Anatomy
1 questionsImportant landmark in submandibular gland dissection is:
UPSC-CMS 2017 - Anatomy UPSC-CMS Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 21: Important landmark in submandibular gland dissection is:
- A. Posterior border of mylohyoid muscle (Correct Answer)
- B. Anterior belly of digastric muscle
- C. Facial artery
- D. Posterior belly of digastric muscle
Explanation: ***Posterior border of mylohyoid muscle*** - Lifting the **posterior border of the mylohyoid muscle** exposes the deep part of the submandibular gland and crucial structures like the **lingual nerve** and **Wharton's duct**. - This landmark serves as a critical guide during dissection, helping to protect adjacent nerves and vessels while ensuring complete gland removal. *Anterior belly of digastric muscle* - The anterior belly of the digastric muscle forms the anterior boundary of the **digastric triangle**, which contains the superficial portion of the submandibular gland. - While relevant for defining the superficial borders, it is not the key landmark for accessing the deep part of the gland or protecting vital structures during dissection. *Facial artery* - The **facial artery** is closely associated with the submandibular gland, usually looping over or through it, but it is not a primary surgical landmark for deeper dissection or critical structure identification. - It is often ligated or preserved during dissection due to its proximity, but its position can vary, making it less reliable as a consistent access guide. *Posterior belly of digastric muscle* - The posterior belly of the digastric muscle forms the posterior boundary of the digastric triangle. - It is relevant for defining the superficial boundaries of the gland but does not provide direct access or guide the deeper dissection of the submandibular gland or protection of critical associated nerves.
Dermatology
1 questionsAll of the following statements are true for keloids EXCEPT:
UPSC-CMS 2017 - Dermatology UPSC-CMS Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 21: All of the following statements are true for keloids EXCEPT:
- A. The maturation and stabilization of the collagen fibrils is inhibited
- B. It is rarely seen in white skinned persons and is more common over the sternum
- C. True keloid does not spread into surrounding tissue (Correct Answer)
- D. True keloid continues to become worse even after one year
Explanation: ***True keloid does not spread into surrounding tissue*** - This statement is **incorrect** as a defining characteristic of keloids is their tendency to **spread beyond the original wound boundaries**, invading surrounding healthy tissue. - This expansive growth differentiates keloids from hypertrophic scars, which remain confined to the site of injury. *The maturation and stabilization of the collagen fibrils is inhibited* - This statement is **true**. In keloids, there is an impairment in the normal maturation process of collagen, leading to an accumulation of **immature, disorganized collagen fibrils**. - This abnormal collagen synthesis and degradation contribute to the excessive and persistent fibrosis characteristic of keloids. *It is rarely seen in white skinned persons and is more common over the sternum* - This statement is **true**. Keloids are more prevalent in individuals with **skin of color (e.g., African, Hispanic, and Asian descent)** and are less common in Caucasians. - Common locations for keloids include the **sternum**, earlobes, shoulders, and upper back, areas under significant skin tension. *True keloid continues to become worse even after one year* - This statement is **true**. Unlike hypertrophic scars which may regress over time, keloids tend to be **persistent and progressive**, often continuing to grow and worsen in size and appearance even years after the initial injury. - They typically do not resolve spontaneously and may even recur after excision.
Internal Medicine
1 questionsWhich of the following is NOT a feature of Systemic Inflammatory Response Syndrome?
UPSC-CMS 2017 - Internal Medicine UPSC-CMS Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 21: Which of the following is NOT a feature of Systemic Inflammatory Response Syndrome?
- A. Hypothermia (less than 36°C)
- B. Hyperthermia (more than 38°C)
- C. Bradycardia (Correct Answer)
- D. Leucocytosis
Explanation: ***Bradycardia*** - **Bradycardia** (a slow heart rate) is **not** a typical diagnostic criterion for **Systemic Inflammatory Response Syndrome (SIRS)**. - SIRS is usually associated with **tachycardia** (heart rate >90 beats/min) due to the body's increased metabolic demand and stress response [2]. *Hypothermia (less than 36°C)* - **Hypothermia** (<36°C) is a recognized diagnostic criterion for **SIRS**, indicating a dysregulated thermoregulatory response. - It often suggests a more severe or decompensated inflammatory state. *Hyperthermia (more than 38°C)* - **Hyperthermia** (>38°C) is a common and primary diagnostic criterion for **SIRS**, reflecting the body's inflammatory response to infection or injury [2], [3]. - This elevated core temperature is part of the systemic response to pathogens or tissue damage. *Leucocytosis* - **Leucocytosis** (white blood cell count >12,000 cells/mm³) is a key diagnostic criterion for **SIRS**, indicating a robust innate immune response [1], [2]. - A WBC count <4,000 cells/mm³ (leucopenia) or >10% immature neutrophils ("bands") also fulfills this criterion.
Surgery
7 questionsWhich of the following is NOT correct for breast abscess?
A 35 year old man presents to Emergency with acute onset pain abdomen radiating to whole abdomen and abdominal distension for one day. On examination, he has tenderness and guarding all over abdomen with pulse rate of 100/m and BP 116/84 mmHg. Chest X-ray erect position shows gas under bilateral domes of diaphragm. Probably he is suffering from:
A 70 year old man comes to Emergency with pain lower abdomen and not passing urine for eight hours. He has a past history of urgency, hesitancy and frequency of urine. On examination, he has a lump up to the umbilicus which is slightly tender. What is the next step of management?
‘Swiss cheese defects’ of anterior abdominal wall after exploratory laparotomy is best seen while doing:
A 35 year old male patient comes to casualty with acute pain abdomen; and on examination found to have cold, clammy extremities, sunken eyes, dry tongue, thready pulse, drawn and anxious face with abdominal guarding and rigidity. This clinical picture indicates:
Which of these is a palliative shunt procedure created between the left subclavian artery and pulmonary artery to treat cyanotic congenital heart disease?
A young male is undergoing emergency surgery for a clinical diagnosis of acute appendicitis. Intraoperatively minimal pus was found but the appendix was normal. What is the next step of management?
UPSC-CMS 2017 - Surgery UPSC-CMS Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 21: Which of the following is NOT correct for breast abscess?
- A. Antibiotic is given if pus is already present
- B. A counterincision is made in the dependant part (Correct Answer)
- C. Drainage of abscess by a radial incision
- D. Dressings are changed frequently
Explanation: ***A counterincision is made in the dependant part*** - For breast abscesses, making a **counterincision** is generally *not* the standard practice unless there are specific, complex circumstances requiring additional drainage. - The primary goal is to **incise and drain** the abscess in one go, without the need for additional counterincisions. *Antibiotic is given if pus is already present* - **Antibiotics** are typically initiated *before* pus formation and continue **post-drainage** to manage infection. - If pus is already present, drainage is the primary treatment, but antibiotics are also necessary to treat the underlying infection and prevent recurrence. *Drainage of abscess by a radial incision* - **Radial incisions** are the preferred method for draining breast abscesses as they align with the natural **ductal architecture** of the breast. - This approach minimizes damage to milk ducts and reduces the risk of **fistula formation** while promoting better cosmetic outcomes. *Dressings are changed frequently* - **Frequent dressing changes** (e.g., daily or every shift) are crucial for managing an open wound after abscess drainage. - This helps to remove **exudate**, monitor for signs of infection, and ensure proper **wound healing** by allowing the cavity to heal from the inside out.
Question 22: A 35 year old man presents to Emergency with acute onset pain abdomen radiating to whole abdomen and abdominal distension for one day. On examination, he has tenderness and guarding all over abdomen with pulse rate of 100/m and BP 116/84 mmHg. Chest X-ray erect position shows gas under bilateral domes of diaphragm. Probably he is suffering from:
- A. Acute pancreatitis
- B. Appendicular perforation
- C. Ruptured liver abscess
- D. Gastric perforation (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Gastric perforation*** - The presence of **bilateral pneumoperitoneum** (gas under both domes of diaphragm) on erect chest X-ray is **pathognomonic for hollow viscus perforation**, with gastric/duodenal perforations being the most common cause. - The clinical presentation of **acute onset generalized abdominal pain**, **tenderness and guarding all over abdomen**, combined with bilateral free air perfectly matches **gastric perforation**. *Acute pancreatitis* - Typically presents with severe **epigastric pain radiating to the back**, often with elevated **serum amylase/lipase**, but does **NOT cause pneumoperitoneum**. - While severe pancreatitis can cause peritonitis, it involves **inflammatory exudate** rather than free air under the diaphragm. *Appendicular perforation* - Usually presents with **localized right iliac fossa pain** initially before generalizing, unlike the immediate generalized presentation described. - Though perforation can cause pneumoperitoneum, it's **less likely to cause prominent bilateral free air** compared to upper GI perforations. *Ruptured liver abscess* - Would typically have a preceding history of **fever, right upper quadrant pain**, and systemic signs of infection before rupture. - Rupture releases **purulent material and exudate** into the peritoneum rather than free air, so **pneumoperitoneum would not be present**.
Question 23: A 70 year old man comes to Emergency with pain lower abdomen and not passing urine for eight hours. He has a past history of urgency, hesitancy and frequency of urine. On examination, he has a lump up to the umbilicus which is slightly tender. What is the next step of management?
- A. Per urethral catheterise the patient (Correct Answer)
- B. Get an urgent USG
- C. Start antibiotics
- D. Per rectal examination
Explanation: ***Per urethral catheterise the patient*** - The patient presents with **acute urinary retention**, indicated by the inability to pass urine for eight hours and a tender palpable bladder up to the umbilicus. - **Catheterization** is the immediate and most effective way to relieve bladder distension, pain, and prevent potential kidney damage. *Get an urgent USG* - While a **ultrasound** can confirm bladder distention and identify underlying causes, it is not the immediate priority. - Relieving the obstruction takes precedence over diagnostic imaging in **acute urinary retention**. *Start antibiotics* - There are no specific signs of infection (e.g., fever, dysuria) to necessitate **immediate antibiotic administration**. - While urinary retention can increase the risk of infection, **antibiotics** should be reserved for confirmed infections or as prophylaxis after catheterization in high-risk patients. *Per rectal examination* - A **per rectal examination** would be performed as part of the initial assessment to evaluate the prostate in a male patient with urinary symptoms. - However, it does not directly address the immediate need to relieve the **urinary obstruction** in acute retention.
Question 24: ‘Swiss cheese defects’ of anterior abdominal wall after exploratory laparotomy is best seen while doing:
- A. Open inguinal hernia repair
- B. Laparoscopic ventral hernia repair (Correct Answer)
- C. Open ventral hernia repair
- D. Laparoscopic inguinal hernia repair
Explanation: ***Laparoscopic ventral hernia repair*** - During **laparoscopic ventral hernia repair**, the surgeon has an **intra-abdominal view** of the anterior abdominal wall. - This allows for direct visualization of multiple, small fascial defects ("Swiss cheese defects") from an old laparotomy incision from the inside. - The **panoramic view** from within the peritoneal cavity enables comprehensive assessment of the entire abdominal wall, making it the best approach to identify scattered defects. *Open inguinal hernia repair* - This approach focuses on the **inguinal canal** and does not provide an adequate view of the entire anterior abdominal wall. - It is performed through an **external incision**, making it difficult to detect multiple small defects throughout the rectus sheath. *Open ventral hernia repair* - While an **open ventral hernia repair** addresses a defect in the anterior abdominal wall, the exposure is typically confined to the immediate area of the hernia. - It may not offer the comprehensive intra-abdominal view necessary to identify scattered "Swiss cheese defects" across a wider area of the fascia. *Laparoscopic inguinal hernia repair* - This procedure primarily involves repairing an **inguinal hernia**, with visualization focused on the inguinal region and the posterior aspect of the groin. - It does not provide the broad intra-abdominal perspective needed to assess for general anterior abdominal wall defects or "Swiss cheese defects" away from the repair site.
Question 25: A 35 year old male patient comes to casualty with acute pain abdomen; and on examination found to have cold, clammy extremities, sunken eyes, dry tongue, thready pulse, drawn and anxious face with abdominal guarding and rigidity. This clinical picture indicates:
- A. Acute cholecystitis
- B. Local peritonitis
- C. Diffuse late peritonitis (Correct Answer)
- D. Diffuse early peritonitis
Explanation: ***Diffuse late peritonitis*** - The combination of **cold, clammy extremities**, **thready pulse**, **sunken eyes**, **dry tongue**, and an **anxious face** points to significant **systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS)** and **hypovolemic shock**, which are characteristic of late-stage peritonitis. - **Abdominal guarding and rigidity** indicate widespread peritoneal irritation, and the systemic signs confirm that this is a late-stage, diffuse process, rather than localized or early. *Acute cholecystitis* - While it causes **acute pain in the abdomen**, it is typically localized to the **right upper quadrant** and does not usually present with the severe systemic signs of **shock** described (e.g., cold extremities, thready pulse) unless complications like perforation have occurred. - The generalized abdominal guarding and rigidity suggest a more diffuse inflammatory process beyond a single inflamed organ. *Local peritonitis* - This condition involves inflammation of a specific area of the peritoneum, leading to **localized tenderness**, guarding, and rebound tenderness, but typically **without the widespread systemic signs of shock and severe hypovolemia** seen in this patient. - The description of a "drawn and anxious face" and global signs of shock indicate a more widespread, serious condition. *Diffuse early peritonitis* - **Early diffuse peritonitis** would present with generalized abdominal pain, guarding, and rigidity, but the severe systemic signs of **shock** (e.g., cold, clammy extremities, thready pulse, sunken eyes) are usually not as pronounced or absent. - The patient's presentation with **profound signs of hypovolemia and systemic compromise** indicates a more advanced, "late" stage of the disease where fluid shifts and septic shock are already established.
Question 26: Which of these is a palliative shunt procedure created between the left subclavian artery and pulmonary artery to treat cyanotic congenital heart disease?
- A. Waterston's shunt
- B. Lieno renal shunt
- C. Gott’s shunt
- D. Blalock-Taussig shunt (Correct Answer)
Explanation: **Blalock-Taussig shunt** - This procedure creates a **systemic-to-pulmonary artery shunt** by anastomosing a systemic artery (often the **subclavian artery**) to the pulmonary artery, increasing **pulmonary blood flow**. - It is a palliative measure for **cyanotic congenital heart diseases** where there is reduced pulmonary blood flow, such as **Tetralogy of Fallot**. *Waterston's shunt* - This is an older, no longer commonly used palliative shunt connecting the **ascending aorta to the right pulmonary artery**. - It was associated with a high incidence of complications, including **pulmonary overcirculation** and **pulmonary vascular disease**. *Lieno renal shunt* - This refers to a shunt created between the **splenic vein (lienal vein)** and the **left renal vein**. - It is primarily used to treat **portal hypertension** by decompressing the portal venous system, not congenital heart disease. *Gott's shunt* - This involves a **temporary bypass shunt** often used during **thoracic aortic surgery** to protect the spinal cord from ischemia. - It maintains blood flow to the distal aorta during aortic clamping and is not related to congenital heart disease palliation.
Question 27: A young male is undergoing emergency surgery for a clinical diagnosis of acute appendicitis. Intraoperatively minimal pus was found but the appendix was normal. What is the next step of management?
- A. Close the abdomen without doing anything
- B. Search for perforated Meckel’s diverticulum (Correct Answer)
- C. Right hemicolectomy
- D. Appendectomy
Explanation: ***Search for perforated Meckel's diverticulum*** - When the appendix appears normal despite a strong clinical suspicion of appendicitis and **minimal pus** is present, it is crucial to investigate for alternative causes of **right lower quadrant pain** and localized peritonitis. - A **Meckel's diverticulum** is the most common congenital anomaly of the gastrointestinal tract (present in ~2% of population) and can mimic appendicitis when inflamed or perforated, necessitating a thorough search in such scenarios. - Standard practice: Examine the **terminal ileum up to 2 feet proximal to the ileocecal valve** to identify Meckel's diverticulum. *Close the abdomen without doing anything* - Closing the abdomen without identifying the source of the minimal pus and the patient's symptoms would be an **incomplete and potentially negligent** approach. - Doing so risks leaving an **undiagnosed and untreated problem**, which could lead to severe complications such as ongoing sepsis or perforation. *Right hemicolectomy* - **Right hemicolectomy** is an extensive surgical procedure typically reserved for conditions like large bowel obstructions, advanced tumors, or severe inflammatory bowel disease. - Performing a right hemicolectomy based on minimal pus and a normal appendix would be an **overly aggressive and inappropriate response** without a clear indication. *Appendectomy* - While an **incidental appendectomy** of a normal-appearing appendix is sometimes performed to prevent future diagnostic confusion, this alone **does not address the immediate problem**. - The critical error here is **failing to identify the source of the pus** that was found intraoperatively. Simply removing a normal appendix leaves the underlying pathology untreated. - The presence of pus mandates a thorough exploration to find its source—most commonly a **Meckel's diverticulum** in this clinical scenario.