Anatomy
1 questionsRegarding “conjoined twins”, which of the following statements is/are true? 1. These are always monozygotic 2. These result when division occurs before the embryonic disc is formed 3. Most common variety is thoracopagus Select the correct answer using the code given below:
UPSC-CMS 2017 - Anatomy UPSC-CMS Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 61: Regarding “conjoined twins”, which of the following statements is/are true? 1. These are always monozygotic 2. These result when division occurs before the embryonic disc is formed 3. Most common variety is thoracopagus Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- A. 1 and 2 only
- B. 2 and 3 only
- C. 1, 2 and 3
- D. 1 and 3 only (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***1 and 3 only*** - **Identical (monozygotic)** twins are always conjoined because they develop from a single fertilized egg that imperfectly separates. - **Incomplete division** of the embryonic disc after 13 days from fertilization causes conjoined twins [1]. **Thoracopagus** is the most common type, where twins are joined at the chest [1, 2]. *1 and 2 only* - Conjoined twins are indeed **monozygotic**, but the timing of division is typically *after* the embryonic disc is formed, not before [1]. - Division *before* the embryonic disc forms would usually lead to separate monozygotic twins [1]. *2 and 3 only* - While **thoracopagus** is the most common variety [2], statement 2 regarding the timing of division is incorrect. - Conjoined twins are a result of incomplete separation *after* the formation of the embryonic disc, typically around 13-15 days post-fertilization [1]. *1, 2 and 3* - This option incorrectly states that division occurs *before* the embryonic disc is formed. - The formation of conjoined twins results from an *incomplete* splitting of the **monozygotic embryo** *after* the embryonic disc has already begun to differentiate [1].
Community Medicine
1 questionsThe appropriate treatment for the baby of a woman who is HBsAg positive but HBeAg negative is
UPSC-CMS 2017 - Community Medicine UPSC-CMS Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 61: The appropriate treatment for the baby of a woman who is HBsAg positive but HBeAg negative is
- A. Passive immunisation soon after birth but active immunisation after one year of age
- B. Both active and passive immunisation soon after birth (Correct Answer)
- C. Only active immunisation soon after birth
- D. Only passive immunisation soon after birth
Explanation: **Both active and passive immunisation soon after birth** - **Active immunization** (Hepatitis B vaccine) provides long-term immunity by stimulating the infant's immune system to produce antibodies. - **Passive immunization** (Hepatitis B immune globulin, HBIG) provides immediate, short-term protection through pre-formed antibodies, crucial for preventing infection in the critical perinatal period. *Passive immunisation soon after birth but active immunisation after one year of age* - Delaying active immunization until after one year of age would leave a significant window during which the infant is vulnerable to **Hepatitis B infection** from the mother, as passive immunity is only temporary. - The combination of immediate active and passive immunisation is far more effective at preventing **perinatal transmission**. *Only active immunisation soon after birth* - Active immunization alone may not provide immediate enough protection through antibody development, leaving the infant susceptible to **Hepatitis B infection** during their first few weeks of life when exposure risk is highest. - The onset of protective immunity from the vaccine can take several weeks, which is insufficient for immediate protection against perinatal exposure. *Only passive immunisation soon after birth* - While passive immunisation provides immediate protection, it is only temporary and does not confer long-term immunity against **Hepatitis B**. - Without active immunisation, the infant would eventually lose the passively acquired antibodies and remain vulnerable to future **Hepatitis B exposures**.
Obstetrics and Gynecology
7 questionsMedical management of tubal ectopic pregnancy can be done in the following EXCEPT:
Which of the following genital infections is associated with preterm labour?
Multiple pregnancy is associated with an increased incidence of the following EXCEPT:
Surgical staging is done for all the genital malignancies EXCEPT:
B-Lynch suture for atonic postpartum haemorrhage:
Regarding 'DeLancey's levels of vaginal support', consider the following pairs:
Consider the following pairs regarding foetal heart during labour:
UPSC-CMS 2017 - Obstetrics and Gynecology UPSC-CMS Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 61: Medical management of tubal ectopic pregnancy can be done in the following EXCEPT:
- A. Period of gestation 5 weeks
- B. Absent foetal cardiac activity
- C. Gestational sac diameter 3 cm.
- D. β HCG level more than 10,000 IU (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***β HCG level more than 10,000 IU*** - A **β-HCG level greater than 5,000-10,000 IU/L** is generally considered a contraindication for successful medical management of ectopic pregnancy with methotrexate. - Higher β-hCG levels are associated with a **larger ectopic mass**, making it less likely to respond to medical treatment and increasing the risk of rupture. *Period of gestation 5 weeks* - A **gestational age of 5 weeks** is often within the timeframe where medical treatment with methotrexate can be highly effective. - Early diagnosis and intervention within the first 6-7 weeks of gestation are crucial for successful medical management. *Absent foetal cardiac activity* - The **absence of fetal cardiac activity** is a favorable prognostic indicator for medical management, as it suggests the tissue is less viable and more likely to respond to methotrexate. - Methotrexate targets rapidly dividing cells, and the lack of a heartbeat indicates less metabolic activity. *Gestational sac diameter 3 cm.* - An **ectopic sac diameter of 3 cm** (or less than 3.5-4 cm) is generally within the size limits for successful medical management. - Larger sac diameters increase the risk of treatment failure and rupture, pushing towards surgical intervention.
Question 62: Which of the following genital infections is associated with preterm labour?
- A. Human Papilloma Virus
- B. Monilial vaginitis
- C. Bacterial vaginosis (Correct Answer)
- D. Trichomonas vaginalis
Explanation: ***Bacterial vaginosis*** - Bacterial vaginosis (BV) is strongly associated with an increased risk of **preterm labor** and **premature rupture of membranes** due to the production of proteases and phospholipases by anaerobic bacteria. - The imbalance of vaginal flora, particularly the overgrowth of anaerobic bacteria, can lead to ascending infection and inflammation of the **chorioamniotic membranes**. - BV has the **strongest and most consistent** evidence linking it to preterm birth among genital infections. *Human Papilloma Virus* - HPV infection is primarily known for causing **genital warts** and increasing the risk of **cervical dysplasia** and cancer. - It is not directly linked to an increased risk of preterm labor. *Monilial vaginitis* - Monilial vaginitis, or **vulvovaginal candidiasis** (yeast infection), is a common cause of vaginal discomfort, itching, and discharge. - While uncomfortable, it is not consistently associated with an increased risk of preterm labor or other adverse pregnancy outcomes. *Trichomonas vaginalis* - *Trichomonas vaginalis* infection is a sexually transmitted infection that can cause **vaginitis**, cervicitis, and urethritis. - While some studies suggest a possible association with adverse pregnancy outcomes, the evidence is **inconsistent and significantly weaker** compared to bacterial vaginosis, making BV the most established cause of preterm labor among these options.
Question 63: Multiple pregnancy is associated with an increased incidence of the following EXCEPT:
- A. Post date pregnancy (Correct Answer)
- B. Congenital malformations
- C. Hyperemesis gravidarum
- D. Pregnancy induced hypertension
Explanation: ***Post date pregnancy*** - **Multiple pregnancies** are instead associated with a significantly **increased risk of preterm birth** due to uterine overdistension and increased fetal-placental hormonal signaling. - Due to the high risk of complications for both mother and fetuses, multiple pregnancies are often delivered before the estimated due date or by **elective induction**/ **cesarean section**, making post-date pregnancy extremely rare. *Congenital malformations* - The incidence of **congenital malformations** is **increased in multiple pregnancies**, particularly in **monochorionic twins**, partly due to increased vascular anastomoses and potential for discordant growth or twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome (TTTS). - Both **monozygotic** and **dizygotic twins** have a higher risk of various malformations compared to singletons, including neural tube defects and cardiac anomalies. *Hyperemesis gravidarum* - **Hyperemesis gravidarum (severe nausea and vomiting)** is more common in multiple pregnancies due to higher levels of pregnancy hormones, especially **beta-human chorionic gonadotropin (β-hCG)**. - The increased placental mass in multiple gestations leads to **elevated hCG** levels, which are strongly correlated with the severity of nausea and vomiting. *Pregnancy induced hypertension* - **Pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH)**, including **gestational hypertension** and **preeclampsia**, is significantly more prevalent in multiple pregnancies. - The **larger placental mass** and increased maternal physiological burden contribute to a higher risk of developing PIH, often with **earlier onset** and **increased severity**.
Question 64: Surgical staging is done for all the genital malignancies EXCEPT:
- A. Gestational trophoblastic neoplasia (Correct Answer)
- B. Fallopian tube malignancy
- C. Endometrial carcinoma
- D. Ovarian malignancy
Explanation: ***Gestational trophoblastic neoplasia*** - Gestational trophoblastic neoplasia (GTN) is primarily staged **clinically** and **biochemically** using beta-human chorionic gonadotropin (β-hCG) levels. - **Surgical staging is not typically performed** for GTN due to its high sensitivity to chemotherapy and its hematogenous spread pattern. *Fallopian tube malignancy* - **Surgical staging is essential** for fallopian tube malignancy to determine disease extent and guide treatment. - Staging often involves **laparotomy**, histological examination, and evaluation of surrounding tissues. *Endometrial carcinoma* - **Surgical staging is the cornerstone of management** for endometrial carcinoma, as it provides crucial prognostic information. - This typically includes **hysterectomy**, bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy, and lymph node dissection. *Ovarian malignancy* - **Comprehensive surgical staging** is standard for ovarian malignancy to assess the spread of the disease within the peritoneal cavity. - This involves **laparotomy**, biopsies, and often extensive debulking procedures.
Question 65: B-Lynch suture for atonic postpartum haemorrhage:
- A. ligates the uterine arteries
- B. ligates the ovarian vessels
- C. compresses the uterus (Correct Answer)
- D. ligates the utero-ovarian anastomosis
Explanation: ***compresses the uterus*** - The **B-Lynch suture** is a **compression suture** applied to the uterus to mechanically reduce blood flow through sustained pressure on both anterior and posterior uterine walls. - This mechanical compression helps to achieve **haemostasis** in cases of **atonic postpartum haemorrhage** by bringing the uterine walls together and reducing the uterine cavity size. *ligates the uterine arteries* - **Uterine artery ligation** is a separate surgical procedure that involves directly tying off the uterine arteries to reduce blood flow. - The B-Lynch suture does not ligate these arteries directly; its primary mechanism is compression rather than direct vessel occlusion. *ligates the ovarian vessels* - **Ovarian artery ligation** is also a distinct surgical intervention. The B-Lynch suture is placed around the uterus and does not directly ligate the ovarian vessels. - Ovarian vessels are primarily responsible for supplying the ovaries and part of the fallopian tubes, and their ligation is not the main action of a B-Lynch suture in PPH management. *ligates the utero-ovarian anastomosis* - While there are anastomoses between the uterine and ovarian arterial systems, the B-Lynch suture does not specifically ligate these connections. - Its mechanism is general uterine compression to reduce overall blood flow and promote myometrial contraction rather than specific vessel ligation.
Question 66: Regarding 'DeLancey's levels of vaginal support', consider the following pairs:
- A. 2 only
- B. 1, 2 and 3 (Correct Answer)
- C. 1 and 3 only
- D. 2 and 3 only
Explanation: ***1, 2 and 3*** - DeLancey's levels of vaginal support categorize the anatomical support structures of the vagina into three levels, providing a framework for understanding pelvic organ prolapse. - **Level I** refers to the **apical support** provided by the uterosacral and cardinal ligaments, supporting the uterus and upper vagina. - **Level II** supports the **mid-vagina**, including the paravaginal attachments to the arcus tendineus fascia pelvis (ATFP), providing lateral support. - **Level III** supports the **distal vagina**, including the fusion of the anterior and posterior vaginal walls with the levator ani muscles, perineal body, and urethral support. *2 only* - This option is incomplete as it only recognizes Level II, which supports the mid-vagina, but omits the correct descriptions for Levels I and III, which are also accurately presented. - All three levels described in the table correspond correctly to DeLancey's levels of vaginal support. *1 and 3 only* - This option is incomplete as it misses the correct description for Level II, which accurately states it supports the mid-vagina. - While Level I and Level III are correctly described, a comprehensive understanding requires all three levels. *2 and 3 only* - This option is incomplete because it omits the correct description for Level I, which corresponds to apical support. - Even though Levels II and III are correctly described, all three levels presented in the table are consistent with DeLancey's classification.
Question 67: Consider the following pairs regarding foetal heart during labour:
- A. 1 and 2
- B. 2 and 3 (Correct Answer)
- C. 2 only
- D. 1 and 3
Explanation: ***2 and 3*** - The description for **late decelerations** correctly identifies them as resulting from causes like **maternal hypotension**, **placental insufficiency**, or **excessive uterine activity**, which lead to uteroplacental insufficiency and fetal hypoxia. - The description for **variable decelerations** accurately states that they are caused by **umbilical cord compression**, which is the characteristic cause of this deceleration pattern. Variable decelerations have an abrupt onset and variable timing relative to contractions. *1 and 2* - The first statement regarding **early decelerations** is incorrect if it states they are caused by **cord compression**. Early decelerations are actually caused by **fetal head compression leading to vagal stimulation**, not cord compression. - While the second statement about late decelerations is correct, combining it with an incorrect statement about early decelerations makes this option incorrect. *2 only* - While the description for **late decelerations** is correct, this option is incomplete because the description for **variable decelerations** (statement 3) is also correct. - Answering "2 only" would imply that statement 3 is incorrect, which is not true. *1 and 3* - The first statement regarding **early decelerations** is incorrect if it attributes them to **cord compression** rather than **fetal head compression**. - While the third statement regarding **variable decelerations** is correctly described as being due to **umbilical cord compression**, the incorrectness of the first statement makes this option invalid.
Pathology
1 questionsWhich of the following conditions of the endometrium is associated with a significantly increased risk of development of cancer?
UPSC-CMS 2017 - Pathology UPSC-CMS Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 61: Which of the following conditions of the endometrium is associated with a significantly increased risk of development of cancer?
- A. Complex hyperplasia with atypia (Correct Answer)
- B. Complex hyperplasia
- C. Simple atypical hyperplasia
- D. Simple hyperplasia
Explanation: ***Complex hyperplasia with atypia*** - This condition carries the highest risk of progression to **endometrial carcinoma**, with approximately a 29% chance of concurrent or subsequent carcinoma [1], [2]. - The presence of **atypia** (abnormal cellular architecture and nuclear features) is the critical factor indicating a high malignant potential [1], [2]. *Complex hyperplasia* - While a form of endometrial hyperplasia, it lacks the **atypical cellular features** that significantly elevate the risk of malignancy [1]. - The risk of progression to endometrial carcinoma is much lower, around 3%, compared to atypical forms [1]. *Simple atypical hyperplasia* - This condition features **atypia** but with a less complex glandular architectural proliferation than complex atypical hyperplasia [2]. - Although it has a lower risk of malignancy than complex atypical hyperplasia (around 8%), it still has a significantly higher risk than non-atypical hyperplasias. *Simple hyperplasia* - This is the **least severe** form of endometrial hyperplasia, characterized by glandular and stromal proliferation without architectural complexity or cellular atypia [1]. - The risk of progression to endometrial carcinoma is very low, approximately 1%, making it far less concerning than atypical forms [1]. **References:** [1] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Female Genital Tract Disease, pp. 473-475. [2] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Female Genital Tract, pp. 1016-1018.