Community Medicine
4 questionsThe two important values necessary for describing the variation in a series of observations are:
The time period from entry of an infective agent into a host until the host develops the capacity for maximal infectivity is called:
Consider the following statements: Symposium is a method of health education characterised by 1. a series of speeches on a selected topic 2. presentation of different aspects of a topic by 3 or 4 experts. 3. a discussion among the symposium members 4. the chairperson making a comprehensive summary at the end of the session Which of these statements are correct?
Consider the following diseases: 1. Rift valley fever 2. Yellow Fever 3. Chikungunya fever 4. West Nile fever Which of the above diseases are transmitted by Aedes mosquito?
UPSC-CMS 2016 - Community Medicine UPSC-CMS Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 31: The two important values necessary for describing the variation in a series of observations are:
- A. Median and standard deviation
- B. Mean and range
- C. Mean and standard deviation (Correct Answer)
- D. Median and range
Explanation: ***Mean and standard deviation*** - The **mean** provides a measure of the **central tendency**, representing the average value in the dataset. - The **standard deviation** quantifies the **dispersion** or spread of the data points around the mean, indicating the variability. *Median and standard deviation* - The **median** is a measure of **central tendency**, specifically the middle value, but it doesn't directly pair with standard deviation for describing overall variation in the most common statistical contexts. - While standard deviation describes spread, using the median for central tendency often leads to other measures of spread like **interquartile range (IQR)** for a more consistent representation of non-normally distributed data. *Mean and range* - The **mean** indicates the central point of the data, but the **range** (difference between maximum and minimum values) is a less robust measure of variation. - **Range** is highly susceptible to outliers and does not provide information about the distribution of data points within the entire set. *Median and range* - The **median** describes the **center** of the data, particularly useful for skewed distributions or data with outliers. - The **range** is a simple measure of spread, but it's very sensitive to extreme values and does not give a comprehensive picture of data variability.
Question 32: The time period from entry of an infective agent into a host until the host develops the capacity for maximal infectivity is called:
- A. Incubation period
- B. Generation time (Correct Answer)
- C. Period of communicability
- D. Serial interval
Explanation: ***Generation time*** - This is defined as the time interval between **entry of an infective agent into a host** until the host develops **maximal infectivity**. - It represents the period from infection to when an infected individual is most capable of transmitting the disease to others. - This term precisely matches the question's definition and is crucial for understanding disease transmission dynamics. *Incubation period* - The incubation period is the time from exposure to an infectious agent until the onset of **clinical symptoms** in the host. - It ends at symptom onset, not at maximal infectivity (which may occur before, during, or after symptom onset depending on the disease). - While infectivity may peak during or near the incubation period for some diseases, this term specifically refers to symptom development, not infectivity capacity. *Serial interval* - The serial interval is the time between the onset of symptoms in a **primary case** and the onset of symptoms in a **secondary case**. - This describes the time between successive cases in a transmission chain, not the development of infectivity in an individual host. *Period of communicability* - This is the **entire duration** during which an infected person can transmit the infectious agent to others. - It describes the total infectious period (from start to end of infectivity), not specifically the time until **maximal** infectivity is reached.
Question 33: Consider the following statements: Symposium is a method of health education characterised by 1. a series of speeches on a selected topic 2. presentation of different aspects of a topic by 3 or 4 experts. 3. a discussion among the symposium members 4. the chairperson making a comprehensive summary at the end of the session Which of these statements are correct?
- A. 1, 3 and 4
- B. 1, 2 and 3
- C. 2 and 3 only
- D. 1, 2 and 4 (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***1, 2 and 4*** - A symposium is indeed characterized by a **series of speeches on a selected topic** (Statement 1) and the **presentation of different aspects of a topic by 3 or 4 experts** (Statement 2), providing a multifaceted view. - The chairperson typically plays a crucial role in concluding the session by **making a comprehensive summary** at the end (Statement 4), consolidating the diverse perspectives presented. *1, 3 and 4* - This option incorrectly includes "a discussion among the symposium members" (Statement 3) as a defining characteristic of a symposium. While discussion might occur after presentations, it's not the primary or required activity among the presenters themselves during the formal symposium structure. - A symposium primarily focuses on structured presentations from experts rather than an open discussion among them. *1, 2 and 3* - This option, like the first, incorrectly states that "a discussion among the symposium members" (Statement 3) is a core element of a symposium. - The format emphasizes individual expert presentations and a concluding summary over a direct discussion among the experts themselves. *2 and 3 only* - This option omits "a series of speeches on a selected topic" (Statement 1) and "the chairperson making a comprehensive summary at the end of the session" (Statement 4), both of which are fundamental characteristics of a symposium. - It also incorrectly includes Statement 3 ("discussion among symposium members"), which is not a defining feature of this format.
Question 34: Consider the following diseases: 1. Rift valley fever 2. Yellow Fever 3. Chikungunya fever 4. West Nile fever Which of the above diseases are transmitted by Aedes mosquito?
- A. 1, 2 and 4
- B. 2, 3 and 4
- C. 1, 2 and 3 (Correct Answer)
- D. 1, 3 and 4
Explanation: ***1, 2 and 3*** - **Rift Valley fever**, **Yellow fever**, and **Chikungunya fever** are all primarily transmitted to humans through the bites of infected **Aedes mosquitoes**. - The **Aedes aegypti** and **Aedes albopictus** species are particularly significant vectors for these viral diseases. *1, 2 and 4* - This option incorrectly includes **West Nile fever** while omitting **Chikungunya fever**. - **West Nile fever** is primarily transmitted by **Culex mosquitoes**, not Aedes mosquitoes. *2, 3 and 4* - This option incorrectly includes **West Nile fever** as an Aedes mosquito-borne disease. - **Yellow fever** and **Chikungunya fever** are indeed transmitted by Aedes mosquitoes, but **West Nile fever** is not. *1, 3 and 4* - This option incorrectly includes **West Nile fever** in the list of Aedes-borne diseases. - While **Rift Valley fever** and **Chikungunya fever** are transmitted by Aedes mosquitoes, **West Nile fever** is primarily transmitted by Culex species.
Internal Medicine
2 questionsConsider the following statements: Poor prognostic indicators in advanced germ cell tumours show 1. primary sites in mediastinum 2. non-pulmonary metastasis 3. lactate dehydrogenase more than 10 times of normal value Which of the statements given above are correct?
Which one of the following is the investigation of choice in a patient with haematemesis?
UPSC-CMS 2016 - Internal Medicine UPSC-CMS Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 31: Consider the following statements: Poor prognostic indicators in advanced germ cell tumours show 1. primary sites in mediastinum 2. non-pulmonary metastasis 3. lactate dehydrogenase more than 10 times of normal value Which of the statements given above are correct?
- A. 1 and 2 only
- B. 2 and 3 only
- C. 1, 2 and 3 (Correct Answer)
- D. 1 and 3 only
Explanation: ***1, 2 and 3*** - **All three statements** represent poor prognostic indicators in advanced germ cell tumors, as defined by the **International Germ Cell Cancer Collaborative Group (IGCCCG)** classification. - A primary site in the **mediastinum**, the presence of **non-pulmonary visceral metastases**, and **LDH levels >10 times the upper limit of normal** are all independent factors associated with a worse prognosis. *1 and 2 only* - This option is incorrect because it excludes a critically important poor prognostic indicator: **markedly elevated lactate dehydrogenase (LDH)**. - While mediastinal primary and non-pulmonary metastases are poor prognostic factors, high LDH further defines the **poor risk group**. [1] *2 and 3 only* - This option is incorrect as it omits the significance of a **mediastinal primary site** as a poor prognostic factor in advanced germ cell tumors. - **Mediastinal germ cell tumors** are known to have a worse prognosis compared to testicular primaries, even in the absence of other poor risk factors. *1 and 3 only* - This option is incorrect because it fails to include **non-pulmonary metastases** as a distinct poor prognostic factor for advanced germ cell tumors. - The presence of metastases to sites like the **liver, brain, or bone** significantly worsens the prognosis compared to lung-only metastases.
Question 32: Which one of the following is the investigation of choice in a patient with haematemesis?
- A. Flexible upper gastrointestinal endoscopy (Correct Answer)
- B. Contrast enhanced CT scan
- C. Barium meal for stomach and duodenum
- D. Selective left gastric angiography
Explanation: ***Flexible upper gastrointestinal endoscopy*** - This is the **investigation of choice** for haematemesis as it allows for direct visualization of the upper gastrointestinal tract to identify the source of bleeding [1]. - It also enables **therapeutic intervention**, such as injection sclerotherapy, banding, or clip application, to stop the bleeding [1]. *Contrast enhanced CT scan* - A CT scan is generally **not the primary investigation** for acute haematemesis because it offers less diagnostic accuracy for mucosal lesions and cannot provide therapeutic intervention [1]. - While it can identify large bleeds or structural abnormalities, it is **less sensitive for smaller bleeds** or subtle mucosal abnormalities compared to endoscopy. *Barium meal for stomach and duodenum* - A barium meal is **contraindicated in acute gastrointestinal bleeding** as the barium can obscure endoscopic views and interfere with subsequent attempts at endoscopy or angiography [1]. - It provides **limited diagnostic information** about the active bleeding site and offers no therapeutic capabilities. *Selective left gastric angiography* - Angiography is typically reserved for cases of **severe, persistent bleeding** where endoscopy has failed to locate or control the bleed. - It is an **invasive procedure** with potential complications and is not indicated as the initial diagnostic investigation.
Pharmacology
1 questionsMatch List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
UPSC-CMS 2016 - Pharmacology UPSC-CMS Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 31: Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
- A. A→4 B→3 C→1 D→2
- B. A→3 B→4 C→2 D→1
- C. A→4 B→3 C→2 D→1 (Correct Answer)
- D. A→3 B→4 C→1 D→2
Explanation: ***A→4 B→3 C→2 D→1*** - This option correctly matches **Stomach poison** with **Sodium fluoride** (4), **Organochlorine compound** with **Dieldrin** (3), **Organophosphorus compound** with **Temephos** (2), and **Carbamates** with **Propoxur** (1). - **Sodium fluoride** acts as a stomach poison requiring ingestion, **Dieldrin** is a persistent organochlorine insecticide, **Temephos** is an organophosphorus compound used for larval control, and **Propoxur** is a carbamate insecticide for household pest control. *A→4 B→3 C→1 D→2* - This option incorrectly matches **Organophosphorus compound** with **Propoxur** (1), which is actually a **carbamate**, not an organophosphorus compound. - It also incorrectly matches **Carbamates** with **Temephos** (2), which is actually an **organophosphorus** compound, not a carbamate. *A→3 B→4 C→2 D→1* - This option incorrectly matches **Stomach poison** with **Dieldrin** (3), which is an **organochlorine compound**, not a stomach poison. - It also incorrectly matches **Organochlorine compound** with **Sodium fluoride** (4), which functions as a **stomach poison**, not an organochlorine compound. *A→3 B→4 C→1 D→2* - This option creates multiple incorrect matches: **Stomach poison** with **Dieldrin** (3) instead of **Sodium fluoride**, and **Organochlorine compound** with **Sodium fluoride** (4) instead of **Dieldrin**. - It also incorrectly swaps the organophosphorus and carbamate matches, placing **Propoxur** with organophosphorus and **Temephos** with carbamates.
Physiology
1 questionsRegarding haemorrhagic shock, which one of the following statements is correct?
UPSC-CMS 2016 - Physiology UPSC-CMS Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 31: Regarding haemorrhagic shock, which one of the following statements is correct?
- A. Tachycardia presents in 100% of hypovolemic patients
- B. Clinically manifested when > 10% of loss of total blood volume occurs
- C. Loss of 40% of circulating volume is life threatening (Correct Answer)
- D. In acute stage of shock, systemic vasodilation becomes evident
Explanation: ***Loss of 40% of circulating volume is life threatening*** - A loss of **40% or more** of circulating blood volume corresponds to **Class IV haemorrhagic shock**, which is a severe, life-threatening condition requiring immediate and aggressive resuscitation. - At this stage, the body's compensatory mechanisms are overwhelmed, leading to profound systemic hypoperfusion, **organ dysfunction**, and a high risk of mortality. *Tachycardia presents in 100% of hypovolemic patients* - While **tachycardia** is a common compensatory mechanism in hypovolemia, it is not present in 100% of patients due to factors such as **beta-blocker use** or **pacemaker rhythm**. - In some early stages of blood loss, especially in young, healthy individuals, sufficient compensatory mechanisms may delay the onset of significant tachycardia. *Clinically manifested when > 10% of loss of total blood volume occurs* - Haemorrhagic shock is typically **clinically manifest** when there is a blood loss greater than **15%** (Class I shock), which represents approximately 750 mL in an average adult. - A loss of **less than 10%** often does not produce overt clinical signs as the body's compensatory mechanisms can effectively maintain vital signs within normal ranges. *In acute stage of shock, systemic vasodilation becomes evident* - In the acute stage of hemorrhagic shock, the body's primary compensatory mechanism is **systemic vasoconstriction**, not vasodilation, to maintain central blood pressure and perfuse vital organs. - **Vasodilation** can occur in the later, decompensated stages of shock, particularly in instances of **septic or neurogenic shock**, leading to a further drop in blood pressure.
Surgery
2 questionsWhich one of the following structures is not removed during a classical radical neck dissection?
Mousseau-Barbin Tube (M.B.Tube) is used for:
UPSC-CMS 2016 - Surgery UPSC-CMS Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 31: Which one of the following structures is not removed during a classical radical neck dissection?
- A. Trapezius (Correct Answer)
- B. Accessory nerve
- C. Sternocleidomastoid
- D. Internal jugular vein
Explanation: ***Trapezius*** - The **trapezius muscle** is consistently spared (not removed) in a classical radical neck dissection, although it becomes non-functional due to sacrifice of its motor nerve supply. - While the muscle remains anatomically in place, removal of the **accessory nerve** leads to denervation of the trapezius, causing severe shoulder dysfunction including **shoulder drop** and inability to abduct the arm past 90 degrees. *Accessory nerve* - The **accessory nerve (cranial nerve XI)** is sacrificed in a classical radical neck dissection to ensure complete removal of lymphatic tissue and metastatic disease. - Its removal results in **denervation and paralysis of the trapezius muscle**, leading to shoulder weakness, shoulder drop, and limited shoulder abduction. - The accessory nerve also innervates the sternocleidomastoid, though this muscle is removed in the procedure. *Sternocleidomastoid* - The **sternocleidomastoid muscle** is removed in a classical radical neck dissection for oncological clearance, as lymph nodes closely associated with it can harbor metastatic disease. - Its removal contributes to cosmetic defect and can affect neck contour and mobility. *Internal jugular vein* - The **internal jugular vein** is resected during a classical radical neck dissection to achieve en bloc removal of lymphatic tissue in levels II, III, and IV, which often contain metastatic disease. - Its removal can lead to **venous congestion** in the head and neck initially, although collateral circulation through the external jugular and vertebral venous systems usually develops over time.
Question 32: Mousseau-Barbin Tube (M.B.Tube) is used for:
- A. Advanced cancer oropharynx
- B. All of these
- C. Advanced cancer stomach
- D. Advanced cancer oesophagus (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Advanced cancer oesophagus*** - The **Mousseau-Barbin tube** is a type of **endoscopic stent** used for palliative management of **dysphagia** caused by advanced **oesophageal cancer**. - It provides a lumen through obstructed oesophageal segments, allowing patients to swallow food and liquids more easily. *Advanced cancer oropharynx* - While dysphagia can be a symptom of oropharyngeal cancer, the Mousseau-Barbin tube is specifically designed for placement within the **oesophagus**. - Management for advanced oropharyngeal cancer often involves other interventions like **radiotherapy**, **chemotherapy**, or **surgical resection**. *All of these* - This option is incorrect because the Mousseau-Barbin tube has a specific application for the **oesophagus**. - It is not routinely used for cancers of the oropharynx or stomach due to differences in anatomical location and disease progression. *Advanced cancer stomach* - Advanced stomach cancer, particularly in the distal stomach, would not typically benefit from an oesophageal stent. - Gastric outlet obstruction can occur, but specific **gastric stents** or **surgical bypasses** are used for this.