Neck — MCQs

Neck Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 91: A 6-year-old male child, whose medical history includes a complicated delivery, has a permanently tilted head posture, with the right ear near the right shoulder and the face turned upward and to the left. Which of the following muscles was most likely damaged during birth?

A. Anterior scalene
B. Omohyoid
C. Sternocleidomastoid (Correct Answer)
D. Trapezius

Explanation: ### Explanation **Correct Option: C. Sternocleidomastoid** The clinical presentation described is a classic case of **Congenital Muscular Torticollis (Wry Neck)**. This condition often results from birth trauma (e.g., breech delivery or forceps use), leading to a hematoma or fibrosis within the **Sternocleidomastoid (SCM)** muscle [1]. The SCM has two primary actions: 1. **Unilateral contraction:** Tilts the head to the **same side** (ipsilateral lateral flexion) and rotates the face to the **opposite side** (contralateral rotation). 2. **Bilateral contraction:** Flexes the neck. In this child, the right SCM is shortened/fibrosed, pulling the right ear toward the right shoulder and rotating the chin upward and toward the left. --- ### Why Other Options are Incorrect: * **A. Anterior scalene:** Primarily functions in lateral neck flexion and elevation of the first rib during forced inspiration. It does not produce the characteristic rotational deformity of the face. * **B. Omohyoid:** A depressor of the hyoid bone. It does not have sufficient mechanical leverage to cause a permanent head tilt or rotation. * **C. Trapezius:** While the upper fibers can assist in lateral flexion, the trapezius primarily acts on the scapula (elevation, retraction, rotation). Damage here would present with shoulder drooping rather than the specific torticollis posture. --- ### NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls: * **Pseudotumor of Infancy:** A palpable, non-tender mass may be felt in the SCM within the first few weeks of life before it evolves into permanent fibrosis [1]. * **Nerve Supply:** The SCM is supplied by the **Spinal Accessory Nerve (CN XI)** for motor function and **C2-C3 spinal nerves** for proprioception. * **Clinical Association:** Untreated torticollis can lead to **plagiocephaly** (flattening of the skull) and facial asymmetry. * **Differential:** Always rule out Klippel-Feil syndrome (congenital fusion of cervical vertebrae) in cases of short neck and restricted mobility.

Question 92: A resident inadvertently damages the cervical sympathetic trunk while attempting to introduce a catheter into the right internal jugular vein. Which of the following findings is MOST likely to be seen in this patient as a result of the injury?

A. Constriction of the right pupil (Correct Answer)
B. Dilation of the right pupil
C. Inability to abduct the right eye
D. Inability to close the right eye

Explanation: The clinical scenario describes an injury to the **cervical sympathetic trunk**, which results in **Horner’s Syndrome**. The sympathetic nervous system is responsible for dilating the pupil (mydriasis) via the dilator pupillae muscle and elevating the eyelid via the superior tarsal muscle (Müller’s muscle). **1. Why Option A is Correct:** Damage to the sympathetic fibers leads to a loss of sympathetic tone. This results in the unopposed action of the parasympathetic-innervated sphincter pupillae muscle, leading to **miosis (constriction of the pupil)** [1]. Other classic signs of Horner’s syndrome include partial ptosis (drooping of the eyelid), anhidrosis (loss of sweating), and enophthalmos. **2. Why the Incorrect Options are Wrong:** * **Option B (Dilation):** This would occur with sympathetic stimulation or parasympathetic blockade (e.g., Oculomotor nerve palsy). * **Option C (Inability to abduct):** This indicates a lesion of the **Abducens nerve (CN VI)**, which innervates the lateral rectus muscle. * **Option D (Inability to close the eye):** This is a sign of **Facial nerve (CN VII)** palsy, affecting the orbicularis oculi muscle. (Note: Inability to *open* the eye fully is seen in Horner’s or CN III palsy). **High-Yield NEET-PG Pearls:** * **Anatomical Relation:** The cervical sympathetic trunk lies posterior to the carotid sheath, resting on the prevertebral fascia. It is vulnerable during internal jugular vein (IJV) cannulation or carotid endarterectomy. * **Horner’s Syndrome Triad:** Miosis, Partial Ptosis, and Anhidrosis. * **First-order neurons** originate in the hypothalamus; **Second-order** (preganglionic) in the C8-T2 spinal segments (Ciliospinal center of Budge); **Third-order** (postganglionic) in the Superior Cervical Ganglion.

Question 93: The laryngeal saccules (water sacs) are present in which part of the larynx?

A. Paraglottic space
B. Piriform fossa
C. Reinke's space
D. Laryngeal ventricles (Correct Answer)

Explanation: **Explanation:** The **laryngeal saccule** (also known as the appendix of the ventricle) is a blind pouch of mucous membrane that extends upward from the anterior part of the **laryngeal ventricle** (Sinus of Morgagni). It lies between the vestibular fold and the inner surface of the thyroid cartilage. It contains numerous mucous glands that lubricate the vocal folds, often referred to as the "oil can" of the larynx. **Analysis of Options:** * **Laryngeal Ventricles (Correct):** The saccule is a diverticulum arising from the ventricle, which is the space between the true vocal cords (below) and the false vocal cords (above). * **Paraglottic Space:** This is a potential space lateral to the laryngeal folds, bounded by the thyroid cartilage and the conus elasticus. While the saccule resides *within* this space, it originates specifically from the ventricle. * **Piriform Fossa:** This is a recess of the **laryngopharynx** located on either side of the laryngeal inlet. It is a common site for foreign body lodgment, not the location of the saccule. * **Reinke’s Space:** This is a potential subepithelial space of the **true vocal cords**. Edema here (Reinke’s edema) causes a characteristic "husky" voice, but it does not contain the saccule. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** 1. **Laryngocele:** If the laryngeal saccule becomes abnormally dilated with air, it forms a laryngocele (common in trumpet players/glass blowers). 2. **Saccular Cyst:** If the duct of the saccule is obstructed, it leads to a fluid-filled mucus cyst. 3. **Histology:** The saccule is lined by pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium.

Question 94: The hyoid bone lies at the level of which cervical vertebra?

A. C3 (Correct Answer)
B. C2
C. C7
D. T2

Explanation: ### Explanation The **hyoid bone** is a unique, U-shaped bone located in the anterior midline of the neck. It serves as a crucial anchor for the tongue and various suprahyoid and infrahyoid muscles. In a neutral anatomical position, the body of the hyoid bone lies at the level of the **C3 vertebra**. **Analysis of Options:** * **C3 (Correct):** The hyoid bone is situated at the level of the third cervical vertebra (C3). This is a standard anatomical landmark used to demarcate the boundary between the submandibular region above and the larynx below. * **C2 (Incorrect):** This is the level of the **axis** vertebra. The angle of the mandible and the superior part of the pharynx are generally associated with this level. * **C7 (Incorrect):** This is the level of the **vertebra prominens**. It marks the base of the neck and the transition to the thoracic spine. * **T2 (Incorrect):** This is a thoracic level. The **suprasternal (jugular) notch** is typically located at the level of the lower border of the T2 vertebra. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Vertebral Levels of the Airway:** * **Hyoid Bone:** C3 * **Thyroid Cartilage (Upper border):** C4 (Bifurcation of Common Carotid Artery) * **Cricoid Cartilage:** C6 (Transition of Larynx to Trachea and Pharynx to Esophagus) * **Unique Feature:** The hyoid is the only bone in the human body that **does not articulate** with any other bone; it is suspended by the stylohyoid ligaments. * **Forensic Significance:** A fractured hyoid bone is a classic diagnostic sign of **strangulation** or hanging in forensic medicine.

Question 95: The inferior thyroid artery arises from which of the following vessels?

A. Thyrocervical trunk (Correct Answer)
B. Brachiocephalic trunk
C. Internal carotid artery
D. External carotid artery

Explanation: The **inferior thyroid artery** is the primary blood supply to the posterior and inferior aspects of the thyroid gland. It is a major branch of the **thyrocervical trunk**, which itself arises from the first part of the **subclavian artery** [1]. **Why the correct option is right:** The thyrocervical trunk is a short, wide vessel that divides into four branches: the inferior thyroid, suprascapular, transverse cervical, and ascending cervical arteries. The inferior thyroid artery ascends behind the carotid sheath to reach the lower pole of the thyroid gland. **Why the incorrect options are wrong:** * **Brachiocephalic trunk:** This vessel gives rise to the right common carotid and right subclavian arteries. It does not directly give off the inferior thyroid artery, though it may occasionally give off the *thyroidea ima artery* (an anatomical variant). * **Internal carotid artery:** This artery has no branches in the neck; it enters the skull to supply the brain and eyes. * **External carotid artery:** This vessel gives rise to the **superior thyroid artery** (its first anterior branch), which supplies the upper pole of the thyroid gland. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Surgical Landmark:** The inferior thyroid artery is closely related to the **recurrent laryngeal nerve** [2]. During thyroidectomy, the artery is usually ligated well away from the gland to avoid damaging this nerve. * **Parathyroid Supply:** The inferior thyroid artery is the main source of blood for both the superior and inferior parathyroid glands [1]. * **Anastomosis:** There is a rich anastomosis between the superior thyroid artery (from the External Carotid) and the inferior thyroid artery (from the Subclavian), representing a key communication between these two major systems.

Question 96: Which muscle of the larynx is not supplied by the recurrent laryngeal nerve?

A. Vocalis
B. Thyroarytenoid
C. Cricothyroid (Correct Answer)
D. Interarytenoid

Explanation: **Explanation:** The nerve supply of the laryngeal muscles follows a specific rule that is highly high-yield for NEET-PG: **All intrinsic muscles of the larynx are supplied by the Recurrent Laryngeal Nerve (RLN), EXCEPT for the Cricothyroid muscle.** **1. Why Cricothyroid is the Correct Answer:** The Cricothyroid muscle is the only intrinsic laryngeal muscle derived from the **4th pharyngeal arch**. Consequently, it is supplied by the **External Laryngeal Nerve** (a branch of the Superior Laryngeal Nerve). Functionally, it acts as the "tensor" of the vocal cords by tilting the thyroid cartilage forward. **2. Why the Other Options are Incorrect:** * **Vocalis & Thyroarytenoid (Options A & B):** These muscles form the bulk of the vocal folds and are responsible for shortening and relaxing them. They are derived from the **6th pharyngeal arch** and are supplied by the RLN. * **Interarytenoid (Option D):** This is the only unpaired muscle of the larynx. It acts as an adductor of the vocal folds and is supplied by the RLN. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **The "Safety Muscle":** The **Posterior Cricoarytenoid** is the only abductor of the vocal cords (supplied by RLN). Paralysis leads to adducted cords and respiratory distress [2]. * **Nerve Injury:** * Injury to the **External Laryngeal Nerve** (often during thyroidectomy near the superior thyroid artery) results in a weak, husky voice due to the inability to tense the vocal cords. * Injury to the **Recurrent Laryngeal Nerve** (near the inferior thyroid artery) results in hoarseness of voice [2]. * **Sensory Supply:** Above the vocal folds is by the Internal Laryngeal Nerve; below the vocal folds is by the Recurrent Laryngeal Nerve [1].

Question 97: Which of the following muscles is NOT part of the digastric group?

A. Muscle fibers in the ligament of Treitz
B. Omohyoid
C. Occipitofrontalis
D. Sternocleidomastoid (Correct Answer)

Explanation: **Explanation:** The term **"digastric"** refers to any muscle that possesses **two fleshy bellies** connected by an intermediate tendon. The question asks to identify which muscle does *not* follow this anatomical configuration. **1. Why Sternocleidomastoid (SCM) is the Correct Answer:** The **Sternocleidomastoid** is a single-bellied muscle. Although it has two heads of origin (sternal and clavicular), these heads fuse into a single large muscle belly that inserts into the mastoid process. It lacks an intermediate tendon, making it a "unigastric" muscle. **2. Analysis of Incorrect Options (Digastric Muscles):** * **Omohyoid:** A classic digastric muscle of the neck. It has a superior and inferior belly connected by an intermediate tendon, which is held in place by a fascial sling attached to the clavicle. * **Occipitofrontalis:** This muscle consists of the frontal and occipital bellies connected by a wide, flat intermediate tendon known as the **galea aponeurotica** (epicranial aponeurosis). * **Ligament of Treitz (Suspensory muscle of duodenum):** This is often a "high-yield" trap. It contains skeletal muscle fibers from the diaphragm and smooth muscle fibers from the duodenum. Anatomically, it functions as a digastric structure connecting the right crus of the diaphragm to the duodenojejunal flexure. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **The Digastric Muscle (Proper):** The most famous example. Its **Anterior Belly** is derived from the 1st branchial arch (Nerve to Mylohyoid, CN V3), while the **Posterior Belly** is from the 2nd arch (Facial Nerve, CN VII). * **Other Digastric Muscles:** Include the **Ligament of Treitz** and the **Intermediate tendon of the Digastric** (which pierces the Stylohyoid muscle). * **SCM Landmark:** It is the key landmark of the neck, dividing it into anterior and posterior triangles. It is supplied by the Spinal Accessory Nerve (CN XI).

Question 98: At what level does the common carotid artery bifurcate?

A. Thyroid cartilage (Correct Answer)
B. Cricoid cartilage
C. C7 vertebra
D. T2 vertebra

Explanation: The **Common Carotid Artery (CCA)** typically bifurcates into the internal and external carotid arteries at the level of the **upper border of the thyroid cartilage**. In terms of vertebral levels, this corresponds to the **C3-C4 intervertebral disc** or the C4 vertebral body. ### Why the other options are incorrect: * **Cricoid cartilage:** This corresponds to the **C6 vertebral level**. This is a major anatomical landmark where the larynx becomes the trachea, the pharynx becomes the esophagus, and the middle thyroid vein enters the internal jugular vein. It is also where the CCA can be compressed against the carotid tubercle (Chassaignac's tubercle). * **C7 vertebra:** This is the level of the *vertebra prominens*. No major vascular bifurcation occurs here; however, the vertebral artery enters the foramen transversarium at the level above (C6). * **T2 vertebra:** This level corresponds to the suprasternal notch and the origin of the great vessels from the aortic arch, but it is far inferior to the carotid bifurcation. ### High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG: * **Carotid Sinus:** A baroreceptor (pressure sensor) located at the site of bifurcation (dilated part of the internal carotid). It is innervated by the **Glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX)**. * **Carotid Body:** A chemoreceptor (sensing $O_2$, $CO_2$, and pH) located posterior to the bifurcation. * **Surface Anatomy:** The bifurcation is located at the level of the **greater horn of the hyoid bone** or the upper border of the thyroid cartilage. * **Surgical Importance:** During a carotid endarterectomy, the bifurcation is the most common site for atherosclerotic plaque formation [1].

Question 99: Which laryngeal cartilage forms a complete circle?

A. Arytenoid
B. Cricoid (Correct Answer)
C. Thyroid
D. Hyoid

Explanation: **Explanation:** The **cricoid cartilage** is the only laryngeal cartilage that forms a **complete anatomical circle** (ring). It is shaped like a "signet ring," consisting of a narrow anterior arch and a broad posterior lamina. Located at the level of the **C6 vertebra**, it serves as the foundation of the larynx, providing structural support to keep the airway open. **Analysis of Options:** * **Cricoid (Correct):** Its circumferential nature is unique. It articulates with the thyroid cartilage (cricothyroid joint) and the arytenoid cartilages (cricoarytenoid joint). * **Thyroid:** This is the largest cartilage but is **incomplete posteriorly**. It consists of two laminae that meet anteriorly to form the laryngeal prominence (Adam’s apple), but it remains open at the back. * **Arytenoid:** These are small, **pyramid-shaped** paired cartilages that sit atop the cricoid lamina. They are not circular. * **Hyoid:** While often studied with the neck, the hyoid is a **U-shaped bone**, not a laryngeal cartilage. It does not form a complete circle. **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Level:** The cricoid cartilage marks the junction between the larynx and trachea, and the pharynx and esophagus (at **C6**). * **Clinical Procedure:** The **Sellick Maneuver** (cricoid pressure) is used during endotracheal intubation to compress the esophagus against the C6 vertebra to prevent gastric regurgitation. * **Narrowest Part:** In children, the subglottic region at the level of the cricoid ring is the narrowest part of the upper airway. * **Histology:** Like the thyroid and arytenoid (body), the cricoid is made of **hyaline cartilage** and tends to ossify with age.

Question 100: All of the following muscles form the boundary of the suboccipital triangle in the suboccipital region of the neck, EXCEPT?

A. Obliquus capitis superior muscle
B. Obliquus capitis inferior muscle
C. Rectus capitis posterior major muscle
D. Rectus capitis posterior minor muscle (Correct Answer)

Explanation: The **suboccipital triangle** is a high-yield anatomical space located deep in the suboccipital region, primarily responsible for the movements of the head at the atlanto-axial and atlanto-occipital joints. ### **Explanation of the Correct Answer** **D. Rectus capitis posterior minor muscle:** This muscle is located **medial** to the rectus capitis posterior major. While it lies within the suboccipital region, it does **not** form a boundary of the triangle. It forms part of the **floor** of the triangle along with the posterior atlanto-occipital membrane. ### **Analysis of Incorrect Options (Boundaries)** The triangle is bounded by three specific muscles: * **A. Obliquus capitis superior:** Forms the **Lateral** (or Superolateral) boundary. It originates from the transverse process of the atlas and inserts into the occipital bone. * **B. Obliquus capitis inferior:** Forms the **Inferior** (or Postero-inferior) boundary. It originates from the spine of the axis and inserts into the transverse process of the atlas. * **C. Rectus capitis posterior major:** Forms the **Medial** (or Superomedial) boundary. It originates from the spine of the axis and inserts into the lateral part of the inferior nuchal line. ### **High-Yield NEET-PG Clinical Pearls** * **Contents of the Triangle:** 1. **Third part of the Vertebral Artery** (lying on the groove on the upper surface of the posterior arch of the atlas). 2. **Suboccipital Nerve** (Dorsal ramus of C1), which supplies all four suboccipital muscles. 3. **Suboccipital Venous Plexus.** * **Roof:** Formed by the Semispinalis capitis and Longissimus capitis muscles. * **Greater Occipital Nerve (C2):** Note that this nerve is **not** a content; it emerges below the obliquus capitis inferior and crosses the triangle superficially.

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Cervical Fascia

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Triangles of the Neck

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Deep Structures of the Neck

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Thyroid and Parathyroid Glands

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Vasculature of the Neck

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Lymphatic Drainage

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Cervical Plexus

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Root of the Neck

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Applied Anatomy and Clinical Correlations

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Surface Anatomy of the Neck

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Neck — MCQs

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