Biochemistry
2 questionsConsider the following milks : 1. Buffalo milk 2. Cow milk 3. Goat milk 4. Human milk What is the correct order (from highest to lowest) with regard to fat content per 100 gm in the milk?
Which of the following are unsaturated fatty acids? 1. Lauric acid 2. Linoleic acid 3. Oleic acid 4. Palmitic acid Select the correct answer using the code given below.
UPSC-CMS 2024 - Biochemistry UPSC-CMS Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 91: Consider the following milks : 1. Buffalo milk 2. Cow milk 3. Goat milk 4. Human milk What is the correct order (from highest to lowest) with regard to fat content per 100 gm in the milk?
- A. 2 → 1 → 4 → 3
- B. 1 → 3 → 4 → 2 (Correct Answer)
- C. 1 → 2 → 3 → 4
- D. 4 → 2 → 3 → 1
Explanation: ***1 → 3 → 4 → 2*** - **Buffalo milk** generally has the highest fat content (around 6-7%), followed by **goat milk** (4.1%), **human milk** (3.8-4.5%), and finally **cow milk** (3.2-3.8%). - This order reflects the typical fat percentage found in these types of milk, which varies based on breed, diet, and individual factors. *2 → 1 → 4 → 3* - This order incorrectly places cow milk as having the highest fat content and goat milk as the lowest, which is not accurate. - Cow milk typically has a lower fat percentage than buffalo milk. *1 → 2 → 3 → 4* - While buffalo milk is correctly identified as having the highest fat content, this order incorrectly places cow milk above goat milk and human milk. - Human milk and goat milk generally have higher fat content than cow milk. *4 → 2 → 3 → 1* - This order places human milk as having the highest fat content, which is incorrect as buffalo milk consistently has a higher fat content. - It also reverses the correct order for buffalo and cow milk.
Question 92: Which of the following are unsaturated fatty acids? 1. Lauric acid 2. Linoleic acid 3. Oleic acid 4. Palmitic acid Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- A. 2 and 3 (Correct Answer)
- B. 1 and 4
- C. 1 and 2
- D. 3 and 4
Explanation: ***2 and 3*** - **Linoleic acid** is an **omega-6 fatty acid** with two double bonds, making it polyunsaturated. - **Oleic acid** is an **omega-9 fatty acid** with one double bond, making it monounsaturated. *1 and 4* - **Lauric acid** is a **saturated fatty acid** with no double bonds. - **Palmitic acid** is also a **saturated fatty acid** with no double bonds. *1 and 2* - While **linoleic acid** (2) is unsaturated, **lauric acid** (1) is a saturated fatty acid. - This option incorrectly includes a saturated fatty acid. *3 and 4* - While **oleic acid** (3) is unsaturated, **palmitic acid** (4) is a saturated fatty acid. - This option incorrectly includes a saturated fatty acid.
Community Medicine
7 questionsAs per the United Nations definition of a vital events registration system, ‘vital events’ include which of the following? 1. Foetal deaths 2. School admissions 3. Legal separations 4. College graduations Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Consider the following statements regarding Kyasanur Forest Disease (KFD): 1. It is transmitted by ticks. 2. It was originally called 'pig disease' because of the association with dead pigs. 3. It was first recognized in Karnataka State. How many of the statements given above are correct?
In countries with low levels of measles transmission, what should be the appropriate age for starting immunization with measles-containing vaccine (MCV)?
Raju, a 6-year-old boy, was returning home from school. At the gate, he was scratched by a dog and there was some bleeding from the wound. Which option should be followed for the post-exposure prophylaxis?
The method of combined disposal of refuse and night soil is known as
Consider the following statements about working of septic tanks : 1. They are recommended for large communities, rather than small communities. 2. There should be no air space between the level of liquid in the tank and the undersurface of the cover. 3. Liquid effluent from the outlet pipe is free from all pathogens. How many of the statements given above are correct?
In India, the most widely prevalent stage of iron deficiency is
UPSC-CMS 2024 - Community Medicine UPSC-CMS Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 91: As per the United Nations definition of a vital events registration system, ‘vital events’ include which of the following? 1. Foetal deaths 2. School admissions 3. Legal separations 4. College graduations Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- A. 2 and 3
- B. 2 and 4
- C. 1 and 3 (Correct Answer)
- D. 1 and 2
Explanation: ***Correct: 1 and 3*** According to the **United Nations Principles and Recommendations for a Vital Statistics System (Rev. 3)**, vital events are demographic events that have significant impact on an individual's legal status and population statistics. **Foetal deaths (1)** are explicitly included as vital events because they impact **reproductive health statistics** and **population data**. They represent crucial demographic outcomes related to pregnancy and birth outcomes. **Legal separations (3)** are recognized vital events as they fundamentally **alter the civil/marital status** of individuals and must be recorded in vital statistics systems. They fall within the category of marriage-related vital events (marriages, divorces, annulments, legal separations). ### Core vital events per UN definition: - Live births - Deaths (including foetal deaths) - Marriages - Divorces - Legal separations - Adoptions - Legitimations - Recognitions - Annulments *Incorrect: 2 and 3* While **legal separations (3)** are vital events, **school admissions (2)** are NOT considered vital events. School admissions are **administrative processes** related to education, not fundamental demographic or legal changes that affect civil status or population dynamics. *Incorrect: 2 and 4* Neither **school admissions (2)** nor **college graduations (4)** are vital events per UN definition. These are **educational milestones and administrative records** for educational purposes. They do not represent changes in vital status or core demographic events like births, deaths, marriages, or divorces. *Incorrect: 1 and 2* While **foetal deaths (1)** are vital events, **school admissions (2)** are not. School admissions are administrative educational records that do not represent demographic events or changes in an individual's legal/civil status that would be captured in a vital statistics system.
Question 92: Consider the following statements regarding Kyasanur Forest Disease (KFD): 1. It is transmitted by ticks. 2. It was originally called 'pig disease' because of the association with dead pigs. 3. It was first recognized in Karnataka State. How many of the statements given above are correct?
- A. All the three statements
- B. None of the statements
- C. Only two of the statements (Correct Answer)
- D. Only one of the statements
Explanation: ***Only two of the statements*** - Statement 1 is **correct**: KFD is a **tick-borne viral hemorrhagic fever**, primarily transmitted by infected *Haemaphysalis spinigera* ticks - Statement 3 is **correct**: KFD was first identified in the **Kyasanur Forest of Karnataka, India** in 1957 - Statement 2 is **incorrect**: KFD was originally called **'monkey disease' or 'monkey fever'**, not 'pig disease', because of its strong association with **monkey deaths** which serve as an early warning sign *All the three statements* - Incorrect because Statement 2 is false - the disease was associated with monkeys, not pigs *None of the statements* - Incorrect because statements 1 and 3 are both factually accurate regarding **tick-borne transmission** and **geographical origin in Karnataka** *Only one of the statements* - Incorrect because two statements (1 and 3) are correct, not just one
Question 93: In countries with low levels of measles transmission, what should be the appropriate age for starting immunization with measles-containing vaccine (MCV)?
- A. 9 months
- B. 12 months (Correct Answer)
- C. 15-18 months
- D. 6 months
Explanation: ***12 months*** - In countries with **low measles transmission**, the recommended age for the first dose of **Measles-Containing Vaccine (MCV)** is **12 months** (or 12-15 months). - In low-transmission settings, **maternal antibodies persist longer** due to reduced natural boosting from circulating virus, so vaccination can be safely delayed to 12 months for optimal immune response. - This timing ensures maternal antibodies have waned sufficiently while avoiding interference with vaccine effectiveness. *9 months* - The 9-month schedule is recommended for countries with **high measles transmission** where the risk of early infection is greater. - In low-transmission settings, vaccinating at 9 months would mean giving the vaccine when maternal antibodies may still interfere with seroconversion. - WHO recommends 9 months only in high-burden countries or outbreak situations. *15-18 months* - This age range is typically reserved for the **second dose** of the measles vaccine (MCV2) to ensure long-term immunity and catch up children who didn't respond to the first dose. - Starting immunization at this age would leave a significant period of vulnerability to measles infection. - The two-dose schedule provides approximately 97% protection when completed. *6 months* - Administering MCV at 6 months is generally not recommended as maternal **antibodies** are still high and can significantly interfere with the vaccine's effectiveness, leading to poor immune response. - Vaccination at this age might be considered only in very high-risk situations like **outbreaks**, during international travel to endemic areas, or in emergency humanitarian settings. - When given at 6 months, it is not counted as part of the routine schedule, and the child still needs doses at 9 and 15 months.
Question 94: Raju, a 6-year-old boy, was returning home from school. At the gate, he was scratched by a dog and there was some bleeding from the wound. Which option should be followed for the post-exposure prophylaxis?
- A. Wash the wound and vaccinate with ARV only
- B. Wash and apply antiseptic to the wound
- C. Wash the wound and administer a shot of tetanus toxoid
- D. Wash the wound, vaccinate with ARV and administer immunoglobulin (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Wash the wound, vaccinate with ARV and administer immunoglobulin*** - This approach is recommended for **Category III animal bites**, which involve single or multiple transdermal bites or scratches, licks on broken skin, or contamination of mucous membranes with saliva. - The combination of **wound washing**, **antirabies vaccination (ARV)**, and **rabies immunoglobulin (RIG)** provides both immediate passive immunity and active long-term immunity against rabies. *Wash the wound and vaccinate with ARV only* - This is appropriate for **Category II exposures**, such as minor scratches or abrasions without bleeding. - Since there was **bleeding** from the wound, indicating a transdermal breach, ARV alone is insufficient for this higher-risk exposure. *Wash and apply antiseptic to the wound* - While wound washing is the crucial initial step in rabies post-exposure prophylaxis, applying antiseptic alone is **not sufficient** for preventing rabies. - This measure does not provide **passive or active immunization** against the rabies virus. *Wash the wound and administer a shot of tetanus toxoid* - Administering **tetanus toxoid** is important for preventing tetanus, especially if the wound is dirty or deep, but it does not protect against rabies. - This option **omits both rabies vaccination and immunoglobulin**, leaving the individual vulnerable to rabies exposure.
Question 95: The method of combined disposal of refuse and night soil is known as
- A. incineration
- B. composting (Correct Answer)
- C. dumping
- D. controlled tipping
Explanation: ***Composting*** - Composting is a biological process where **organic matter**, including refuse and night soil, **decomposes** under controlled conditions to produce a **nutrient-rich humus**. - This method effectively **stabilizes waste**, reduces pathogens, and recycles valuable resources back into the environment. *Incineration* - Incineration involves the **combustion of waste at high temperatures** to reduce its volume and weight, often producing energy. - It is primarily used for **solid waste disposal** and is not typically combined with night soil due to the high moisture content and potential for air pollution. *Dumping* - Dumping refers to the **unregulated disposal of waste** in open areas, leading to environmental pollution and health hazards. - This method provides **no treatment** or control for refuse or night soil and is an unsanitary practice. *Controlled tipping* - Controlled tipping, or **sanitary landfilling**, involves depositing waste in a systematic manner, covering it with soil daily to minimize environmental impact. - While it's an improved waste disposal method, it doesn't involve the **biological breakdown and resource recovery associated with combining night soil with refuse**.
Question 96: Consider the following statements about working of septic tanks : 1. They are recommended for large communities, rather than small communities. 2. There should be no air space between the level of liquid in the tank and the undersurface of the cover. 3. Liquid effluent from the outlet pipe is free from all pathogens. How many of the statements given above are correct?
- A. All the three statements
- B. Only two of the statements
- C. Only one of the statements (Correct Answer)
- D. None of the statements
Explanation: ***Only one of the statements*** - **This is correct.** Only statement 2 is accurate regarding septic tank operation. **Analysis of each statement:** **Statement 1 (Incorrect):** Septic tanks are recommended for **small communities and individual households**, NOT large communities. Large communities require centralized sewage treatment plants with higher capacity and more sophisticated treatment processes. Septic tanks are ideal for rural areas, scattered housing, and small institutions where centralized sewage systems are not feasible. **Statement 2 (Correct):** There should be **no air space** (or minimal air space) between the liquid level and the cover undersurface to maintain **anaerobic conditions** essential for septic tank functioning. The anaerobic bacteria that decompose organic matter require an oxygen-free environment. This design principle ensures proper digestion of sewage solids in the tank. **Statement 3 (Incorrect):** Liquid effluent from septic tanks is **NOT free from all pathogens**. The septic tank provides only primary treatment, removing settleable solids and partially digesting organic matter. The effluent still contains pathogenic bacteria, viruses, and parasites. This is why the effluent requires further treatment through soak pits, leach fields, or secondary treatment before safe disposal. *All the three statements* - Incorrect because statements 1 and 3 are false. *Only two of the statements* - Incorrect because only statement 2 is accurate. *None of the statements* - Incorrect because statement 2 about maintaining anaerobic conditions is correct.
Question 97: In India, the most widely prevalent stage of iron deficiency is
- A. decreased iron stores without any other detectable abnormalities (Correct Answer)
- B. fall in percentage saturation of transferrin
- C. decrease in the concentration of circulating haemoglobin
- D. overt iron deficiency with impaired haemoglobin synthesis
Explanation: ***decreased iron stores without any other detectable abnormalities*** - This stage represents **latent iron deficiency (Stage 1)**, where the body's iron reserves are depleted (↓ serum ferritin), but hemoglobin and transferrin saturation remain normal. - According to the **epidemiological "iceberg" principle**, subclinical deficiency is always more prevalent than clinically apparent disease in populations. - This is the **most widely prevalent stage** in India, as many individuals with depleted iron stores have not yet progressed to frank anemia, representing the largest segment of the iron deficiency spectrum. - Seen commonly in **nutritionally vulnerable groups** due to inadequate dietary iron intake and chronic blood loss. *fall in percentage saturation of transferrin* - A fall in **transferrin saturation** (<16%) indicates **Stage 2: iron deficient erythropoiesis**, where iron availability for red blood cell production becomes limited. - This occurs after iron stores have been significantly depleted and represents a more advanced stage than simple store depletion. - While common, it is less prevalent than Stage 1 as not all individuals with depleted stores progress to this stage. *decrease in the concentration of circulating haemoglobin* - This signifies **Stage 3: iron deficiency anemia**, where iron deficiency is severe enough to impair hemoglobin synthesis, leading to clinical anemia (Hb <12 g/dL in women, <13 g/dL in men). - Although highly prevalent in India (NFHS-5 data shows 57% anemia in women), it represents a later manifestation that affects fewer individuals than the earlier subclinical stages. - This is the most **commonly detected** stage due to routine Hb screening, but not the most **prevalent** stage overall. *overt iron deficiency with impaired haemoglobin synthesis* - This also describes **Stage 3: iron deficiency anemia**, characterized by microcytic, hypochromic red blood cells due to insufficient iron for heme synthesis. - This is a clinically diagnosable stage with functional impairment, representing the "tip of the iceberg" of the total iron deficiency burden in the population.
Microbiology
1 questionsMonkeypox, a viral zoonotic disease, is caused by
UPSC-CMS 2024 - Microbiology UPSC-CMS Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 91: Monkeypox, a viral zoonotic disease, is caused by
- A. a single-stranded RNA virus
- B. a single-stranded DNA virus
- C. a double-stranded DNA virus (Correct Answer)
- D. a double-stranded RNA virus
Explanation: ***a double-stranded DNA virus*** - Monkeypox is caused by the **monkeypox virus (MPXV)**, which belongs to the **Poxviridae family**. - Viruses in the Poxviridae family are known for having a **double-stranded DNA genome**. *a single-stranded RNA virus* - Many common viruses, such as **SARS-CoV-2 (COVID-19)**, **influenza virus**, and **HIV**, are single-stranded RNA viruses. - This genomic structure is fundamentally different from that of the monkeypox virus. *a single-stranded DNA virus* - Viruses like **Parvovirus B19** are single-stranded DNA viruses. - This type of genome is less common in human pathogens compared to double-stranded DNA or RNA viruses. *a double-stranded RNA virus* - Viruses such as **rotaviruses**, which cause gastroenteritis, are double-stranded RNA viruses. - While also double-stranded, its RNA nature distinguishes it from the DNA genome of monkeypox virus.