Internal Medicine
1 questionsWhich of the following treatments are recommended for a pregnant woman suffering from sickle cell disease ? I. Folic acid 1 mg daily II. Azathioprine III. Penicillin prophylaxis IV. Thromboprophylaxis with low molecular weight heparin Select the correct answer using the code given below :
UPSC-CMS 2025 - Internal Medicine UPSC-CMS Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 191: Which of the following treatments are recommended for a pregnant woman suffering from sickle cell disease ? I. Folic acid 1 mg daily II. Azathioprine III. Penicillin prophylaxis IV. Thromboprophylaxis with low molecular weight heparin Select the correct answer using the code given below :
- A. I, II and IV
- B. I, III and IV (Correct Answer)
- C. I, II and III
- D. II, III and IV
Explanation: ***I, III and IV*** - **Folic acid 5 mg daily** (not 1mg) is essential in pregnancy, especially for women with **sickle cell disease**, to prevent **megaloblastic anemia** due to increased red cell turnover [1]. - **Penicillin prophylaxis** is crucial to prevent **Bacterial infections** as patients with sickle cell disease are at increased risk of infection, especially from encapsulated organisms, due to **functional asplenia** [1]. - **Thromboprophylaxis with low molecular weight heparin** is recommended because pregnancy in sickle cell disease significantly increases the risk of **venous thromboembolism** [1]. *I, II and IV* - **Azathioprine** is an immunosuppressant typically used for autoimmune conditions or organ transplantation, and it is **not a standard treatment** for managing sickle cell disease itself during pregnancy. - While folic acid and thromboprophylaxis are indicated, the inclusion of azathioprine makes this option incorrect. *I, II and III* - This option incorrectly includes **azathioprine**, an immunosuppressant not indicated for routine sickle cell management in pregnancy. - It also omits crucial **thromboprophylaxis**, which is vital given the increased risk of blood clots. *II, III and IV* - This option correctly includes **penicillin prophylaxis** and **thromboprophylaxis** but **incorrectly omits folic acid**, which is a cornerstone of daily management for all pregnant women with sickle cell disease. - It also incorrectly includes **azathioprine**, which is not a standard treatment.
Obstetrics and Gynecology
6 questionsChadwick's sign describes :
Which of the following are contraindications to External Cephalic Version (ECV) in breech? I. Pregnancy less than 36 weeks II. Multiple pregnancy III. Previous cesarean delivery IV. Rhesus isoimmunization Select the correct answer using the code given below :
Which of the following maternal complications can be seen in hyperemesis gravidarum? I. Wernicke's encephalopathy II. Hepatic failure III. Hypoprothrombinemia IV. Convulsions Select the correct answer using the code given below :
The commonest ovarian tumour seen during pregnancy is:
Which of the following statements are correct regarding shoulder dystocia? I. It can be predicted during early labour. II. Fetal macrosomia is a risk factor. III. Turtle neck sign is present. IV. Episiotomy should always be given. Select the answer using the code given below :
Which of the following factors favour posterior position of the vertex? I. Anthropoid pelvis II. Low inclination pelvis III. Attachment of placenta on the anterior wall IV. Primary brachycephaly Select the correct answer using the code given below :
UPSC-CMS 2025 - Obstetrics and Gynecology UPSC-CMS Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 191: Chadwick's sign describes :
- A. regular and rhythmic uterine contraction which can be elicited during bimanual examination at 4-8 weeks of pregnancy
- B. softening of cervix at 6th week of pregnancy
- C. the abdominal and vaginal fingers apposed below the body of the uterus during bimanual examination
- D. the dusky hue of the vestibule and anterior vaginal wall visible at about 8th week of pregnancy (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***the dusky hue of the vestibule and anterior vaginal wall visible at about 8th week of pregnancy*** - **Chadwick's sign** is a **bluish-purple discoloration** of the **vagina and cervix** due to increased vascularity, typically observed around 6-8 weeks of gestation. - This increased blood flow to the pelvic organs is an early sign of **pregnancy**. *regular and rhythmic uterine contraction which can be elicited during bimanual examination at 4-8 weeks of pregnancy* - This describes **Braxton Hicks contractions**, which are irregular, often painless contractions that occur throughout pregnancy, not typically as early as 4-8 weeks as a diagnostic sign. - While the uterus does contract, **Chadwick's sign** specifically refers to the vascular changes leading to discoloration, not uterine contractions. *softening of cervix at 6th week of pregnancy* - This phenomenon is known as **Hegar's sign** or **Goodell's sign**, which refers to the softening of the **cervix** and the **isthmus of the uterus** respectively in early pregnancy. - **Chadwick's sign** is distinct and refers to the characteristic **bluish discoloration** rather than cervical texture. *the abdominal and vaginal fingers apposed below the body of the uterus during bimanual examination* - This maneuver describes part of a **bimanual examination** used to assess uterine size and consistency, and is related to **Hegar's sign**. - It does not describe **Chadwick's sign**, which is a visual sign of discoloration due to increased blood flow.
Question 192: Which of the following are contraindications to External Cephalic Version (ECV) in breech? I. Pregnancy less than 36 weeks II. Multiple pregnancy III. Previous cesarean delivery IV. Rhesus isoimmunization Select the correct answer using the code given below :
- A. II, III and IV (Correct Answer)
- B. I, II and III
- C. I, III and IV
- D. I, II and IV
Explanation: ***II, III and IV*** - **Multiple pregnancy** is an absolute contraindication to ECV due to significantly increased risks of cord entanglement, placental abruption, premature rupture of membranes, and the complexity of managing two or more fetuses during the procedure. - **Previous cesarean delivery** is generally considered a relative contraindication due to the theoretical increased risk of uterine rupture during ECV, though some centers perform ECV in carefully selected cases with prior cesarean section. - **Rhesus isoimmunization** is a contraindication because ECV carries the risk of fetomaternal hemorrhage, which can worsen existing isoimmunization and increase maternal antibody production, potentially compromising fetal wellbeing. *I, II and III* - While **multiple pregnancy** and **previous cesarean delivery** are valid contraindications, **pregnancy less than 36 weeks** is not a true contraindication to ECV. - The standard timing for ECV is at or after 37 weeks of gestation, but being less than 36 weeks represents inappropriate timing rather than a contraindication. If there were a compelling reason for ECV before 36 weeks, the early gestational age itself would not prohibit the procedure. *I, III and IV* - **Previous cesarean delivery** and **Rhesus isoimmunization** are correct contraindications. - However, **pregnancy less than 36 weeks** is not a standard contraindication - it simply represents a gestational age before the recommended timing for the procedure (≥37 weeks). *I, II and IV* - **Multiple pregnancy** and **Rhesus isoimmunization** are valid contraindications. - **Pregnancy less than 36 weeks** is not a contraindication but rather reflects suboptimal timing, as ECV is typically performed at 37+ weeks when the likelihood of spontaneous version has decreased and the fetus is term.
Question 193: Which of the following maternal complications can be seen in hyperemesis gravidarum? I. Wernicke's encephalopathy II. Hepatic failure III. Hypoprothrombinemia IV. Convulsions Select the correct answer using the code given below :
- A. I, II, III and IV
- B. I, II and IV only
- C. II and III only
- D. I, III and IV only (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Correct Option: I, III and IV only*** - **Hyperemesis gravidarum** can lead to severe metabolic derangements and nutrient deficiencies, resulting in multiple maternal complications. - **Wernicke's encephalopathy** occurs due to **thiamine (vitamin B1) deficiency** from prolonged vomiting and malnutrition, presenting with confusion, ataxia, and ophthalmoplegia. - **Hypoprothrombinemia** develops due to **vitamin K deficiency**, which can lead to coagulopathy and bleeding complications. - **Convulsions** can occur secondary to severe **electrolyte imbalances** (particularly hyponatremia, hypocalcemia) or metabolic derangements. *Incorrect Option: I, II, III and IV* - This option incorrectly includes **hepatic failure** as a complication of hyperemesis gravidarum. - While **mild transient elevation of liver enzymes** (transaminitis) can occur in hyperemesis gravidarum, **true hepatic failure does NOT occur**. - Hepatic failure in pregnancy is associated with other distinct conditions like **acute fatty liver of pregnancy (AFLP)** or **HELLP syndrome**, not hyperemesis gravidarum. *Incorrect Option: I, II and IV only* - This option incorrectly includes **hepatic failure**, which is not a recognized complication of hyperemesis gravidarum. - It also incorrectly excludes **hypoprothrombinemia**, which can occur due to vitamin K deficiency in severe cases. *Incorrect Option: II and III only* - This option is incorrect as it includes **hepatic failure** (which does not occur in hyperemesis gravidarum). - It also incorrectly excludes **Wernicke's encephalopathy** and **convulsions**, which are well-recognized severe complications of hyperemesis gravidarum.
Question 194: The commonest ovarian tumour seen during pregnancy is:
- A. Endometrioma
- B. Benign cystic teratoma (Correct Answer)
- C. Mucinous cystadenoma
- D. Adenocarcinoma ovary
Explanation: ***Benign cystic teratoma*** - **Benign cystic teratomas (dermoid cysts)** are the most common ovarian tumors found during pregnancy, often identified incidentally on ultrasound. - They are typically asymptomatic but can lead to complications like **torsion** due to their weight and composition. *Endometrioma* - Endometriomas are **cysts formed from endometrial tissue** outside the uterus, and while not uncommon, they are not the leading type of ovarian tumor discovered during pregnancy. - While endometriomas can be seen in pregnancy, their incidence is lower than that of dermoid cysts, and they might even decrease in size during pregnancy due to hormonal changes. *Mucinous cystadenoma* - Mucinous cystadenomas are **benign epithelial ovarian tumors** and can be quite large, but they are less frequently encountered in pregnancy compared to benign cystic teratomas. - These tumors are characterized by their **mucus-filled** nature and are less common causes of adnexal masses in pregnant women. *Adenocarcinoma ovary* - **Ovarian adenocarcinoma** is a malignant tumor and, while serious, is rare in pregnancy, especially compared to benign ovarian masses. - The discovery of a malignant ovarian mass during pregnancy requires careful management due to potential risks to both the mother and the fetus.
Question 195: Which of the following statements are correct regarding shoulder dystocia? I. It can be predicted during early labour. II. Fetal macrosomia is a risk factor. III. Turtle neck sign is present. IV. Episiotomy should always be given. Select the answer using the code given below :
- A. I and III
- B. II and IV
- C. II and III (Correct Answer)
- D. I and II
Explanation: ***II and III*** - **Fetal macrosomia** (birth weight >4000g or >4500g) is a well-established risk factor for shoulder dystocia, as larger fetal size increases the likelihood of shoulder impaction behind the maternal pubic symphysis. - The **"turtle sign"** (or "turtle neck sign") is a pathognomonic sign of shoulder dystocia, where the fetal head retracts against the perineum after delivery because the anterior shoulder is impacted behind the pubic symphysis. *I and III* - Shoulder dystocia is generally **unpredictable** in early labor. While risk factors (maternal diabetes, fetal macrosomia, maternal obesity) identify high-risk pregnancies, most cases occur without warning and cannot be reliably predicted during early labor. Up to 50% of shoulder dystocia cases occur in pregnancies without identifiable risk factors. *II and IV* - While episiotomy may be performed to facilitate maneuvers by providing more working space, it is **not always indicated** and does not directly relieve the bony obstruction. The primary issue in shoulder dystocia is impaction of the anterior shoulder behind the pubic symphysis (bony obstruction), not soft tissue restriction. Episiotomy should be selective, not routine. *I and II* - As stated, shoulder dystocia cannot be reliably predicted during early labor, despite the presence of risk factors. Clinical judgment and preparedness are more important than prediction. - Fetal macrosomia remains a significant risk factor, though many macrosomic babies deliver without shoulder dystocia and many cases occur with normal-weight infants.
Question 196: Which of the following factors favour posterior position of the vertex? I. Anthropoid pelvis II. Low inclination pelvis III. Attachment of placenta on the anterior wall IV. Primary brachycephaly Select the correct answer using the code given below :
- A. I, III and IV (Correct Answer)
- B. II, III and IV
- C. I, II and IV
- D. I, II and III
Explanation: ***I, III and IV*** - An **anthropoid pelvis** has a long anteroposterior diameter and a narrow transverse diameter, making it more likely for the fetal head to engage in an anteroposterior position, which can lead to a posterior vertex. - **Placenta attached to the anterior wall** can create less space posteriorly, potentially pushing the fetal back towards the posterior aspect of the uterus, thereby promoting an occiput posterior position. - **Primary brachycephaly** (a fetal head that is wider than it is long) may find it difficult to rotate in the pelvis, increasing the likelihood of remaining in an occiput posterior position due to less favorable biomechanics for rotation. *II, III and IV* - A **low inclination pelvis** typically refers to a gynecoid pelvis with a flattened sacrum, which tends to promote rotation to an anterior position, not a posterior one. - Therefore, option II is incorrect as it favors anterior rotation. *I, II and IV* - This option incorrectly includes **low inclination pelvis** as a factor favoring posterior position. - A low inclination pelvis, particularly if it's a gynecoid type, is generally associated with more favorable conditions for fetal rotation to an anterior position. *I, II and III* - This option also incorrectly includes **low inclination pelvis** as a factor contributing to posterior vertex presentation. - The biomechanics of a low inclination pelvis do not typically predispose to a posterior vertex engagement or presentation.
Pathology
1 questionsWhich of the following hematological findings are seen in pregnant women with thalassemia trait?
UPSC-CMS 2025 - Pathology UPSC-CMS Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 191: Which of the following hematological findings are seen in pregnant women with thalassemia trait?
- A. Raised HbA₂ and low MCV (Correct Answer)
- B. Low serum total iron binding capacity
- C. Low MCHC
- D. Low HbA₂ and raised MCV
Explanation: ***Raised HbA₂ and low MCV*** - Beta-thalassemia trait is characterized by a **compensatory increase in HbA₂** (alpha2-delta2 globin chains) synthesis and **microcytic (low MCV)** red blood cells [1]. - This combination is a classic finding that helps differentiate thalassemia trait from iron deficiency anemia in pregnant women. *Low serum total iron binding capacity* - **Low total iron binding capacity (TIBC)** is typically seen in **anemia of chronic disease**, where iron stores are often adequate or high. - In thalassemia trait, iron stores are usually normal or increased, and TIBC is usually normal or slightly increased. *Low HbA₂ and raised MCV* - **Low HbA₂** is seen in alpha-thalassemia trait or iron deficiency anemia, not beta-thalassemia trait [2]. - **Raised MCV (macrocytosis)** is characteristic of conditions like **folate or B12 deficiency** or megaloblastic anemia, which is not associated with uncomplicated thalassemia trait [1]. *Low MCHC* - **Low MCHC (mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration)** indicates hypochromic red blood cells and is found in various microcytic anemias, including **iron deficiency anemia** [1]. - While it can be present in thalassemia trait, it is not as specific as the combination of **raised HbA₂** and **low MCV** for distinguishing beta-thalassemia trait from other microcytic conditions [2]. **References:** [1] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Blood And Bone Marrow Disease, pp. 588-591. [2] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Red Blood Cell and Bleeding Disorders, pp. 649-650.
Pharmacology
2 questionsThe best drug for maintenance therapy of Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE) during pregnancy is :
A primigravida at 38 weeks pregnancy was put on oxytocin drip in view of slow labour at the rate of 30 mIU/min by the newly appointed registrar. She complains of confusion and starts throwing fits. What electrolyte imbalance is expected to have happened in this case?
UPSC-CMS 2025 - Pharmacology UPSC-CMS Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 191: The best drug for maintenance therapy of Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE) during pregnancy is :
- A. Tacrolimus
- B. Hydroxychloroquine (Correct Answer)
- C. Progestins
- D. Sulfasalazine
Explanation: ***Hydroxychloroquine*** - **Hydroxychloroquine** is the cornerstone of SLE treatment, including during pregnancy, due to its efficacy in preventing flares and its established safety profile for both mother and fetus. - Continuation of **hydroxychloroquine** throughout pregnancy is recommended to reduce the risk of disease activity, which can lead to adverse maternal and fetal outcomes. *Tacrolimus* - **Tacrolimus** is an immunosuppressant typically reserved for patients with severe organ-threatening lupus, such as lupus nephritis, especially when other treatments fail or are contraindicated. - While it can be used in pregnancy under close monitoring, it is not considered the first-line or best drug for routine maintenance therapy due to potential risks and the availability of generally safer options. *Progestins* - **Progestins** are hormones primarily used in contraception or hormone replacement therapy and have no direct role in the treatment or maintenance of systemic lupus erythematosus. - They do not possess immunomodulatory properties essential for managing SLE disease activity. *Sulfasalazine* - **Sulfasalazine** is an anti-inflammatory and immunomodulatory drug primarily used for inflammatory bowel disease and rheumatoid arthritis, and sometimes for psoriatic arthritis. - It is not a standard treatment for **Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)** and is less effective for systemic manifestations of lupus.
Question 192: A primigravida at 38 weeks pregnancy was put on oxytocin drip in view of slow labour at the rate of 30 mIU/min by the newly appointed registrar. She complains of confusion and starts throwing fits. What electrolyte imbalance is expected to have happened in this case?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hyponatremia (Correct Answer)
- C. Hypocalcemia
- D. Hypernatremia
Explanation: ***Hyponatremia*** - **Oxytocin** has an antidiuretic hormone (ADH)-like effect, leading to **water retention** and dilutional hyponatremia, especially when administered in large doses or with hypotonic solutions [1]. - Symptoms like **confusion** and **seizures (fits)** are classic signs of neurological impairment due to severe hyponatremia. *Hypokalemia* - While electrolyte imbalances can occur with oxytocin, **hypokalemia** is not typically associated with oxytocin's ADH-like actions or its direct effects on renal tubules. - Symptoms related to hypokalemia usually involve **muscle weakness** and cardiac arrhythmias, which are not the primary features here. *Hypocalcemia* - **Hypocalcemia** is more commonly associated with conditions like parathyroid dysfunction or vitamin D deficiency, not directly with oxytocin administration. - Symptoms would typically include **tetany**, muscle cramps, and paresthesias, not primarily confusion and seizures in this context. *Hypernatremia* - **Hypernatremia** would involve excess sodium or severe dehydration, which is contrary to the fluid retention effect of oxytocin and unlikely to cause seizures in this context. - Elevated sodium levels would typically present with symptoms of extreme thirst, lethargy, and dry mucous membranes.