Deep Structures of the Neck — MCQs
Which of the following is NOT a content of the occipital triangle?
Which muscle divides the neck into anterior and posterior triangles?
Which muscle is the deepest in the anterior neck region?
All of the following arteries are branches of ECA that supply nasal septum except:
Shrugging of shoulder following neck surgery is due to injury to:
In prostatic metastasis, the site most commonly involved is which one?
Submandibular nodes are classified as
Match the following: A) Caplan syndrome- 1) Found first in coal worker B) Asbestosis- 2) Upper lobe predominance C) Mesothelioma- 3) Involves lower lobe D) Sarcoidosis- 4) Pleural effusion is seen
During a knife fight, a person is injured in the neck region and presents with weakness in raising the right arm above the head. On further examination, winging of the right scapula is noted. The injury has damaged:
A 15 years old Male presented with history of fever since 2 days, unable to swallow the food with muffled voice. On examination it is noted right tonsil is shifted to midline. What is the diagnosis:
Deep Structures of the Neck Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: Which of the following is NOT a content of the occipital triangle?
- A. Lesser occipital nerve
- B. Occipital artery
- C. Suprascapular nerve (Correct Answer)
- D. Great auricular nerve
Explanation: Suprascapular nerve - The **suprascapular nerve** originates from the brachial plexus and supplies the supraspinatus and infraspinatus muscles; it travels through the suprascapular notch and is not found within the occipital triangle. - Its primary course and innervation are associated with the shoulder, entirely separate from the neck region defining the occipital triangle. *Great auricular nerve* - The **great auricular nerve** emerges from the cervical plexus and supplies sensory innervation to the skin over the parotid gland, mastoid process, and auricle, courses superficially across the sternocleidomastoid in the region of the occipital triangle. - It is a recognized content of the posterior triangle of the neck, which encompasses the occipital triangle. *Lesser occipital nerve* - The **lesser occipital nerve** arises from the cervical plexus at C2 and C3, providing sensory innervation to the skin of the neck and scalp posterior to the auricle. - It ascends along the posterior border of the sternocleidomastoid muscle, placing it within the boundaries of the occipital triangle. *Occipital artery* - The **occipital artery** is a branch of the external carotid artery that supplies blood to the posterior scalp. - It traverses the apex of the posterior triangle (including the occipital triangle) as it ascends to the back of the head.
Question 2: Which muscle divides the neck into anterior and posterior triangles?
- A. Platysma
- B. Digastric
- C. Trapezius
- D. Sternocleidomastoid (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Sternocleidomastoid*** - The **sternocleidomastoid muscle** runs obliquely across the neck from the mastoid process to the sternum and clavicle. - It serves as a crucial anatomical landmark, dividing the neck into the **anterior** and **posterior triangles**. *Platysma* - The **platysma** is a superficial muscle of facial expression located in the subcutaneous tissue of the neck. - It does not divide the neck into major anatomical triangles but rather covers the anterior and lateral aspects of the neck. *Digastric* - The **digastric muscle** is a suprahyoid muscle located in the anterior neck region. - It aids in jaw depression and elevation of the hyoid bone, but it is not responsible for dividing the neck into its main triangles. *Trapezius* - The **trapezius muscle** is a broad, flat muscle located in the posterior neck and upper back. - While it forms the posterior boundary of the posterior triangle, it does not divide the neck into anterior and posterior triangles itself.
Question 3: Which muscle is the deepest in the anterior neck region?
- A. Sternocleidomastoid
- B. Platysma
- C. Longus colli (Correct Answer)
- D. Trapezius
Explanation: ***Longus colli*** - The **longus colli** muscle is the **deepest muscle** located in the anterior neck region, running along the front of the cervical vertebral column from C1 to T3. - It lies in the **prevertebral layer**, deep to all other anterior neck structures including the carotid sheath, visceral compartment, and superficial muscles. - Its position directly anterior to the vertebral bodies makes it the deepest anterior neck muscle. *Platysma* - The platysma is the **most superficial muscle** of the neck, located just beneath the skin in the superficial fascia. - It is not a deep muscle and lies superficial to all other neck muscles. *Sternocleidomastoid* - The sternocleidomastoid is enclosed within the **investing layer of deep cervical fascia**, making it relatively superficial. - While prominent in the anterior and lateral neck, it is not the deepest anterior neck muscle. *Trapezius* - The trapezius is a large, **superficial muscle of the back and posterior neck**. - It is not located in the anterior neck and is a superficial, not deep, muscle.
Question 4: All of the following arteries are branches of ECA that supply nasal septum except:
- A. Facial artery
- B. Superior labial artery
- C. Anterior ethmoidal artery (Correct Answer)
- D. Sphenopalatine artery
Explanation: ***Anterior ethmoidal artery*** - The **anterior ethmoidal artery** is a branch of the **ophthalmic artery**, which itself is a branch of the **internal carotid artery (ICA)**, not the external carotid artery (ECA). - It supplies the **upper anterior nasal septum** and lateral wall of the nasal cavity. *Facial artery* - The **facial artery** is a direct branch of the **external carotid artery (ECA)**. - It contributes to the blood supply of the nasal septum through its septal branches. *Superior labial artery* - The **superior labial artery** is a branch of the **facial artery**, meaning it indirectly originates from the **external carotid artery (ECA)**. - It sends a septal branch to supply the **anterior inferior part of the nasal septum**. *Sphenopalatine artery* - The **sphenopalatine artery** is a direct terminal branch of the **maxillary artery**, which is one of the terminal branches of the **external carotid artery (ECA)**. - It is the major blood supply to the **posterior nasal septum** and lateral wall, forming part of Kesselbach's plexus.
Question 5: Shrugging of shoulder following neck surgery is due to injury to:
- A. Vagus nerve
- B. Spinal accessory nerve (Correct Answer)
- C. Thoracodorsal nerve
- D. Bell's nerve
Explanation: Spinal accessory nerve - Injury to the spinal accessory nerve (cranial nerve XI) can lead to weakness or paralysis of the trapezius muscle, which is responsible for shrugging the shoulder. - Due to its superficial course in the posterior cervical triangle, it is vulnerable to iatrogenic injury during neck surgery, lymph node biopsies, or neck dissections. Thoracodorsal nerve - The thoracodorsal nerve innervates the latissimus dorsi muscle, which is involved in adduction, extension, and internal rotation of the arm [1]. - Injury to this nerve would primarily affect these arm movements, not shoulder shrugging. Bell's nerve - This term is often used to refer to the long thoracic nerve (nerve to serratus anterior). - Injury to the long thoracic nerve leads to scapular winging due to serratus anterior paralysis, but not directly to impaired shoulder shrugging. Vagus nerve - The vagus nerve (cranial nerve X) has widespread functions including innervation of the pharynx, larynx, and thoracic/abdominal viscera. - Injury to the vagus nerve typically causes symptoms like dysphagia, hoarseness, or autonomic dysfunction, unrelated to shoulder movement.
Question 6: In prostatic metastasis, the site most commonly involved is which one?
- A. Perivesical nodes
- B. Obturator nodes (Correct Answer)
- C. Pre-sacral nodes
- D. Para-aortic nodes
Explanation: ***Obturator nodes*** - The **obturator nodes** are a primary site for metastatic spread from the prostate due to their close proximity and direct lymphatic drainage pathways. - Prostate cancer cells often spread via the **lymphatic system** to regional lymph nodes before disseminating to distant sites. **Perivesical nodes** * While also regional, perivesical nodes are less frequently the _initial_ or most common site of metastasis compared to the obturator and internal iliac nodes. * Lymphatic drainage from the prostate primarily follows pathways that lead to obturator and internal iliac nodes first. **Pre-sacral nodes** * Pre-sacral nodes are considered more distant regional nodes compared to the obturator nodes and are typically involved later in the metastatic process. * Their involvement often indicates a more advanced stage of nodal metastasis. **Para-aortic nodes** * Para-aortic nodes are considered distant metastases for prostate cancer, indicating widespread disease. * Metastasis to para-aortic nodes usually occurs after involvement of more proximal regional nodes like the obturator and internal iliac nodes.
Question 7: Submandibular nodes are classified as
- A. Level III neck nodes
- B. Level II neck nodes
- C. Level 1B neck nodes (Correct Answer)
- D. Level 1A neck nodes
Explanation: ***Level 1B neck nodes*** - The **submandibular nodes** are located anterior to the posterior belly of the digastric muscle and lateral to the anterior belly of the digastric muscle, placing them within **Level 1B** of the neck lymph node classification [1]. - This level primarily drains the oral cavity, face, and submandibular gland [1]. *Level III neck nodes* - **Level III** nodes are the middle jugular nodes, located between the level of the hyoid bone and the cricoid cartilage. - These nodes are typically found along the **internal jugular vein** and drain structures such as the larynx, hypopharynx, and thyroid. *Level II neck nodes* - **Level II** nodes, or upper jugular nodes, are located from the skull base to the inferior border of the hyoid bone, along the internal jugular vein. - This level is further divided into Level IIA (anterior to the spinal accessory nerve) and Level IIB (posterior to the spinal accessory nerve) and drains structures like the nasopharynx, oropharynx, and parotid gland. *Level 1 A neck nodes* - **Level 1A** nodes refer to the **submental nodes**, which are located between the anterior bellies of the digastric muscles [1]. - These nodes primarily drain the central lower lip, floor of the mouth, anterior tongue, and chin [1].
Question 8: Match the following: A) Caplan syndrome- 1) Found first in coal worker B) Asbestosis- 2) Upper lobe predominance C) Mesothelioma- 3) Involves lower lobe D) Sarcoidosis- 4) Pleural effusion is seen
- A. A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
- B. A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2 (Correct Answer)
- C. A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1
- D. A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1
Explanation: **A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2** - **Caplan syndrome** was first described in **coal workers** with **rheumatoid arthritis** and progressive massive fibrosis. - **Asbestosis** is often associated with **pleural effusion**, which can be benign or malignant. - **Mesothelioma** typically involves the **lower lobes** of the lungs, specifically the pleura, and is strongly linked to asbestos exposure. - **Sarcoidosis** is characterized by **non-caseating granulomas**, which have a predilection for the **upper lobes** of the lungs. *A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1* - This option incorrectly states that Caplan syndrome involves the lower lobe; **Caplan syndrome** is defined by the presence of large nodules in the lungs of coal workers with rheumatoid arthritis, and their specific lobar distribution is not a defining characteristic. - This option incorrectly states that Mesothelioma has an upper lobe predominance; **Mesothelioma** is a pleural malignancy and typically involves the **lower lobes**, extending along the pleura. *A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1* - This option incorrectly associates Caplan syndrome with pleural effusion; **Caplan syndrome** manifests as rheumatoid nodules in the lungs, not primarily pleural effusion. - This option incorrectly states that Asbestosis has an upper lobe predominance; **Asbestosis** predominantly affects the **lower lobes** of the lungs, causing interstitial fibrosis. *A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1* - This option incorrectly states that Caplan syndrome has an upper lobe predominance; the defining feature of **Caplan syndrome** is the combination of rheumatoid arthritis and pneumoconiosis, not specific lobar involvement. - This option correctly identifies pleural effusion with asbestosis and lower lobe involvement with mesothelioma, but **Caplan syndrome** is not characterized by upper lobe predominance.
Question 9: During a knife fight, a person is injured in the neck region and presents with weakness in raising the right arm above the head. On further examination, winging of the right scapula is noted. The injury has damaged:
- A. Long thoracic nerve of Bell
- B. Dorsal scapular nerve
- C. Suprascapular nerve
- D. Spinal accessory nerve (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Spinal accessory nerve*** - **Weakness in raising the arm above the head** and **winging of the scapula** are characteristic signs of **trapezius muscle dysfunction**, which is supplied by the **spinal accessory nerve (CN XI)**. - The trapezius is essential for **upward rotation of the scapula** during overhead arm abduction (>90°). - Injury to the spinal accessory nerve in the posterior triangle of the neck causes **lateral winging** of the scapula (inferior angle moves laterally), which is most prominent when attempting to raise the arm overhead. - The combination of **scapular winging** + **inability to abduct the arm above horizontal** is pathognomonic for trapezius paralysis. *Long thoracic nerve of Bell* - Damage to the long thoracic nerve causes paralysis of the **serratus anterior muscle**, leading to **medial winging** of the scapula (medial border lifts away from chest wall). - While scapular winging occurs, it is most prominent during **forward flexion** or **pushing movements** (e.g., push-ups, pushing against a wall), not specifically when raising the arm overhead. - Patients can usually still abduct the arm overhead, though with altered scapular mechanics. *Dorsal scapular nerve* - The dorsal scapular nerve innervates the **rhomboid major and minor muscles** and the **levator scapulae**. - Injury primarily causes difficulty **retracting the scapula** (pulling shoulders back) and weakness in shoulder elevation. - Does **not** cause scapular winging or significant weakness in overhead arm movement. *Suprascapular nerve* - The suprascapular nerve innervates the **supraspinatus** and **infraspinatus muscles**. - Damage causes weakness of shoulder **initiation of abduction** (first 15° by supraspinatus) and **external rotation** (infraspinatus). - Does **not** cause scapular winging, as these are rotator cuff muscles, not scapular stabilizers.
Question 10: A 15 years old Male presented with history of fever since 2 days, unable to swallow the food with muffled voice. On examination it is noted right tonsil is shifted to midline. What is the diagnosis:
- A. Quincy (Correct Answer)
- B. Acute tonsillitis
- C. Parapharyngeal abscess
- D. Acute retropharyngeal abscess
Explanation: ***Quincy (Peritonsillar abscess)*** - This patient's presentation with **fever**, **dysphagia**, **muffled voice** (hot potato voice), and **tonsil shifted to the midline** is classic for a **peritonsillar abscess (Quincy)**. - The affected tonsil is pushed **medially toward the midline** by the collection of pus between the tonsillar capsule and the superior constrictor muscle. - The uvula is typically deviated to the **contralateral side**, and patients often have **trismus** and difficulty opening the mouth. - This is the **most common deep neck space infection** and typically follows acute tonsillitis. *Parapharyngeal abscess* - A **parapharyngeal abscess** would present with **severe trismus**, **neck swelling**, **torticollis**, and **bulging of the lateral pharyngeal wall**. - While it can push the tonsil medially, it more characteristically causes **anterolateral displacement** of the entire pharyngeal wall rather than isolated tonsillar displacement. - Patients typically have more pronounced **systemic toxicity** and **neck involvement** than seen with peritonsillar abscess. *Acute tonsillitis* - **Acute tonsillitis** presents with **bilateral tonsillar enlargement**, exudates, and pharyngeal erythema. - It does not cause **displacement of the tonsil to the midline** or significant **muffled voice**. - While fever and dysphagia are present, the physical examination finding of tonsillar shift indicates a suppurative complication (abscess formation). *Acute retropharyngeal abscess* - An **acute retropharyngeal abscess** occurs in the retropharyngeal space behind the posterior pharyngeal wall. - It presents with **neck stiffness**, **stridor**, **drooling**, **bulging of the posterior pharyngeal wall**, and **reluctance to extend the neck**. - It would **not cause visible displacement of the tonsil to the midline** as the abscess is in a different anatomical space. - More common in **young children** (under 5 years) than adolescents.
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