Internal Medicine
4 questionsWhich of the following statements are correct regarding Barrett's oesophagus? 1. It is a metaplastic change. 2. It is a risk factor for development of adenocarcinoma. 3. Ingestion of NSAIDs is the aetiological factor for its development. 4. Endoscopic mucosal resection is an effective treatment. Select the answer using the code given below.
Which of the following are local complications of acute pancreatitis? 1. Pseudocyst 2. Pleural effusion 3. Ileus 4. Acute fluid collection Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Which of the following are risk factors for the development of pancreatic cancer? 1. Cigarette smoking 2. Diabetes mellitus 3. Obesity 4. Caucasian ethnicity Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Which of the following statements are correct regarding renal cell carcinoma? 1. It arises from the epithelium of the proximal convoluted tubule. 2. It has a female preponderance. 3. Major subtypes are clear cell, papillary and chromophobe. 4. Surgery is the mainstay of treatment for organ-confined disease. Select the answer using the code given below.
UPSC-CMS 2024 - Internal Medicine UPSC-CMS Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 11: Which of the following statements are correct regarding Barrett's oesophagus? 1. It is a metaplastic change. 2. It is a risk factor for development of adenocarcinoma. 3. Ingestion of NSAIDs is the aetiological factor for its development. 4. Endoscopic mucosal resection is an effective treatment. Select the answer using the code given below.
- A. 2, 3 and 4
- B. 1, 3 and 4
- C. 1, 2 and 3
- D. 1, 2 and 4 (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***1, 2 and 4*** - **Barrett's esophagus** is characterized by the replacement of the normal **stratified squamous epithelium** of the distal esophagus with **specialized intestinal columnar epithelium**, which is a classic example of **metaplasia**. [1] - This metaplastic change is a significant **risk factor** for developing **esophageal adenocarcinoma**, making regular surveillance and treatment crucial. [1] **Endoscopic mucosal resection (EMR)** is an effective treatment option for early-stage adenocarcinoma or high-grade dysplasia in Barrett's esophagus, capable of removing superficial neoplastic tissue. *2, 3 and 4* - This option incorrectly includes ingestion of NSAIDs as an etiological factor for Barrett's esophagus. **NSAIDs** are not directly associated with the development of Barrett's esophagus. - While statements 2 and 4 are correct, the inclusion of statement 3 makes this option incorrect. *1, 3 and 4* - This option wrongly implicates **NSAIDs** in the etiology of Barrett's esophagus. The primary cause is **chronic gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)**, not NSAID use. [1] - Statement 2, which identifies Barrett's as a risk factor for adenocarcinoma, is critically important but is omitted here. *1, 2 and 3* - This option incorrectly states that NSAID ingestion is an etiological factor for Barrett's esophagus. The main cause is **chronic acid reflux**. [1] - While statements 1 and 2 are correct, statement 3 is incorrect, rendering this entire option invalid.
Question 12: Which of the following are local complications of acute pancreatitis? 1. Pseudocyst 2. Pleural effusion 3. Ileus 4. Acute fluid collection Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- A. 2, 3 and 4
- B. 1, 3 and 4
- C. 1, 2 and 4 (Correct Answer)
- D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: ***1, 2 and 4*** - **Pseudocyst**, **acute fluid collections**, and **pleural effusions** are all recognized **local complications** of acute pancreatitis due to their direct anatomical proximity or fluid spread from the pancreas [1]. - **Ileus** is a common **systemic complication** rather than a local one, and it arises from inflammation and irritation of the bowel. *2, 3 and 4* - This option correctly identifies **pleural effusion** and **acute fluid collection** as local complications, but **ileus** is typically classified as a **systemic complication** of acute pancreatitis. - While it includes two correct local complications, the inclusion of ileus makes it incorrect as a complete list of local complications. *1, 3 and 4* - This option correctly identifies **pseudocyst** and **acute fluid collection** as local complications, but incorrectly lists **ileus** as a local complication when it is a **systemic complication** [1]. - It also fails to include **pleural effusion**, which is a significant local complication. *1, 2 and 3* - This option correctly identifies **pseudocyst** and **pleural effusion** as local complications but incorrectly includes **ileus**, which is a **systemic complication**. - It also omits **acute fluid collection**, an important local complication of acute pancreatitis.
Question 13: Which of the following are risk factors for the development of pancreatic cancer? 1. Cigarette smoking 2. Diabetes mellitus 3. Obesity 4. Caucasian ethnicity Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- A. 1, 2 and 3 (Correct Answer)
- B. 2, 3 and 4
- C. 1, 3 and 4
- D. 1, 2 and 4
Explanation: ***1, 2 and 3*** - **Cigarette smoking** is a well-established and significant modifiable risk factor for pancreatic cancer, increasing the risk two to three-fold [1]. - **Long-standing diabetes mellitus**, particularly type 2, is both an independent risk factor and can be an early symptom of pancreatic cancer. **Obesity** is also clearly linked to an increased risk of pancreatic cancer, likely due to chronic inflammation and metabolic changes. *2, 3 and 4* - While diabetes mellitus and obesity are risk factors, **Caucasian ethnicity** is not considered a primary isolated risk factor for pancreatic cancer; rather, the incidence is slightly higher in certain other ethnic groups like African Americans. - This option incorrectly includes ethnicity as a primary risk factor while excluding **cigarette smoking**, which is a major contributor [1]. *1, 3 and 4* - This option correctly identifies **cigarette smoking** and **obesity** as risk factors. However, it incorrectly includes **Caucasian ethnicity** as a specific risk factor while omitting **diabetes mellitus**, which is a strong and well-documented risk factor. - **Diabetes mellitus** is a more significant risk factor than ethnicity. *1, 2 and 4* - This option correctly identifies **cigarette smoking** and **diabetes mellitus** as risk factors. However, it incorrectly includes **Caucasian ethnicity** and omits **obesity**, which is a well-established and significant risk factor. - **Obesity** has a stronger and more direct link to pancreatic cancer risk than ethnicity.
Question 14: Which of the following statements are correct regarding renal cell carcinoma? 1. It arises from the epithelium of the proximal convoluted tubule. 2. It has a female preponderance. 3. Major subtypes are clear cell, papillary and chromophobe. 4. Surgery is the mainstay of treatment for organ-confined disease. Select the answer using the code given below.
- A. 1, 2 and 3
- B. 1, 3 and 4 (Correct Answer)
- C. 1, 2 and 4
- D. 2, 3 and 4
Explanation: ***1, 3 and 4*** - **Renal cell carcinoma (RCC)** most commonly arises from the **epithelium of the proximal convoluted tubule**, particularly the clear cell subtype [1]. This makes statement 1 correct. - The major subtypes of RCC are indeed **clear cell, papillary, and chromophobe carcinomas**, accounting for the vast majority of cases [1]. This validates statement 3. - For **organ-confined renal cell carcinoma**, **surgical resection (nephrectomy)** remains the primary and most effective treatment modality, making statement 4 correct. [1] *1, 2 and 3* - This option incorrectly includes statement 2, which claims a female preponderance for RCC. **Renal cell carcinoma is more common in males** than females, not the reverse [1]. - While statements 1 and 3 are correct regarding the origin and major subtypes of RCC, the inclusion of an incorrect epidemiological fact makes this option wrong. *1, 2 and 4* - This option falls short by incorrectly including statement 2, which asserts a female predominance for RCC. **RCC has a male predominance**, with a male-to-female ratio of about 2:1 [1]. - This option also omits statement 3, which correctly identifies the major subtypes (clear cell, papillary, and chromophobe), even though statements 1 and 4 are correct. *2, 3 and 4* - This option incorrectly includes statement 2, which states a female preponderance for RCC; **renal cell carcinoma is actually more prevalent in males** [1]. - While statements 3 and 4 are correct regarding the major subtypes and the role of surgery in organ-confined disease, the factual error in statement 2 invalidates this option.
Pathology
1 questionsWhich of the following are metabolic causes of splenic enlargement?
UPSC-CMS 2024 - Pathology UPSC-CMS Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 11: Which of the following are metabolic causes of splenic enlargement?
- A. Porphyria and Felty's syndrome
- B. Amyloid and Gaucher's disease (Correct Answer)
- C. Myelofibrosis and Weil's disease
- D. Rickets and Still's disease
Explanation: ***Amyloid and Gaucher's disease*** - **Amyloidosis** is characterized by the extracellular deposition of insoluble abnormal **fibrillar proteins (amyloid)** in various organs, including the spleen, leading to its enlargement [2]. - **Gaucher's disease** is a **lysosomal storage disorder** where macrophages accumulate **glucocerebroside**, particularly in the spleen, liver, and bone marrow, causing significant **splenomegaly** [1]. *Porphyria and Felty's syndrome* - **Porphyria** is a group of metabolic disorders primarily affecting **heme synthesis**, leading to diverse symptoms, but **splenomegaly** is not a primary or prominent feature. - **Felty's syndrome** is a severe manifestation of **rheumatoid arthritis** combined with **splenomegaly** and **neutrogenia**, and while it causes splenomegaly, it's an **immune-mediated** condition rather than a primary metabolic storage disease. *Myelofibrosis and Weil's disease* - **Myelofibrosis** is a **myeloproliferative neoplasm** characterized by bone marrow fibrosis, extramedullary hematopoiesis (often in the spleen), and **splenomegaly**, but it is not a metabolic disorder [3]. - **Weil's disease** is a severe form of **leptospirosis**, an **infectious disease** that can cause hepatosplenomegaly, but it is not a metabolic cause. *Rickets and Still's disease* - **Rickets** is a bone disease caused by a **vitamin D deficiency** leading to impaired bone mineralization, and it does not typically cause **splenomegaly**. - **Still's disease** (Systemic Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis in children, or Adult-Onset Still's Disease) is an **inflammatory disorder** characterized by fever, rash, joint pain, and can cause **splenomegaly** as part of a systemic inflammatory response, not due to a metabolic storage issue. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Genetic Disorders, pp. 162-163. [2] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. (Basic Pathology) introduces the student to key general principles of pathology, both as a medical science and as a clinical activity with a vital role in patient care. Part 2 (Disease Mechanisms) provides fundamental knowledge about the cellular and molecular processes involved in diseases, providing the rationale for their treatment. Part 3 (Systematic Pathology) deals in detail with specific diseases, with emphasis on the clinically important aspects., pp. 135-136. [3] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Diseases of White Blood Cells, Lymph Nodes, Spleen, and Thymus, pp. 631-632.
Surgery
5 questionsWhich among the following are complications of liver trauma? 1. Liver abscess 2. Biliary fistula 3. Portal thrombosis 4. Liver failure Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Which one of the following statements is correct about mesenteric cysts?
Which of the following are features of umbilical hernia in adults? 1. Patients are commonly overweight with a thinned and attenuated midline raphe. 2. Most patients are asymptomatic or present with a painless swelling. 3. Men are affected more than women. 4. Hernia repair can be done by the technique described by Mayo. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
What is the most common cause of perforation of the oesophagus?
Which of the following are stages of damage control surgery? 1. Patient selection 2. Control of haemorrhage 3. Resuscitation in ICU 4. Preventive surgery Select the correct answer using the code given below.
UPSC-CMS 2024 - Surgery UPSC-CMS Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 11: Which among the following are complications of liver trauma? 1. Liver abscess 2. Biliary fistula 3. Portal thrombosis 4. Liver failure Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- A. 1, 2 and 4 (Correct Answer)
- B. 1, 2 and 3
- C. 2, 3 and 4
- D. 1, 3 and 4
Explanation: ***1, 2 and 4*** - **Liver abscess** is a well-recognized complication resulting from infected devitalized tissue, hematoma, or bile contamination following liver trauma. - **Biliary fistula** is a common complication occurring when bile leaks from damaged intrahepatic or extrahepatic bile ducts, potentially forming external fistulas or bilomas. - **Liver failure** may result from extensive parenchymal damage, massive blood loss causing hepatic ischemia, coagulopathy, and metabolic derangements. - These three represent the **most common and clinically significant** complications of liver trauma encountered in clinical practice. *1, 2 and 3* - While **portal thrombosis** can theoretically occur after portal vein injury in liver trauma, it is a **rare complication** compared to liver abscess, biliary fistula, and liver failure. - This option incorrectly prioritizes portal thrombosis over the more common and clinically significant complication of liver failure. *2, 3 and 4* - This option incorrectly omits **liver abscess**, which is one of the most important delayed complications of liver trauma. - Abscess formation from infected hematomas or devitalized tissue is far more commonly encountered than portal thrombosis. *1, 3 and 4* - This option incorrectly omits **biliary fistula**, which is one of the most frequent complications of liver trauma. - Bile duct injury with subsequent bile leakage occurs in a significant proportion of liver trauma cases, making biliary fistula more clinically relevant than portal thrombosis.
Question 12: Which one of the following statements is correct about mesenteric cysts?
- A. It presents most commonly as a painless abdominal swelling. (Correct Answer)
- B. It is more common in males as compared to females.
- C. It occurs most commonly in children less than 18 years of age.
- D. Percutaneous aspiration with injection of sclerosant is the preferred treatment option.
Explanation: ***It presents most commonly as a painless abdominal swelling.*** - **Mesenteric cysts** typically manifest as a **slowly growing**, **asymptomatic abdominal mass**, which is often discovered incidentally or due to mild pressure symptoms. - Their **painless nature** and gradual enlargement contribute to this common presentation. *Percutaneous aspiration with injection of sclerosant is the preferred treatment option.* - **Simple aspiration** or sclerotherapy of mesenteric cysts is generally **contraindicated** due to the high risk of recurrence and potential for complications like infection or rupture. - The **preferred treatment** for mesenteric cysts is surgical excision to prevent recurrence and complications. *It is more common in males as compared to females.* - While rare overall, mesenteric cysts are **more prevalent in females** than males, although the exact reason for this disparity is not fully understood. - Some studies suggest a **female-to-male ratio** of approximately 2:1. *It occurs most commonly in children less than 18 years of age.* - Mesenteric cysts can occur at any age, but they are **more common in adults**, with the highest incidence typically reported in the third to fifth decades of life. - Although they can be found in children, this is **not the most common age group** for presentation.
Question 13: Which of the following are features of umbilical hernia in adults? 1. Patients are commonly overweight with a thinned and attenuated midline raphe. 2. Most patients are asymptomatic or present with a painless swelling. 3. Men are affected more than women. 4. Hernia repair can be done by the technique described by Mayo. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- A. 2, 3 and 4
- B. 1, 2 and 3
- C. 1, 3 and 4
- D. 1, 2 and 4 (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***1, 2 and 4*** - **Overweight patients** often have increased intra-abdominal pressure and weakened abdominal walls, contributing to the development of an umbilical hernia and a **thinned midline raphe**. - **Most adult umbilical hernias are asymptomatic** or present as painless swellings; patients typically notice a bulge that may increase with coughing or straining. Pain usually indicates **complications** such as incarceration or strangulation. - The **Mayo repair** is a classic technique specifically designed for umbilical hernias, involving the overlapping of the rectus sheath for a strong repair. *2, 3 and 4* - While patients are often **asymptomatic** (statement 2 correct) and the **Mayo repair** is standard (statement 4 correct), statement 3 is incorrect; **women are more commonly affected** by umbilical hernias than men. *1, 2 and 3* - Patients are commonly **overweight** (statement 1 correct) and often **asymptomatic** (statement 2 correct), but statement 3 is incorrect as umbilical hernias are seen **more often in women** than men. *1, 3 and 4* - Patients are commonly **overweight** (statement 1 correct) and the **Mayo repair** is a recognized technique (statement 4 correct), but statement 3 is incorrect because **women are more affected** than men. Statement 2 is also correct as most patients are asymptomatic.
Question 14: What is the most common cause of perforation of the oesophagus?
- A. Barotrauma
- B. Malignancy
- C. Mediastinitis
- D. Iatrogenic injury (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Correct: Iatrogenic injury*** - **Iatrogenic injuries** are the most common cause of esophageal perforation, accounting for **50-75%** of all cases. - Most commonly occur during **endoscopic procedures** (upper GI endoscopy, esophageal dilation, biopsy, bougie dilation, pneumatic dilation for achalasia, sclerotherapy). - Other iatrogenic causes include **nasogastric tube insertion**, esophageal stent placement, and intraoperative injuries during thoracic or cervical surgery. - The incidence has increased with the widespread use of therapeutic endoscopy. *Incorrect: Barotrauma* - **Boerhaave syndrome** (spontaneous esophageal rupture from forceful vomiting) is the most common cause of *spontaneous* perforation. - Accounts for only **15-20%** of all esophageal perforations. - Typically occurs after severe vomiting, retching, or Valsalva maneuver causing sudden increase in intra-esophageal pressure. - Most commonly involves the **left posterolateral wall of the lower esophagus**, 3-6 cm above the gastroesophageal junction. *Incorrect: Malignancy* - Esophageal tumors (carcinoma, lymphoma) can **erode through the esophageal wall** leading to perforation. - However, this is a **rare complication** and accounts for a small percentage of perforations. - More commonly, perforation in malignancy occurs during endoscopic intervention rather than spontaneous erosion. *Incorrect: Mediastinitis* - **Mediastinitis** is a **consequence** of esophageal perforation, not a cause. - Results from leakage of esophageal contents (saliva, gastric acid, food particles) into the mediastinum. - Leads to severe infection with high mortality if not promptly treated with antibiotics, drainage, and surgical repair.
Question 15: Which of the following are stages of damage control surgery? 1. Patient selection 2. Control of haemorrhage 3. Resuscitation in ICU 4. Preventive surgery Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- A. 1, 3 and 4
- B. 1, 2 and 4
- C. 2, 3 and 4
- D. 1, 2 and 3 (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***1, 2 and 3*** - **Damage control surgery** (DCS) is a multi-stage approach for critically injured patients, involving initial stabilization, followed by definitive repair. - The stages include **patient selection** (for those who would benefit), **initial hemorrhage and contamination control**, and subsequent **resuscitation in the ICU** before a final operation. *1, 3 and 4* - This option incorrectly includes **preventive surgery** as a stage of damage control surgery. - While patient selection and ICU resuscitation are crucial, preventive surgery is not a distinct stage within the standard damage control protocol, which focuses on immediate life-saving measures and delayed definitive repair. *1, 2 and 4* - This option incorrectly includes **preventive surgery** and omits **resuscitation in the ICU**, which is a critical phase of damage control. - After initial surgical control of bleeding and contamination, the patient undergoes aggressive resuscitation and optimization in the ICU before the next surgical stage. *2, 3 and 4* - This option omits **patient selection**, which is the crucial first step in determining who is a candidate for damage control surgery. - It also incorrectly includes **preventive surgery**, as outlined previously.