would provide optimal collagen remodeling with minimal risk of thermal injury in Fitzpatrick type IV skin?
A 50-year-old man with Fitzpatrick skin type V desires treatment for melasma. He was previously treated with triple combination cream with partial response. What would be the most evidence-based next step considering safety and efficacy?
Hair Removal Techniques Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: What phase of hair growth is primarily responsible for the length of eyebrows?
- A. Anagen phase (Correct Answer)
- B. Telogen phase
- C. Catagen phase
- D. Exogen phase
Explanation: ***Anagen phase*** - The **anagen phase** is the **active growth phase** where hair follicles rapidly produce hair cells, determining the maximum length hair can achieve. - Eyebrows have a much **shorter anagen phase** (months) compared to scalp hair (years), which explains why they don't grow very long. *Telogen phase* - The **telogen phase** is the **resting phase** where the hair follicle is dormant and no further growth occurs. - Hair in this phase is mature and will eventually shed, but this phase does not contribute to hair length. *Catagen phase* - The **catagen phase** is a **transitional phase** where hair growth stops, and the follicle shrinks in preparation for the resting phase. - This phase marks the end of active growth, so it does not contribute to increasing hair length. *Exogen phase* - The **exogen phase** is a sub-phase of telogen, where **hair shedding** occurs. - This phase is about the release of old hair, not the production or increase in length of new hair.
Question 2: Wood's lamp is not used for diagnosing:
- A. Lichen planus (Correct Answer)
- B. Pityriasis versicolor
- C. Porphyria
- D. Vitiligo
Explanation: ***Lichen planus*** - **Wood's lamp** is generally not used for diagnosing **lichen planus** as the lesions typically do not fluoresce. - Diagnosis of lichen planus relies on its characteristic **violaceous, polygonal, pruritic papules and plaques** and often confirmed by **biopsy**. *Pityriasis versicolor* - **Wood's lamp** is useful for **pityriasis versicolor**, causing it to fluoresce a **yellowish-green or coppery-orange** color due to metabolic byproducts of *Malassezia* fungi. - This characteristic fluorescence helps in differentiating lesions from other skin conditions and in identifying subclinical involvement. *Porphyria* - **Wood's lamp** can be used to detect **reddish-pink fluorescence of urine** or skin in patients with **porphyria cutanea tarda** due to the accumulation of porphyrins. - This fluorescence is a key diagnostic indicator in certain types of **porphyria**, particularly those affecting the skin. *Vitiligo* - **Wood's lamp** enhances the contrast between depigmented and normally pigmented skin, making **vitiligo** lesions appear **bright bluish-white** due to the absence of melanin. - It is particularly useful for detecting subtle or small lesions of **vitiligo**, especially in individuals with lighter skin tones.
Question 3: Which anatomical structure is most commonly the target of incisions during major gynecological surgical procedures?
- A. Ovary
- B. Cervix
- C. Fallopian tube
- D. Uterus (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Uterus*** - The **uterus** is the primary anatomical target for many major gynecological procedures, such as **hysterectomy** (removal of the uterus) and **myomectomy** (removal of fibroids from the uterus). - These are among the most commonly performed major gynecological surgeries, making the uterus the most frequent target for incisions in gynecological practice. - In obstetric procedures, the uterus is also incised during **cesarean sections**, highlighting its central role in both obstetric and gynecologic surgery. *Ovary* - While ovaries are involved in gynecological surgery (e.g., **oophorectomy**, cystectomy), they are not as frequently the *primary* target for incisions as the uterus in the context of major procedures. - Ovarian surgeries are often performed for **cysts**, **tumors**, or in conjunction with hysterectomy, but are less common than uterine procedures. - Many ovarian procedures can be managed laparoscopically without major incisions. *Cervix* - The **cervix** is incised in procedures like **trachelectomy** for cervical cancer or during specific cervical cerclage procedures, but these are less frequent compared to surgeries involving the uterine body itself. - Many cervical procedures are considered minor (e.g., LEEP, cone biopsy) or are part of a larger uterine surgery. *Fallopian tube* - The **fallopian tubes** are primarily targeted for procedures like **salpingectomy** (removal of the tube, often for ectopic pregnancy or sterilization) or salpingostomy. - While significant, these procedures are generally less common than those involving the uterus and overall less frequently associated with major incisions compared to uterine procedures.
Question 4: Enucleation is done for - a) Retinoblastoma b) Malignant melanoma c) Glaucoma d) Phthisis bulbi
- A. abd (Correct Answer)
- B. abc
- C. acd
- D. bcd
- E. ab
Explanation: ***abd*** - **Enucleation** (surgical removal of the entire eyeball) is indicated for **retinoblastoma** and **malignant melanoma** due to the malignant nature of these conditions and the risk of metastasis. - It is also performed in cases of severe **phthisis bulbi**, where the eye is shrunken, non-functional, and often painful, to alleviate symptoms and for cosmetic reasons. *abc* - This option incorrectly includes **glaucoma** as a primary indication for enucleation. - While severe, painful, and blind glaucomatous eyes might eventually undergo enucleation, it is not the initial or typical treatment; many other medical and surgical options are explored first. *acd* - This option incorrectly includes **glaucoma** for the aforementioned reasons and omits **malignant melanoma**. - **Malignant melanoma** of the choroid is a significant indication for enucleation, especially in larger tumors, due to its metastatic potential. *bcd* - This option incorrectly includes **glaucoma** and omits **retinoblastoma**. - **Retinoblastoma** is a life-threatening pediatric malignancy, and prompt enucleation is often crucial for treatment and survival.
Question 5: Contraindicated in Androgenic Alopecia –
- A. Minoxidil
- B. Testosterone (Correct Answer)
- C. Cyproterone
- D. Finasteride
Explanation: ***Testosterone*** - Androgenic alopecia, or **male-pattern baldness**, is driven by **androgens**, particularly **dihydrotestosterone (DHT)**, which is derived from testosterone. - Administering exogenous **testosterone** would exacerbate hair loss in individuals with androgenic alopecia by increasing the substrate available for conversion to DHT. *Minoxidil* - **Minoxidil** is a vasodilator that is commonly used topically to treat androgenic alopecia. - It works by **prolonging the anagen phase** of hair growth and increasing follicular size, making it a treatment option, not a contraindication. *Cyproterone* - **Cyproterone** is an **anti-androgen** that blocks androgen receptors and inhibits androgen synthesis. - It is used in some cases of severe androgenic alopecia in women, making it a treatment, not a contraindication. *Finasteride* - **Finasteride** is a **5-alpha-reductase inhibitor** that blocks the conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone (DHT). - By reducing DHT levels, it slows or reverses hair loss in androgenic alopecia, making it a common treatment and not a contraindication.
Question 6: Which of the following is not typically performed during septoplasty?
- A. Surgical removal of nasal polyps (Correct Answer)
- B. Throat pack
- C. Nasal packing at the end of surgery
- D. Submucosal resection of deviated cartilage
Explanation: ***Surgical removal of nasal polyps*** - Septoplasty is a surgical procedure specifically designed to correct a **deviated nasal septum** by repositioning or removing obstructing cartilage and bone. - **Nasal polyps** arise from the mucosa of the nasal cavity or sinuses and require a separate procedure, typically **functional endoscopic sinus surgery (FESS)** or polypectomy. - While septoplasty and polypectomy may sometimes be performed together, polyp removal is **not part of standard septoplasty**. *Submucosal resection of deviated cartilage* - This is the **core component of septoplasty** - removing or repositioning deviated septal cartilage while preserving the mucosal lining. - The submucosal approach maintains structural support while correcting the deviation. *Throat pack* - A **throat pack** is routinely placed during septoplasty to **prevent aspiration of blood and secretions** into the pharynx and esophagus. - It protects the airway and is removed at the end of the procedure. *Nasal packing at the end of surgery* - **Nasal packing** (splints or packs) is commonly placed after septoplasty to **control bleeding, support the septum, and prevent hematoma formation**. - Modern techniques may use absorbable or non-absorbable packing materials.
Question 7: Which of the following are true about epidermal cyst? 1. It is lined by stratified squamous epithelium. 2. It is derived from hair follicle. 3. It contains keratin debris. 4. It is not fixed to the skin.
- A. 1, 3 and 4
- B. 1, 2 and 4
- C. 2, 3 and 4
- D. 1, 2 and 3 (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***1, 2 and 3*** - An **epidermal cyst** is indeed derived from the **infundibulum of a hair follicle**. - It is lined by **stratified squamous epithelium** and contains **keratin debris**, giving it a cheesy consistency. *1, 3 and 4* - While an epidermal cyst is lined by stratified squamous epithelium and contains keratin, it is often **fixed to the skin** due to its attachment to the follicular opening, making statement 4 incorrect. - The cyst's connection to the surface epithelium is a distinguishing feature, preventing it from being freely mobile. *1, 2 and 4* - Although statements 1 and 2 are true, statement 4, claiming it is not fixed to the skin, is generally **incorrect**. - Epidermal cysts typically have a punctum or small opening to the skin surface, indicating its attachment. *2, 3 and 4* - Statements 2 and 3 are correct, but statement 4, suggesting it is not fixed, is **false**. - The presence of a **central punctum**, which is common in epidermal cysts, signifies its epidermal origin and attachment to the skin.
Question 8: Cutis marmorata occurs due to exposure to –
- A. Cold temperature (Correct Answer)
- B. Dust
- C. Hot temperature
- D. Humidity
Explanation: ***Cold temperature*** - **Cutis marmorata** is a physiological response to **cold temperatures**, characterized by a mottled, reticulated vascular pattern on the skin. - This occurs due to **vasoconstriction** of the small arteries and arterioles, alongside **vasodilation** of the venules, creating the characteristic marbled appearance. *Dust* - Exposure to **dust** typically causes **irritation**, allergic reactions, or respiratory issues, such as **dermatitis**, **contact urticaria**, or **asthma**. - It does not directly lead to the characteristic vascular changes seen in cutis marmorata. *Hot temperature* - **Hot temperatures** generally cause **vasodilation** in the skin to facilitate **heat dissipation**, leading to redness and warmth. - This is the opposite physiological response to cutis marmorata, which involves vasoconstriction. *Humidity* - **Humidity** primarily affects **skin hydration** and the rate of perspiration, potentially exacerbating certain skin conditions like **eczema** or **fungal infections**. - High or low humidity does not directly induce the vascular changes that result in cutis marmorata.
Question 9: A cosmetic dermatologist plans to introduce microneedling radiofrequency for acne scars. Which parameter combination would provide optimal collagen remodeling with minimal risk of thermal injury in Fitzpatrick type IV skin?
- A. Needle depth 3.5 mm, temperature 70°C, pulse duration 1000 ms
- B. Needle depth 4 mm, temperature 75°C, pulse duration 500 ms
- C. Needle depth 1.5-2 mm, temperature 60-65°C, pulse duration 100-200 ms (Correct Answer)
- D. Needle depth 0.5 mm, temperature 55°C, pulse duration 50 ms
Explanation: ***Needle depth 1.5-2 mm, temperature 60-65°C, pulse duration 100-200 ms*** - Optimal **collagen remodeling** occurs when the tissue is heated to **60-65°C**, which triggers the denaturation of proteins and the subsequent production of new collagen and elastin. - A depth of **1.5-2 mm** specifically targets the **papillary and mid-reticular dermis**, while the shorter pulse duration minimizes **Post-Inflammatory Hyperpigmentation (PIH)** in **Fitzpatrick type IV** skin. *Needle depth 3.5 mm, temperature 70°C, pulse duration 1000 ms* - Temperatures reaching **70°C** and very high pulse durations significantly increase the risk of **thermal necrosis** and bulk heating injuries. - A depth of **3.5 mm** is often too deep for standard facial acne scarring and may damage underlying **subcutaneous structures** or cause permanent scarring. *Needle depth 4 mm, temperature 75°C, pulse duration 500 ms* - High temperatures of **75°C** cause excessive tissue coagulation, which can lead to localized **skin burns** and prolonged downtime. - Excessive needle depth combined with high energy delivery poses a severe risk for **atrophic scarring** and pigmentary changes in darker skin types. *Needle depth 0.5 mm, temperature 55°C, pulse duration 50 ms* - A depth of **0.5 mm** is generally insufficient to reach the collagen-rich dermis required for significant improvement of **depressed acne scars**. - A temperature of **55°C** is below the threshold for effective **collagen denaturation**, resulting in suboptimal clinical outcomes for scar revision.
Question 10: A 50-year-old man with Fitzpatrick skin type V desires treatment for melasma. He was previously treated with triple combination cream with partial response. What would be the most evidence-based next step considering safety and efficacy?
- A. Fractional CO2 laser resurfacing
- B. Q-switched Nd:YAG laser 1064 nm with low fluence (Correct Answer)
- C. Intense pulsed light therapy
- D. TCA 35% chemical peel
Explanation: ***Q-switched Nd:YAG laser 1064 nm with low fluence*** - This approach, often called **laser toning**, uses a long wavelength that spares the epidermis, making it the safest laser option for **Fitzpatrick skin type V** to avoid **post-inflammatory hyperpigmentation (PIH)**. - It is a clinically sound next step for **recalcitrant melasma** that has only partially responded to first-line therapies like **triple combination cream**. *Fractional CO2 laser resurfacing* - This is an **ablative** treatment that causes significant thermal damage, which carries an unacceptably high risk of **PIH** and scarring in darker skin types. - While effective for skin remodeling, it is generally contraindicated for treating melasma in **type V skin** due to the likelihood of worsening the pigmentation. *Intense pulsed light therapy* - **IPL** uses a broad spectrum of light which is poorly targeted for melasma in dark-skinned individuals and is frequently associated with **rebound hyperpigmentation**. - The melanin in the surrounding **darker skin (Type V)** competes for the energy, leading to a high risk of **thermal burns** and uneven results. *TCA 35% chemical peel* - A 35% concentration of **Trichloroacetic acid (TCA)** is considered a **medium-depth peel**, which is generally too aggressive for patients with Fitzpatrick skin type V. - Medium-depth peels in dark skin types are likely to cause **persistent dyschromia** or permanent **hypopigmentation**, whereas superficial peels (like glycolic or salicylic acid) are safer.
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