Obstetrics and Gynecology
8 questionsWhich of the following is NOT a complication of malaria in pregnancy?
Which of the following is the MOST CHARACTERISTIC symptom complex of ectopic pregnancy? 1. Acute abdominal pain following amenorrhea 2. Abdominal pain with bleeding P/V 3. Fainting attack with shoulder pain 4. Painless continuous bleeding
Premenstrual Syndrome (PMS) should fulfil which of the following criteria? 1. It is not related to any organic lesion. 2. It regularly occurs during the luteal phase and each ovulatory menstruation cycle. 3. Symptoms must be severe enough to disturb the lifestyle of women and seeks medical help. 4. Symptoms persist after the period also.
Which of the following statements is correct regarding constriction ring? 1. Premature rupture of membranes is a high risk factor. 2. It is situated at the junction of upper and lower uterine segment. 3. Uterus never ruptures. 4. The ring is felt per abdomen.
A patient delivered a live healthy baby 4 hours back. Now she has developed persistent severe pain in the perineal region and rectal tenesmus. Local examination reveals a tense and tender purple swelling at the vulva. What is her probable diagnosis?
What is the most immediate intervention in the management of cord prolapse during delivery? 1. Bladder emptying 2. Knee-chest position of the patient 3. Preferably caesarean delivery 4. Lifting up the presenting part of the cord
Which of the following statements represents the PRIMARY obstetric significance at the level of plane of least pelvic dimensions? 1. It is a landmark used for pudendal nerve block analgesia. 2. Deep transverse arrest usually occurs at this plane. 3. It is at this plane that the internal rotation of the fetal head occurs during labour. 4. It marks the beginning of the backward curve of the pelvic axis.
What is the most common first-line investigation used to assess the patency of fallopian tubes?
UPSC-CMS 2022 - Obstetrics and Gynecology UPSC-CMS Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 71: Which of the following is NOT a complication of malaria in pregnancy?
- A. Disseminated intravascular coagulation
- B. Metabolic alkalosis (Correct Answer)
- C. Hypoglycemia
- D. Thrombocytopenia
Explanation: ***Metabolic alkalosis*** - **Metabolic alkalosis** is not typically associated with malaria in pregnancy. - Malaria complications usually lead to conditions like **metabolic acidosis** due to lactate production or kidney dysfunction. *Disseminated intravascular coagulation* - **Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)** is a severe complication of malaria, particularly **severe P. falciparum infection**, leading to widespread clot formation and bleeding. - It occurs due to systemic inflammation and endothelial damage caused by malarial parasites. *Hypoglycemia* - **Hypoglycemia** is a common and serious complication of malaria in pregnancy, especially with **P. falciparum infection**. - It results from increased glucose consumption by parasites, impaired gluconeogenesis, and quinine treatment. *Thrombocytopenia* - **Thrombocytopenia** (low platelet count) is a very common complication in both pregnant and non-pregnant patients with malaria. - It is caused by platelet destruction, splenic sequestration, and bone marrow suppression.
Question 72: Which of the following is the MOST CHARACTERISTIC symptom complex of ectopic pregnancy? 1. Acute abdominal pain following amenorrhea 2. Abdominal pain with bleeding P/V 3. Fainting attack with shoulder pain 4. Painless continuous bleeding
- A. 3. Fainting attack with shoulder pain
- B. 4. Painless continuous bleeding
- C. 2. Abdominal pain with bleeding P/V
- D. 1. Acute abdominal pain following amenorrhea (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Acute abdominal pain following amenorrhea*** - This is the **MOST CHARACTERISTIC symptom complex** because it captures the essential temporal sequence: **amenorrhea** (indicating pregnancy) followed by **acute abdominal pain** (indicating complication). - The classic triad of ectopic pregnancy includes **amenorrhea, abdominal pain, and vaginal bleeding**, but the combination of amenorrhea + acute pain is highly specific and clinically significant. - **Acute abdominal pain** following amenorrhea strongly suggests tubal rupture or distention, requiring immediate evaluation. - This presentation is more specific than pain with bleeding alone, as it establishes the pregnancy context first. *Abdominal pain with bleeding P/V* - While this represents two components of the classic triad, it **lacks the crucial element of amenorrhea** that establishes the pregnancy context. - This symptom complex is **less specific** as it can occur in multiple conditions including **threatened miscarriage, incomplete abortion, or even early intrauterine pregnancy complications**. - Without establishing amenorrhea first, this presentation could represent various obstetric and gynecological conditions. *Fainting attack with shoulder pain* - This represents signs of **ruptured ectopic pregnancy** with significant **hemoperitoneum** causing hypovolemic shock (fainting) and diaphragmatic irritation (referred shoulder pain). - While these are **dramatic and serious signs**, they represent a **late complication** rather than the most characteristic early presentation. - These symptoms indicate a surgical emergency but are not the most common presenting symptom complex. *Painless continuous bleeding* - **Painless bleeding** is NOT characteristic of ectopic pregnancy, which typically causes **painful bleeding** due to tubal distention or rupture. - This presentation is more suggestive of **placenta previa** (in later pregnancy) or **hormonal causes of bleeding** rather than ectopic pregnancy. - Ectopic pregnancy classically presents with **pain** as a prominent feature.
Question 73: Premenstrual Syndrome (PMS) should fulfil which of the following criteria? 1. It is not related to any organic lesion. 2. It regularly occurs during the luteal phase and each ovulatory menstruation cycle. 3. Symptoms must be severe enough to disturb the lifestyle of women and seeks medical help. 4. Symptoms persist after the period also.
- A. 4. Symptoms persist after the period also.
- B. 2. It regularly occurs during the luteal phase and each ovulatory menstruation cycle.
- C. 1. It is not related to any organic lesion. (Correct Answer)
- D. 3. Symptoms must be severe enough to disturb the lifestyle of women and seeks medical help.
Explanation: ***1. It is not related to any organic lesion.*** - PMS is a **functional disorder** and a diagnosis of exclusion, meaning its symptoms should not be attributable to an underlying physical or organic pathology. - While PMS involves hormonal fluctuations during the **luteal phase**, there is no detectable **structural or organic lesion** causing the symptoms. - This is a fundamental criterion to differentiate PMS from other medical conditions. ***2. It regularly occurs during the luteal phase and each ovulatory menstruation cycle.*** - PMS symptoms characteristically occur during the **luteal phase** (after ovulation and before menstruation) and are a key diagnostic feature. - Symptoms must occur in **most cycles** (typically documented in at least 2 out of 3 consecutive cycles) to establish the diagnosis. - This temporal relationship with the menstrual cycle is essential for diagnosis. ***3. Symptoms must be severe enough to disturb the lifestyle of women and seeks medical help.*** - **Functional impairment** is a fundamental diagnostic criterion for PMS. - Symptoms must cause **clinically significant distress** or interfere with work, school, usual activities, or relationships. - This distinguishes PMS from normal premenstrual symptoms that many women experience without functional impairment. *4. Symptoms persist after the period also.* - A key diagnostic criterion for PMS is that symptoms **resolve or significantly improve** with or shortly after the onset of menstruation. - If symptoms persist throughout the menstrual cycle, it suggests a different diagnosis, such as an underlying mood disorder (e.g., depression or anxiety with premenstrual exacerbation) rather than true PMS. - The cyclic nature with symptom-free interval is essential for PMS diagnosis.
Question 74: Which of the following statements is correct regarding constriction ring? 1. Premature rupture of membranes is a high risk factor. 2. It is situated at the junction of upper and lower uterine segment. 3. Uterus never ruptures. 4. The ring is felt per abdomen.
- A. 2. It is situated at the junction of upper and lower uterine segment.
- B. 4. The ring is felt per abdomen.
- C. 1. Premature rupture of membranes is a high risk factor. (Correct Answer)
- D. 3. Uterus never ruptures.
Explanation: ***Premature rupture of membranes is a high risk factor.*** - While **constriction rings** (localized spasmodic contractions of circular uterine muscle) are classically associated with excessive oxytocin use, uncoordinated uterine contractions, and prolonged labor, **premature rupture of membranes (PROM)** can contribute to dysfunctional labor patterns. - PROM leading to **oligohydramnios** may result in the uterus contracting more tightly around fetal parts, potentially predisposing to abnormal uterine contractions including constriction rings. - This represents the most accurate statement among the given options. *It is situated at the junction of upper and lower uterine segment.* - This describes **Bandl's ring** (a pathological retraction ring), NOT a constriction ring. - **Bandl's ring** forms at the junction between the upper contractile and lower passive segments during obstructed labor. - A **constriction ring** is a localized, spasmodic contraction that can occur at **any level of the uterus**, commonly around fetal parts (neck, abdomen, or extremities). *The ring is felt per abdomen.* - A constriction ring is a **deeply situated, localized spasm** of circular uterine muscle that is typically **not palpable abdominally**. - It is diagnosed by vaginal examination where an hourglass contraction of the uterus or entrapment of fetal parts may be detected. - **Bandl's ring** (pathological retraction ring), in contrast, may be visible or palpable abdominally as an oblique ridge across the lower abdomen in cases of severe obstructed labor. *Uterus never ruptures.* - This is **incorrect**. While constriction rings themselves are focal contractions, if associated with obstructed labor or excessive uterine stimulation, they can contribute to conditions that may lead to **uterine rupture**. - Persistent obstruction with continued strong upper segment contractions can cause rupture of the thinner lower uterine segment.
Question 75: A patient delivered a live healthy baby 4 hours back. Now she has developed persistent severe pain in the perineal region and rectal tenesmus. Local examination reveals a tense and tender purple swelling at the vulva. What is her probable diagnosis?
- A. Ruptured uterus
- B. Vulvar hematoma (Correct Answer)
- C. Cervical tear
- D. Perineal tear
Explanation: ***Vulvar hematoma*** - A **vulvar hematoma** presents with severe, persistent perineal pain and a tense, tender, purple swelling at the vulva, often accompanied by **rectal tenesmus** due to pressure from the expanding hematoma. - This condition typically occurs after childbirth due to **trauma to blood vessels** during delivery, where blood accumulates in the vulvar tissues, forming a palpable mass. - Vulvar hematomas are a type of puerperal hematoma that occur in the superficial tissues and are visible on examination. *Ruptured uterus* - A **ruptured uterus** is an obstetric emergency characterized by sudden, severe abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, and signs of **fetal distress** or **maternal shock**. - It usually occurs during labor or delivery and is not associated with localized perineal swelling or rectal tenesmus as the primary presentation. *Cervical tear* - A **cervical tear** typically causes persistent, bright red vaginal bleeding after delivery, but the uterus is usually well-contracted. - While it can cause pain, it does not present with a palpable, tense, purple swelling at the vulva or rectal tenesmus. *Perineal tear* - A **perineal tear** causes pain and can be associated with swelling, but it usually presents as a visible laceration or superficial injury. - While it can cause pain and some swelling, it does not typically manifest as a tense, discrete purple mass with pronounced rectal tenesmus unless complicated by hematoma formation.
Question 76: What is the most immediate intervention in the management of cord prolapse during delivery? 1. Bladder emptying 2. Knee-chest position of the patient 3. Preferably caesarean delivery 4. Lifting up the presenting part of the cord
- A. 2. Knee-chest position of the patient
- B. 4. Lifting up the presenting part off the cord (Correct Answer)
- C. 1. Bladder filling
- D. 3. Preferably caesarean delivery
Explanation: ***Correct: Lifting up the presenting part off the cord*** - **Manual elevation of the presenting part** is the **FIRST and most immediate intervention** in cord prolapse to relieve compression on the umbilical cord. - This can be done by inserting a hand into the vagina and pushing the presenting part upward, maintaining this position until delivery. - This immediate action prevents **fetal hypoxia** by restoring blood flow through the umbilical cord. - This maneuver should be maintained continuously while other interventions are being arranged. *Incorrect: Knee-chest position of the patient* - While **maternal positioning** (knee-chest, Trendelenburg, or exaggerated Sims position) is an important immediate intervention, it is the **second step** after manual elevation. - Positioning uses gravity to help relieve pressure on the prolapsed cord but takes slightly longer to implement than manual elevation. - Both interventions are typically done simultaneously, but manual elevation is the most immediate action. *Incorrect: Preferably caesarean delivery* - **Emergency cesarean delivery** is the **definitive management** for most cases of cord prolapse, not the most immediate intervention. - Surgical delivery requires preparation time, anesthesia, and operating room setup. - Immediate interventions (manual elevation, positioning) must be performed first to protect the fetus while preparing for delivery. *Incorrect: Bladder filling* - **Bladder filling** (with 500-700 ml of saline via catheter) is an adjunctive measure that can help elevate the presenting part and relieve cord compression. - This is a secondary intervention, not the most immediate action. - Note: The management involves bladder **filling** (not emptying) to create upward displacement of the presenting part.
Question 77: Which of the following statements represents the PRIMARY obstetric significance at the level of plane of least pelvic dimensions? 1. It is a landmark used for pudendal nerve block analgesia. 2. Deep transverse arrest usually occurs at this plane. 3. It is at this plane that the internal rotation of the fetal head occurs during labour. 4. It marks the beginning of the backward curve of the pelvic axis.
- A. 4. It marks the beginning of the backward curve of the pelvic axis.
- B. 2. Deep transverse arrest usually occurs at this plane.
- C. 3. It is at this plane that the internal rotation of the fetal head occurs during labour.
- D. 1. It is a landmark used for pudendal nerve block analgesia. (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***It is a landmark used for pudendal nerve block analgesia.*** - The **ischial spines**, which define the plane of least pelvic dimensions, are a crucial landmark for administering a **pudendal nerve block**. - This local anesthetic procedure targets the pudendal nerve as it passes by the **ischial spines**, providing pain relief to the perineum, vulva, and lower vagina. - While this is clinically important, it represents a **procedural application** rather than the primary obstetric mechanism at this plane. *Deep transverse arrest usually occurs at this plane.* - **Deep transverse arrest** occurs when the fetal head fails to rotate from the transverse position at the level of the **ischial spines** (plane of least dimensions). - This represents an important **obstetric complication** but is a pathological condition rather than the normal mechanism of labor at this level. *It is at this plane that the internal rotation of the fetal head occurs during labour.* - **Internal rotation** of the fetal head is a critical mechanism that occurs as the head descends to the level of the **ischial spines** and engages with the pelvic floor. - This represents the **normal physiological mechanism** of labor at this plane, where the head rotates to align with the anteroposterior diameter of the outlet. - However, internal rotation is a **process** that begins above and continues through this plane, rather than occurring exclusively at this single level. *It marks the beginning of the backward curve of the pelvic axis.* - The **pelvic axis** (curve of Carus) represents the path of fetal descent through the pelvis. - The axis does change direction at the level of the ischial spines, beginning to curve **posteriorly**. - However, this is an **anatomical description** rather than the primary obstetric significance related to labor mechanisms at this plane. **Note:** The marking of Option 1 as correct reflects the traditional teaching that the **ischial spines as a clinical landmark** is considered the primary significance. However, from a labor mechanism perspective, internal rotation (Option 3) is equally significant. The question tests understanding of the multiple roles of this anatomical plane.
Question 78: What is the most common first-line investigation used to assess the patency of fallopian tubes?
- A. Sonohysterogram
- B. Laparoscopic chromopertubation
- C. Hysterosalpingogram (Correct Answer)
- D. CT scan
Explanation: ***Hysterosalpingogram (HSG)*** - **Hysterosalpingogram (HSG)** is the **most common first-line investigation** for assessing tubal patency in infertility workup. - It involves injecting a radio-opaque contrast dye through the cervix into the uterine cavity and fallopian tubes, followed by X-ray imaging. - HSG effectively visualizes the **uterine cavity anatomy** and **tubal patency**, detecting blockages or abnormalities. - It is **minimally invasive, outpatient-based**, and provides both diagnostic and potentially therapeutic benefit (flushing effect). *Sonohysterogram* - **Sonohysterogram (SIS)** primarily evaluates the **uterine cavity** for intrauterine pathology like polyps, fibroids, or septae using saline infusion and ultrasound. - A modified version (**HyCoSy** - hystero-salpingo-contrast sonography) can assess tubal patency but is **less commonly used** than HSG as a first-line test. - Standard sonohysterogram does not directly visualize tubal patency. *Laparoscopic chromopertubation* - **Laparoscopic chromopertubation** is the **gold standard invasive method** for directly visualizing tubal patency. - A colored dye (methylene blue) is injected through the cervix and observed flowing through the fimbriated ends of the tubes under direct laparoscopic visualization. - It is **reserved for cases** where non-invasive tests are inconclusive or when concurrent treatment of pelvic pathology (adhesions, endometriosis) is planned. - It is **not a first-line test** due to its invasive nature, cost, and need for anesthesia. *CT scan* - **CT scan** is not used for assessing fallopian tube patency. - While it provides excellent anatomical detail of pelvic organs, it cannot effectively demonstrate the patency or flow through the narrow fallopian tube lumen. - CT is useful for evaluating pelvic masses, malignancies, or complications but not for functional tubal assessment.
Pharmacology
1 questionsAll of the following are correct regarding drospirenone EXCEPT:
UPSC-CMS 2022 - Pharmacology UPSC-CMS Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 71: All of the following are correct regarding drospirenone EXCEPT:
- A. It is safe in renal failure patients. (Correct Answer)
- B. It has antimineralocorticoid action.
- C. It is a fourth generation progestin.
- D. It has antiandrogenic property.
Explanation: ***4. It is safe in renal failure patients*** - **Drospirenone** has **antimineralocorticoid activity**, which can lead to **hyperkalemia**, especially in patients with **renal impairment**. - Therefore, it is **contraindicated** and not safe in patients with **renal failure** due to the increased risk of potentially life-threatening **hyperkalemia**. *3. It has antimineralocorticoid action* - Drospirenone is a unique progestin derived from **spironolactone**, giving it a distinct **antimineralocorticoid effect**. - This effect helps to reduce symptoms like **bloating** and **fluid retention**, which are often associated with other hormonal contraceptives. *2. It has antiandrogenic property* - Drospirenone possesses significant **antiandrogenic properties**, which are beneficial in treating conditions like **acne** and **hirsutism**. - This action helps to counteract the androgenic side effects some other progestins might exhibit, making it a favorable choice for women who experience these issues. *1. It is a fourth generation progestin* - Drospirenone is classified as a **fourth-generation progestin**, developed to offer an improved side effect profile compared to older progestins. - These newer progestins often have more selective receptor binding and distinct pharmacological properties like **antiandrogenic** and **antimineralocorticoid** effects.
Surgery
1 questionsWhich surgery is most likely to disturb the paracervical nerve plexus resulting in atonicity of the bladder?
UPSC-CMS 2022 - Surgery UPSC-CMS Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 71: Which surgery is most likely to disturb the paracervical nerve plexus resulting in atonicity of the bladder?
- A. Simple hysterectomy
- B. Myomectomy
- C. Vaginal hysterectomy
- D. Radical hysterectomy (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Radical hysterectomy*** - This procedure involves extensive dissection around the cervix and upper vagina, increasing the risk of **damage to the paracervical nerve plexus** (Frankenhäuser's plexus). - Damage to this autonomic plexus, which supplies the bladder, can lead to **atonicity** and urinary retention postoperatively due to disrupted innervation. *Simple hysterectomy* - A simple hysterectomy removes the uterus but preserves the parametrial tissues and hence the **paracervical nerve plexus**, minimizing the risk of bladder denervation. - While temporary bladder dysfunction can occur due to local trauma, long-term atonicity is less likely compared to radical procedures. *Myomectomy* - Myomectomy involves the surgical removal of uterine fibroids (myomas) while **preserving the uterus**. - This procedure generally involves minimal dissection in the vicinity of the paracervical nerve plexus, making bladder atonicity an uncommon complication. *Vaginal hysterectomy* - A vaginal hysterectomy removes the uterus through the vagina, with dissection primarily involving the uterosacral and cardinal ligaments. - Although there is some manipulation near the plexus, the **extent of dissection is typically less** than a radical hysterectomy, leading to a lower risk of complete denervation and atonicity.