Digital Disease Surveillance — MCQs
What is the first step an epidemiologist takes in an epidemic investigation?
All of the following conditions are immediate priorities in the WHO's "Vision -2020: The Right to sight" except:
Which of the following diseases is not covered under the Integrated Disease Surveillance Project (IDSP)?
A district shows API of 4.2, ABER 11%, and SPR 3.1%. What is the malaria surveillance status?
Many patients with unexplained rash and fever were reported from a village close to the Primary Health Centre (PHC). What is the first step in initiating the investigation of such an epidemic?
Which of the following conditions is primarily treated by sympathectomy?
The web-based IT system for case-based surveillance under National Tuberculosis Elimination Programme (NTEP, formerly RNTCP) is
The National Health Policy 2002 target to be achieved by the year 2010 is :
On republic day, a camp was organized and people were screened for Hypertension by checking BP and for diabetes by checking their BMI and Blood sugar level, which level of prevention is this?
Consider the following management methods/techniques : 1. System analysis 2. Organizational design 3. Personnel management 4. Information systems Which of the above methods/techniques are based on behavioural sciences?
Digital Disease Surveillance Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: What is the first step an epidemiologist takes in an epidemic investigation?
- A. Confirm the diagnosis (Correct Answer)
- B. Identify the prone people
- C. Identify the causative factors
- D. Identify the cases
Explanation: ***Confirm the diagnosis*** - The initial and most crucial step is to **confirm the diagnosis** of the disease in question to ensure that the reported cases are indeed suffering from the same condition. - This step helps to avoid misclassification and ensures the investigation focuses on a specific, confirmed health problem. *Identify the cases* - While essential, **identifying cases** usually follows initial diagnostic confirmation, as you need a clear case definition based on a confirmed diagnosis to correctly identify who is a case. - This involves defining who is considered a case based on symptoms, laboratory results, and epidemiological links. *Identify the prone people* - **Identifying prone people** refers to determining the population at risk, which is a subsequent step after understanding the confirmed disease and its initial pattern. - This step typically falls under characterizing the distribution of the disease (person, place, time) in the investigation. *Identify the causative factors* - **Identifying causative factors** is a later stage in the investigation, often involving analytical studies to test hypotheses, which can only occur effectively once the diagnosis is confirmed and cases are clearly defined and counted. - This step aims to understand *why* the epidemic is occurring, after establishing *what* is occurring.
Question 2: All of the following conditions are immediate priorities in the WHO's "Vision -2020: The Right to sight" except:
- A. Cataract
- B. Epidemic conjunctivitis (Correct Answer)
- C. Onchocerciasis
- D. Trachoma
Explanation: ***Epidemic conjunctivitis*** - While **epidemic conjunctivitis** can cause significant discomfort and temporary vision impairment, it is generally **self-limiting** and rarely leads to permanent blindness. - It was not identified as one of the top five global causes of avoidable blindness targeted by the Vision 2020 initiative. *Cataract* - **Cataract** is the **leading cause of blindness** globally, accounting for approximately half of all cases. - It is a highly treatable condition through surgery, making it a critical priority for Vision 2020. *Onchocerciasis* - Also known as **river blindness**, onchocerciasis is a parasitic disease that causes severe visual impairment and blindness. - It is a significant public health problem in several regions, particularly in Africa, and was a key focus of Vision 2020 due to its widespread impact and the availability of preventive chemotherapy. *Trachoma* - **Trachoma** is the **leading infectious cause of blindness** worldwide, caused by *Chlamydia trachomatis*. - Given its preventable and treatable nature, and its prevalence in many impoverished areas, it was designated as one of the priority diseases under Vision 2020.
Question 3: Which of the following diseases is not covered under the Integrated Disease Surveillance Project (IDSP)?
- A. Tuberculosis
- B. Cholera
- C. Herpes zoster (Correct Answer)
- D. Meningococcal disease
Explanation: ***Herpes zoster*** - **Herpes zoster** (shingles) is not included in the Integrated Disease Surveillance Project (IDSP) as it is neither an epidemic-prone disease nor a notifiable disease under the program. - IDSP focuses on diseases with significant public health impact, epidemic potential, or those requiring immediate public health response. - While herpes zoster can cause morbidity in immunocompromised individuals, it does not pose a widespread public health threat requiring national surveillance. *Tuberculosis* - **Tuberculosis (TB)** is explicitly covered under IDSP as a major notifiable disease due to its high burden in India and significant public health importance. - TB surveillance under IDSP helps monitor disease trends, detect outbreaks, and evaluate the effectiveness of the National Tuberculosis Elimination Programme. - Regular reporting and surveillance are essential for achieving TB elimination goals. *Cholera* - **Cholera** is a priority disease under IDSP as an epidemic-prone disease with potential for rapid outbreaks and high mortality if untreated. - It is part of the core surveillance list due to its ability to cause severe dehydration and waterborne epidemics. - Early detection through IDSP enables timely implementation of control measures including safe water supply and oral rehydration therapy. *Meningococcal disease* - **Meningococcal disease** (acute bacterial meningitis) is covered under IDSP due to its high case fatality rate, epidemic potential, and need for urgent public health response. - Surveillance is critical for early outbreak detection and implementation of preventive measures such as mass vaccination and chemoprophylaxis. - Close monitoring helps identify circulating serotypes and guide vaccination strategies.
Question 4: A district shows API of 4.2, ABER 11%, and SPR 3.1%. What is the malaria surveillance status?
- A. Poor surveillance
- B. Cannot be determined
- C. Adequate surveillance (Correct Answer)
- D. Optimal surveillance
Explanation: ***Adequate surveillance*** - An **ABER of 11%** meets the WHO minimum threshold of **≥10%** for adequate malaria surveillance, indicating that blood examination is occurring at an acceptable level. - An **API of 4.2** per 1000 population indicates moderate malaria transmission with reasonable case detection. - An **SPR of 3.1%** is within the acceptable range (1-5%), suggesting balanced testing practices—not excessively high (which would indicate poor case detection) or extremely low (though lower would be better). - Together, these metrics indicate a **functioning surveillance system** that meets basic adequacy criteria but has room for optimization. *Poor surveillance* - This would be characterized by **ABER <10%** (indicating inadequate blood examination coverage), very **high SPR >10%** (suggesting only highly symptomatic cases are tested), or extremely low reporting rates. - The given values (API 4.2, ABER 11%, SPR 3.1%) do not align with poor surveillance indicators. *Cannot be determined* - The three epidemiological indicators provided (API, ABER, SPR) are **standard WHO metrics** specifically designed to assess malaria surveillance effectiveness. - These metrics provide **sufficient information** to make a determination about surveillance status. *Optimal surveillance* - Optimal surveillance would require **ABER ≥20-50%** (much higher blood examination coverage), **SPR <2%** (indicating highly sensitive early case detection), and comprehensive reporting systems. - While the current ABER of 11% is adequate, it is just above the minimum threshold and would need substantial improvement to reach optimal levels.
Question 5: Many patients with unexplained rash and fever were reported from a village close to the Primary Health Centre (PHC). What is the first step in initiating the investigation of such an epidemic?
- A. Defining the population at risk
- B. Confirm existence of epidemic (Correct Answer)
- C. Rapid search for all cases
- D. Verification of diagnosis
Explanation: ***Confirm existence of epidemic*** - The initial and crucial step in any epidemiological investigation is to **verify if a true epidemic exists**, which involves comparing current disease incidence with expected levels. - This step helps to differentiate between a real outbreak and a normal fluctuation in disease occurrence or an artifact of increased reporting. *Defining the population at risk* - While important, identifying the **population at risk** comes after confirming an epidemic and is essential for calculating attack rates and understanding disease spread. - This step helps in understanding who might be exposed or susceptible, allowing for targeted interventions. *Rapid search for all cases* - A **rapid search for all cases** is a critical component of case finding once an epidemic has been confirmed and a case definition established. - This step helps in understanding the magnitude of the outbreak and identifying patterns of transmission. *Verification of diagnosis* - **Verification of diagnosis** is crucial for ensuring that reported cases meet the established case definition and to exclude other conditions. - This process helps to ensure the accuracy of data collected during the investigation and precedes further epidemiological analysis.
Question 6: Which of the following conditions is primarily treated by sympathectomy?
- A. Buerger's disease
- B. Acrocyanosis
- C. Hyperhidrosis (Correct Answer)
- D. Raynaud's disease
Explanation: ***Hyperhidrosis*** - **Sympathectomy** (especially thoracic sympathectomy) is a definitive treatment for severe, localized **hyperhidrosis** (excessive sweating) that has not responded to conservative therapies. - The procedure aims to interrupt the sympathetic nerves responsible for stimulating sweat glands, commonly in the palms, soles, or axillae. *Buerger's disease* - While **sympathectomy** was historically used, its efficacy in **Buerger's disease** (thromboangiitis obliterans) is questionable and largely replaced by smoking cessation and other treatments for limb salvage. - The primary issue is **inflammation** and **thrombosis** of small and medium-sized arteries and veins, not primarily sympathetic overactivity. *Acrocyanosis* - **Acrocyanosis** is a benign condition characterized by persistent, painless, blue discoloration of the extremities due to vasospasm of small skin arteries and arterioles. - Treatment is generally reassurance and avoidance of cold, and **sympathectomy** is rarely, if ever, indicated or effective due to the non-progressive and cosmetic nature of the condition. *Raynaud's disease* - **Raynaud's disease** is a vasospastic disorder, but **sympathectomy** is usually reserved for severe cases with impending tissue loss or critical ischemia that fail medical management. - Medical management with calcium channel blockers is the primary treatment, as the condition involves episodic vasospasm of digital arteries.
Question 7: The web-based IT system for case-based surveillance under National Tuberculosis Elimination Programme (NTEP, formerly RNTCP) is
- A. NIKSHAY (Correct Answer)
- B. E-TB Tracker
- C. SURAKSHA
- D. SAFETY-NET
Explanation: ***NIKSHAY*** - **NIKSHAY** is the official web-based IT system used by the National Tuberculosis Elimination Programme (NTEP, formerly RNTCP) in India for **case-based surveillance** and monitoring of TB cases. - Launched in 2012, it facilitates **real-time data entry**, tracking of patient outcomes, drug logistics management, and program monitoring, significantly improving the efficiency of TB control efforts. - It enables **notification of all TB cases**, both from public and private sectors, ensuring comprehensive surveillance. *E-TB Tracker* - **E-TB Tracker** is not the designated IT system for TB surveillance under NTEP in India. - This term may refer to other electronic tracking systems used in different contexts, but NIKSHAY remains the official platform for India's TB programme. *SURAKSHA* - **SURAKSHA** means safety or protection in Hindi and is not associated with any specific web-based IT system for TB surveillance under NTEP. - This is not a recognized TB surveillance platform in the Indian context. *SAFETY-NET* - **SAFETY-NET** is a generic term referring to social protection programs or health support systems. - There is no specific NTEP initiative for TB surveillance identified by this name.
Question 8: The National Health Policy 2002 target to be achieved by the year 2010 is :
- A. Reduce infant mortality rate 30/1000 live births (Correct Answer)
- B. Elimination of leprosy
- C. Eradication of polio
- D. Achieve zero level growth of HIV/AIDS
Explanation: ***Reduce infant mortality rate 30/1000 live births*** - The **National Health Policy 2002** specifically set the target of reducing **Infant Mortality Rate (IMR) to 30 per 1000 live births by the year 2010**. - This was one of the key quantifiable goals with a clear timeline aligned with the question's timeframe. - The policy document explicitly mentioned this as a priority target for improving maternal and child health outcomes in India. *Eradication of polio* - While **polio eradication** was indeed a major objective of the National Health Policy 2002, the target year was **2005, not 2010**. - India achieved polio-free status in 2014 when WHO certified the country as polio-free. - This makes it incorrect for the specific year 2010 mentioned in the question. *Elimination of leprosy* - The **elimination of leprosy** (defined as prevalence of less than 1 case per 10,000 population) was targeted for **2005, not 2010**. - India achieved national level elimination in December 2005, though some districts continued to have higher prevalence. - This target predates the 2010 timeline asked in the question. *Achieve zero level growth of HIV/AIDS* - The National Health Policy 2002 aimed to **halt and reverse the HIV/AIDS epidemic** by 2007. - The specific phrase "zero level growth" and the year 2010 do not accurately reflect the policy's stated objectives. - The focus was on stabilizing prevalence and preventing new infections through NACP (National AIDS Control Programme).
Question 9: On republic day, a camp was organized and people were screened for Hypertension by checking BP and for diabetes by checking their BMI and Blood sugar level, which level of prevention is this?
- A. Secondary (Correct Answer)
- B. Tertiary
- C. Primary
- D. Primordial
Explanation: ***Secondary*** - This level of prevention focuses on **early detection** and prompt treatment of a disease to halt or slow its progression. - **Screening for hypertension and diabetes** through BP checks, BMI, and blood sugar levels aims to identify these conditions in their early stages before overt symptoms appear. *Tertiary* - This level of prevention involves measures to **reduce the impact** of an established disease, prevent complications, and improve quality of life. - Examples include rehabilitation programs or medications for long-term disease management, which are not described in the scenario. *Primary* - This level of prevention aims to **prevent a disease from occurring** in the first place, typically by addressing risk factors. - Examples include vaccination, health education on healthy eating, or promoting physical activity to prevent the development of hypertension or diabetes. *Primordial* - This is the **earliest level of prevention**, targeting the underlying social, environmental, and economic conditions that contribute to risk factors for disease. - It involves interventions to *prevent the emergence of risk factors* in populations, such as broad public health policies or community-wide initiatives.
Question 10: Consider the following management methods/techniques : 1. System analysis 2. Organizational design 3. Personnel management 4. Information systems Which of the above methods/techniques are based on behavioural sciences?
- A. 1, 2 and 3 (Correct Answer)
- B. 1, 2 and 4
- C. 2, 3 and 4
- D. 1, 3 and 4
Explanation: ***1, 2 and 3*** - **System analysis** in management context involves understanding human behavior within organizational systems, analyzing workflows, and interpersonal dynamics to optimize processes and structures. When applied to organizational management, it incorporates behavioral principles. - **Organizational design** is fundamentally rooted in behavioral sciences, focusing on structuring roles, relationships, and hierarchies to enhance human interaction, motivation, and performance based on principles from organizational psychology and sociology. - **Personnel management** directly deals with human resource management, applying behavioral science principles including motivation theory, leadership styles, group dynamics, employee relations, and organizational behavior. *1, 2 and 4* - This option incorrectly includes **information systems**, which are primarily technology-focused and rooted in computer science and data management rather than behavioral sciences. - While information systems may influence organizational behavior, their core methodologies are not based on behavioral science principles. *2, 3 and 4* - This option incorrectly includes **information systems** while excluding **system analysis**. - Information systems are technology-based rather than behavioral science-based. *1, 3 and 4* - This option incorrectly includes **information systems**, which are technology-focused rather than behavioral science-based. - It also excludes **organizational design**, which is a fundamental behavioral science application in management, focusing on how structure affects human behavior and organizational effectiveness.
Want unlimited practice?
Get full access to all questions, explanations, and performance tracking.
Start For Free