Perioperative Management of Sleep Apnea — MCQs
A 56-year-old woman with diabetes, hypertension, and hyperlipidemia is found to have an A1C of 11 despite her best attempts at diet and faithfully taking her metformin and glyburide. She reports severe fatigue and sleepiness in the daytime, which has limited her ability to exercise. On examination, she is obese, has a full appearing posterior pharynx, clear lungs, a normal heart examination, and trace bilateral edema. Her TSH is 2.0 m/L (normal). Before adding another oral agent or switching to insulin, what is the best next step?
The Children's Hospital of Eastern Ontario Pain Scale (CHEOPS) for rating postoperative pain in children under one year excludes all of the following, EXCEPT:
Patient with BMI 40 presents for emergency surgery. All are correct about airway management EXCEPT:
What does a pulse oximeter primarily measure?
Which one of the following is not a component of THORACOSCORE?
A 40–year female has to undergo incisional hernia surgery under general anaesthesia. She complains of awareness during her past cesarean section. Which of the following monitoring techniques can be used to prevent such awareness ?
On doing laparoscopic cholecystectomy patient developed wheezing. Which of the following is used in the treatment?
Depth of anaesthesia can be best assessed by
Which of the following is not seen in scoline apnea?
The image given below shows neuromuscular monitoring of the patient after anesthesia. What is the most commonly used nerve for monitoring?
Perioperative Management of Sleep Apnea Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: A 56-year-old woman with diabetes, hypertension, and hyperlipidemia is found to have an A1C of 11 despite her best attempts at diet and faithfully taking her metformin and glyburide. She reports severe fatigue and sleepiness in the daytime, which has limited her ability to exercise. On examination, she is obese, has a full appearing posterior pharynx, clear lungs, a normal heart examination, and trace bilateral edema. Her TSH is 2.0 m/L (normal). Before adding another oral agent or switching to insulin, what is the best next step?
- A. Arrange for a sleep study to check the patient for obstructive sleep apnea. (Correct Answer)
- B. Consider prescribing a sleep aid to help her sleep better and increase her energy to exercise during the day.
- C. Assess for possible depression as a contributor to her fatigue.
- D. Educate the patient on sleep hygiene as a supportive measure to improve her overall well-being.
Explanation: A 56-year-old woman with diabetes, hypertension, and hyperlipidemia is found to have an A1C of 11 despite her best attempts at diet and faithfully taking her metformin and glyburide. She reports severe fatigue and sleepiness in the daytime, which has limited her ability to exercise. On examination, she is obese, has a full appearing posterior pharynx, clear lungs, a normal heart examination, and trace bilateral edema. Her TSH is 2.0 m/L (normal). Before adding another oral agent or switching to insulin, what is the best next step? ***Arrange for a sleep study to check the patient for obstructive sleep apnea.*** - The patient's presentation with **severe fatigue**, **daytime sleepiness**, **obesity**, and a **full-appearing posterior pharynx** are highly suggestive of **obstructive sleep apnea (OSA)** [1]. - OSA can lead to **insulin resistance** and worsen glycemic control, making it a critical factor to address before escalating diabetes medications. *Consider prescribing a sleep aid to help her sleep better and increase her energy to exercise during the day.* - Prescribing a sleep aid without investigating the cause of her sleep disturbances could mask a serious underlying condition like **OSA**, which requires specific treatment [1]. - While improved sleep might transiently boost energy, it would not address the **pathophysiology of OSA** or its impact on diabetes. *Assess for possible depression as a contributor to her fatigue.* - While **depression** can cause fatigue and impact exercise, her physical findings (obesity, full pharynx) and the specific symptom of **daytime sleepiness** point more strongly towards a primary sleep disorder like OSA [1]. - A definitive diagnosis of OSA would better explain the combination of her symptoms and poor glycemic control. *Educate the patient on sleep hygiene as a supportive measure to improve her overall well-being.* - **Sleep hygiene** is important for overall health, but it is unlikely to resolve severe daytime sleepiness and fatigue caused by a mechanical obstruction like in **OSA** [1]. - This intervention would be insufficient to address the potential link between her sleep disorder and uncontrolled diabetes.
Question 2: The Children's Hospital of Eastern Ontario Pain Scale (CHEOPS) for rating postoperative pain in children under one year excludes all of the following, EXCEPT:
- A. Oxygen saturation
- B. Torso
- C. Verbal response (Correct Answer)
- D. Cry
Explanation: ***Verbal response*** - The Children's Hospital of Eastern Ontario Pain Scale (CHEOPS) is designed for children **under one year of age**, who are typically pre-verbal. - While verbal complaints are not assessed, a child's **verbal response** (e.g., moaning, crying, or not making sounds at all) in relation to pain is a component of the scale, contributing to the interpretation of their comfort level. *Oxygen saturation* - **Physiological parameters** like oxygen saturation are typically not part of behavioral pain scales like CHEOPS, which focus on observable behaviors. - While low oxygen saturation can indicate distress, it is not a direct measure of pain for this scale. *Torso* - The CHEOPS scale assesses **pain-related behaviors** of extremities (e.g., legs, arms) and facial expressions, but does not specifically include observations of the "torso" as a separate category. - Behaviors like stiffening or arching of the torso might be implicitly considered under overall body tension, but it’s not a distinct domain. *Cry* - The **quality and intensity of crying** is a primary behavioral indicator of pain in pre-verbal infants and is a significant component of many pediatric pain scales, including CHEOPS. - A child's cry, along with other behaviors, helps differentiate between various levels of discomfort or pain.
Question 3: Patient with BMI 40 presents for emergency surgery. All are correct about airway management EXCEPT:
- A. Extended ramping
- B. Avoid cricoid pressure (Correct Answer)
- C. Rapid sequence induction
- D. Avoid preoxygenation
Explanation: ***Avoid cricoid pressure*** - While **cricoid pressure** (Sellick's maneuver) is used to prevent **aspiration** by compressing the esophagus, its effectiveness in **obese patients** is highly debated and often hindered by excess neck tissue. - In obese patients, cricoid pressure can actually worsen the view during laryngoscopy, making intubation more difficult and potentially causing airway trauma. *Extended ramping* - **Ramping** the patient, where the head and shoulders are elevated, is crucial in **obese patients** to align the **oral, pharyngeal, and laryngeal axes**. - This position improves the view during laryngoscopy and facilitates successful intubation by effectively displacing excess tissue. *Rapid sequence induction* - **Rapid sequence induction (RSI)** is often indicated in **obese patients** undergoing emergency surgery due to their increased risk of **gastric reflux** and **pulmonary aspiration**. - RSI involves administering a sedative and a paralytic agent in rapid succession, followed immediately by intubation, to minimize the time the airway is unprotected. *Avoid preoxygenation* - **Preoxygenation** is essential in **obese patients** to maximize their **oxygen reserves** before intubation. - Obese patients have reduced **functional residual capacity (FRC)** and increased **oxygen consumption**, making them desaturate rapidly during apnea, so preoxygenation significantly prolongs safe apnea time.
Question 4: What does a pulse oximeter primarily measure?
- A. Oxygen content of blood
- B. Oxygen saturation (Correct Answer)
- C. Partial pressure of oxygen
- D. Carbon dioxide levels
Explanation: ***Oxygen saturation*** - A pulse oximeter primarily measures the **percentage of hemoglobin** in arterial blood that is saturated with oxygen. - This is often reported as **SpO2** (peripheral oxygen saturation), an estimate of SaO2 (arterial oxygen saturation). *Oxygen content of blood* - The **total amount of oxygen** in the blood includes dissolved oxygen and oxygen bound to hemoglobin. - Pulse oximeters only measure the proportion of hemoglobin bound to oxygen, not the absolute amount of oxygen. *Partial pressure of oxygen* - This refers to the **amount of oxygen dissolved in the plasma** and is denoted as PaO2. - Measurement of PaO2 requires an **arterial blood gas (ABG)** analysis, which is an invasive procedure. *Carbon dioxide levels* - Pulse oximeters do **not measure CO2**; they use light absorption at specific wavelengths to differentiate oxyhemoglobin from deoxyhemoglobin. - Measurement of carbon dioxide requires **capnography** or arterial blood gas analysis.
Question 5: Which one of the following is not a component of THORACOSCORE?
- A. Performance status
- B. Complication of surgery (Correct Answer)
- C. Priority of surgery
- D. ASA grading
Explanation: ***Complication of surgery*** - THORACOSCORE is a **risk prediction model** for thoracic surgery used to estimate the *probability of mortality and significant morbidity*, but it does not account for the complications of surgery itself as a component. - The score uses **pre-operative patient characteristics** and co-morbidities to predict outcomes, not post-operative events. *Performance status* - **Performance status**, such as the **ECOG scale**, is a crucial component of THORACOSCORE, reflecting the patient's general health and functional capacity prior to surgery. - A lower performance status (indicating poorer functional ability) increases the predicted risk in THORACOSCORE. *Priority of surgery* - The **priority of surgery** (e.g., elective, urgent, emergency) is an important factor in THORACOSCORE, as emergency procedures generally carry a higher risk. - This variable helps to capture the urgency and associated physiological stress on the patient at the time of presentation for surgery. *ASA grading* - The **American Society of Anesthesiologists (ASA) physical status classification system** is a component of THORACOSCORE, assessing the patient's overall health status and anesthetic risk. - A higher ASA grade (indicating more severe systemic disease) contributes to a higher predicted risk in the THORACOSCORE model.
Question 6: A 40–year female has to undergo incisional hernia surgery under general anaesthesia. She complains of awareness during her past cesarean section. Which of the following monitoring techniques can be used to prevent such awareness ?
- A. Color doppler
- B. Transesophageal echocardiography
- C. Bispectral index monitoring (Correct Answer)
- D. Pulse plethysmography
Explanation: ***Bispectral index monitoring*** - **Bispectral Index (BIS) monitoring** is a technology that processes electroencephalogram (EEG) signals to provide a numerical value (0-100) indicating the patient's **level of consciousness or depth of anesthesia**. - A lower BIS value (typically 40-60) indicates a suitable depth of anesthesia for surgery, helping to prevent **intraoperative awareness**, especially in patients with a history of it. *Color doppler* - **Color Doppler** is an imaging technique used to visualize blood flow in vessels and assess the speed and direction of flow. - It is primarily used to diagnose conditions like **deep venous thrombosis**, *arterial stenosis*, or to evaluate blood flow to organs, and has no direct role in monitoring depth of anesthesia. *Transesophageal echocardiography* - **Transesophageal echocardiography (TEE)** is an invasive imaging technique that uses ultrasound from a probe inserted into the esophagus to provide detailed images of the heart. - TEE is critical for assessing **cardiac function**, *valvular heart disease*, or *aortic dissection* during surgery, but it does not monitor brain activity or the depth of anesthesia. *Pulse plethysmography* - **Pulse plethysmography** is a non-invasive method that measures changes in blood volume in a part of the body, often used to determine **heart rate** and assess peripheral perfusion. - While it is a component of pulse oximetry, it does not provide information about the **depth of anesthesia** or brain activity.
Question 7: On doing laparoscopic cholecystectomy patient developed wheezing. Which of the following is used in the treatment?
- A. Administration of beta agonist (Correct Answer)
- B. IV ketamine
- C. IV lignocaine
- D. Deepen the plane of anesthesia
Explanation: ***Administration of beta agonist*** - **Wheezing** during surgery suggests **bronchospasm**, which is effectively treated by **beta agonists** administered via inhalation to relax airway smooth muscles. - In a laparoscopic cholecystectomy, increased **intra-abdominal pressure** and **CO2 absorption** can trigger bronchoconstriction, making a rapid bronchodilator essential. *IV ketamine* - **Ketamine** has **bronchodilatory effects** and can be used in severe cases, but it's not the first-line treatment for acute wheezing due to its psychoactive and cardiovascular effects. - It would typically be considered if inhaled bronchodilators are insufficient or if there's an associated **anaphylactic reaction**. *IV lignocaine* - **Lignocaine** (lidocaine) can suppress airway reflexes and has some bronchodilatory properties, but it is primarily used as a **local anesthetic** or for treating arrhythmias. - Its role in acute **bronchospasm** is limited and not a primary treatment for wheezing. *Deepen the plane of anesthesia* - While light anesthesia can sometimes trigger bronchospasm, simply deepening the anesthetic plane may not be sufficient or safe if the wheezing is due to other causes like **allergy** or **CO2 retention**. - Without addressing the underlying cause directly, increasing anesthetic depth could lead to **hemodynamic instability**.
Question 8: Depth of anaesthesia can be best assessed by
- A. ABG analysis
- B. Pulse oximeter
- C. End tidal Pco2
- D. Bispectral index (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Bispectral index*** - The **Bispectral Index (BIS)** monitor processes **electroencephalogram (EEG)** signals to provide a numerical value (0-100) indicating the **level of consciousness** and hypnotic depth during anesthesia. - A lower BIS value (typically 40-60) indicates a deeper anesthetic state, helping clinicians avoid **awareness during surgery** and guide anesthetic agent delivery. *ABG analysis* - **Arterial Blood Gas (ABG)** analysis measures parameters like pH, PCO2, PO2, and bicarbonate, reflecting the patient's **acid-base balance** and **oxygenation**. - While important for overall physiological status, ABG analysis does not directly assess the **depth of anesthesia** or the patient's level of consciousness. *Pulse oximeter* - A **pulse oximeter** measures **oxygen saturation (SpO2)** and heart rate, reflecting the adequacy of oxygen delivery. - It does not provide information about the **depth of consciousness** or the hypnotic effect of anesthetic agents. *End tidal Pco2* - **End-tidal PCO2 (EtCO2)** monitors the partial pressure of carbon dioxide at the end of exhalation, providing an indication of **ventilation** and CO2 elimination. - While EtCO2 is crucial for managing ventilation during anesthesia, it does not directly reflect the **depth of anesthesia** or the patient's neurological state.
Question 9: Which of the following is not seen in scoline apnea?
- A. It occurs due to deficiency of acetylcholinesterase (Correct Answer)
- B. It is due to succinylcholine
- C. Patients usually do not die of scoline apnea if they are properly managed
- D. It can be inherited
Explanation: ***It occurs due to deficiency of acetylcholinesterase*** - **Scoline apnea** is caused by a deficiency of **pseudocholinesterase (butyrylcholinesterase)**, not acetylcholinesterase. - **Pseudocholinesterase** is responsible for metabolizing **succinylcholine**, while acetylcholinesterase breaks down acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction. *It is due to succinylcholine* - **Scoline apnea** is indeed triggered by the administration of **succinylcholine** in individuals with a genetic defect in **pseudocholinesterase**. - Without proper metabolism by pseudocholinesterase, succinylcholine prolongs its action, leading to prolonged neuromuscular blockade. *Patients usually do not die of scoline apnea if they are properly managed* - With appropriate management, which involves **mechanical ventilation** until the succinylcholine is metabolized, patients typically recover fully from scoline apnea. - The primary risk is respiratory failure due to prolonged paralysis, which can be managed by supportive care. *It can be inherited* - The deficiency of **pseudocholinesterase** that causes scoline apnea is an **autosomal recessive inherited disorder**. - Genetic testing can identify individuals who are at risk for this condition.
Question 10: The image given below shows neuromuscular monitoring of the patient after anesthesia. What is the most commonly used nerve for monitoring?
- A. Ulnar nerve (Correct Answer)
- B. Median nerve
- C. Radial nerve
- D. Metacarpal nerve
Explanation: ***Ulnar nerve*** - The **ulnar nerve** is the most commonly chosen site for neuromuscular monitoring due to its ease of accessibility and predictable response of the **adductor pollicis muscle**. - Stimulation of the ulnar nerve at the wrist causes **adduction of the thumb**, which is easily quantifiable and provides reliable information about neuromuscular blockade. *Median nerve* - While the median nerve can be monitored, it is **less commonly used** than the ulnar nerve due to potential for confusing responses or less clear twitch measurements. - Stimulation of the median nerve primarily leads to **flexion of the thumb and fingers**, but the adductor pollicis response from ulnar nerve stimulation is often preferred for its clear isolation. *Radial nerve* - The radial nerve innervates muscles involved in **wrist and finger extension**, which are not typically targeted for standard neuromuscular monitoring. - Its stimulation can be more complex to interpret and may not provide the precise information needed for monitoring paralytic depth in the same way as the ulnar nerve. *Metacarpal nerve* - The term "metacarpal nerve" is broad and refers to nerves near the metacarpals, which are **not primary sites** for direct neuromuscular blocking agent monitoring. - Specific named peripheral nerves like the ulnar, median, or radial nerves are targeted for their predictable muscle responses, not generalized metacarpal innervation.
Want unlimited practice?
Get full access to all questions, explanations, and performance tracking.
Start For Free