Forensic Medicine
3 questionsWhich of the following is true regarding adipocere formation?
Who orders the autopsy in the case of a Road Traffic Accident (RTA)?
Mees' lines and raindrop pigmentation on the hands are seen in which type of poisoning?
NEET-PG 2024 - Forensic Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 221: Which of the following is true regarding adipocere formation?
- A. Preservation by saponification (Correct Answer)
- B. High temperature needed
- C. Cool and dry climate needed
- D. Occurs within minutes to hours
Explanation: ***Preservation by saponification*** - Adipocere, also known as **grave wax**, is formed through the process of **saponification**, where body fat hydrolyzes into fatty acids. - This process leads to the formation of a **waxy, grayish-white substance** that can preserve the body tissues. *High temperature needed* - Adipocere formation is actually favored by **cooler temperatures**, which slow down putrefaction and create a more conducive environment for saponification. - **High temperatures** typically accelerate decomposition, making adipocere formation less likely. *Cool and dry climate needed* - While a **cool environment** is favorable, adipocere formation primarily requires a **moist or wet environment**, such as burial in damp soil or immersion in water. - A **dry climate** would generally lead to mummification rather than adipocere formation. *Occurs within minutes to hours* - Adipocere formation is a **slow process** that usually takes **several weeks to months** (typically 3 weeks to 3 months) to become evident, and even longer to fully develop. - It does not occur within minutes or hours, which is the timeframe for early post-mortem changes like livor mortis or rigor mortis.
Question 222: Who orders the autopsy in the case of a Road Traffic Accident (RTA)?
- A. A. Forensic expert
- B. B. Police (Correct Answer)
- C. C. Lawyer
- D. D. Forensic doctor
Explanation: **B. Police** - In cases of Road Traffic Accidents (RTAs) and other **medico-legal deaths**, the **police** are typically responsible for ordering an autopsy. - This is because the death is suspicious and may involve criminal investigation, requiring formal authorization from law enforcement to establish the cause and manner of death. *A. Forensic expert* - A **forensic expert** performs the autopsy but does not have the authority to order it. - Their role is to conduct the examination and provide expert findings to the investigating authorities. *C. Lawyer* - A **lawyer** may be involved in the legal proceedings related to the RTA but does not have the authority to order an autopsy. - Their role is to represent clients and use the autopsy findings as evidence in court. *D. Forensic doctor* - A **forensic doctor** (or forensic pathologist) is the medical professional who conducts the autopsy. - They do not initiate the autopsy themselves but perform it upon the request of authorized parties, such as the police or a medical examiner/coroner.
Question 223: Mees' lines and raindrop pigmentation on the hands are seen in which type of poisoning?
- A. Arsenic (Correct Answer)
- B. Thallium
- C. Cadmium
- D. Lead
Explanation: **Arsenic** - **Mees' lines** (transverse white bands on fingernails) and **raindrop pigmentation** (hyperpigmentation with scattered hypopigmented spots) are classic dermatological manifestations of chronic arsenic poisoning. - Arsenic interferes with cellular respiration and DNA repair, leading to systemic effects including characteristic skin changes. *Thallium* - Thallium poisoning is often associated with diffuse **hair loss (alopecia)**, sensory neuropathy, and gastrointestinal symptoms. - It does not typically cause Mees' lines or raindrop pigmentation. *Cadmium* - Chronic cadmium exposure is primarily associated with **renal dysfunction** (Fanconi syndrome), **osteomalacia**, and lung disease. - It does not cause the specific nail or skin pigmentation described. *Lead* - Lead poisoning typically manifests with **gastrointestinal symptoms** (colic), neurological deficits (foot drop), and **anemia**. - While it can cause some dermatological changes, **Mees' lines** and **raindrop pigmentation** are not characteristic features.
Internal Medicine
1 questionsA patient presents with tingling sensation in both legs, polyuria, and weight loss. The bone marrow aspirate findings are shown in the image. What is the most likely diagnosis?
NEET-PG 2024 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 221: A patient presents with tingling sensation in both legs, polyuria, and weight loss. The bone marrow aspirate findings are shown in the image. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Multiple myeloma with renal failure
- B. Subacute combined degeneration (SACD) with Vitamin B12 deficiency
- C. Subacute combined degeneration (SACD) with diabetes
- D. Amyloidosis (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Amyloidosis*** - The image shows **amyloid infiltration** in the bone marrow, characterized by amorphous, eosinophilic deposits that can surround cellular elements. - The clinical symptoms of **tingling sensation** (neuropathy), **polyuria** (renal involvement), and **weight loss** are classic manifestations of systemic amyloidosis due to deposition in nerves, kidneys, and other organs. *Multiple myeloma with renal failure* - While multiple myeloma can cause renal failure and neuropathy, the image provided is more consistent with **amyloid deposition** rather than typical plasma cell proliferation seen in myeloma. - The bone marrow aspirate in multiple myeloma would show a significant increase in **atypical plasma cells**. *Subacute combined degeneration (SACD) with Vitamin B12 deficiency* - SACD causes neurological symptoms like tingling and paresthesia, but it is due to **demyelination** of the spinal cord, not amyloid deposition. - Bone marrow findings in **Vitamin B12 deficiency** would typically show megaloblastic anemia. *Subacute combined degeneration (SACD) with diabetes* - Diabetes can cause neuropathy and polyuria, however, the bone marrow aspirate in this case is not related to diabetes. - SACD is primarily associated with **Vitamin B12 deficiency**, not directly with diabetes, although diabetic neuropathy is common.
Microbiology
1 questionsThe image shows microscopic organisms. What is the most appropriate description of these organisms?
NEET-PG 2024 - Microbiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 221: The image shows microscopic organisms. What is the most appropriate description of these organisms?
- A. Wall contains silica and chlorophyll
- B. Present only in bone marrow
- C. Bacteria (Correct Answer)
- D. Not resistant to acid
Explanation: ***Unicellular bacteria*** - The image depicts **bacteria**, which are by definition unicellular prokaryotic microorganisms - Bacteria exhibit varied morphologies (cocci, bacilli, spirilla) which can be visualized under microscopy - This is the most appropriate description among the given options for microscopic bacterial forms *Wall contains silica and chlorophyll* - Silica cell walls are characteristic of **diatoms** (photosynthetic protists), not bacteria - Bacteria have peptidoglycan cell walls, not silica - While some bacteria contain pigments, they do not contain chlorophyll in the same form as eukaryotic organisms *Present only in bone marrow* - This statement is anatomically incorrect for bacteria - Bacteria are ubiquitous and can be found in virtually all environments - Bone marrow primarily contains hematopoietic cells, not bacteria in normal conditions *Not resistant to acid* - This is not a defining characteristic that can be determined from microscopic appearance alone - Many bacteria (e.g., *Mycobacterium tuberculosis*) are **acid-fast** and highly resistant to acid - Acid resistance varies among different bacterial species and requires specific staining (Ziehl-Neelsen) to determine
OB/GYN
1 questionsA USG (ultrasound) shows two babies, one of whom appears to be one month older than the other. What is the term for this condition?
NEET-PG 2024 - OB/GYN NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 221: A USG (ultrasound) shows two babies, one of whom appears to be one month older than the other. What is the term for this condition?
- A. Superfetation
- B. Superfecundation
- C. Twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome (Correct Answer)
- D. Dichorionic diamniotic twins
Explanation: ***Twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome*** - The observation of one baby appearing a month older than the other on ultrasound, particularly in a twin pregnancy, is highly suggestive of **twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome (TTTS)**, where there is an unequal sharing of blood between the twins. - This imbalance leads to one twin (the recipient) becoming larger and plethoric, while the other (the donor) becomes smaller and anemic, creating a noticeable size discrepancy, inaccurately noted as an "older" twin. *Superfetation* - **Superfetation** is the rare phenomenon of a second, new pregnancy occurring during an existing pregnancy, resulting in two fetuses of different gestational ages. - While it results in fetuses of different ages, it specifically refers to conception at different times, which is distinct from the described unequal growth within a single multiple pregnancy. *Superfecundation* - **Superfecundation** refers to the fertilization of two or more ova from the same ovulatory cycle by sperm from different acts of coitus or from different fathers. - It results in twins (or multiples) conceived at roughly the same time, but by different sperm, and does not explain a significant age or size discrepancy between the fetuses. *Dichorionic diamniotic twins* - **Dichorionic diamniotic (DCDA) twins** are the most common type of twins, each having their own placenta and amniotic sac. - While they are two separate pregnancies, this term primarily describes the placental and amniotic sac arrangement and does not inherently explain a significant size discrepancy or "age" difference between the twins without an underlying complication like TTTS.
Pathology
3 questionsIdentify the gene commonly involved in the condition shown in the image?
A patient has a cerebellar mass, renal tumor, and a family history of similar conditions. Which of the following mutations is most likely present in the family?
TTF-1 (Thyroid Transcription Factor-1) immunohistochemical marker is most commonly seen in which of the following?
NEET-PG 2024 - Pathology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 221: Identify the gene commonly involved in the condition shown in the image?
- A. RAS
- B. RET
- C. BRAF V600E (Correct Answer)
- D. P53
Explanation: ***BRAF V600E*** - The image displays cells with **Langerhans cell morphology**, including folded nuclei and abundant pale cytoplasm, which are characteristic of **Langerhans cell histiocytosis (LCH)** [1]. - The **BRAF V600E mutation** is the most common genetic alteration found in LCH, present in about 50-60% of cases and activating the MAPK pathway [1]. *RAS* - **RAS mutations** are frequently seen in various cancers, including colorectal adenocarcinoma, pancreatic adenocarcinoma, and non-small cell lung cancer. - While RAS pathway activation can occur in LCH, a direct RAS mutation is not the most common genetic driver; rather, downstream effectors like BRAF V600E are more prominent [1]. *RET* - **RET mutations** are primarily associated with **medullary thyroid carcinoma** (in both sporadic and inherited forms like MEN 2A and MEN 2B) and can also be found in certain types of lung cancer. - They are not a characteristic genetic alteration for Langerhans cell histiocytosis. *P53* - The **TP53 gene** encodes the tumor suppressor protein p53, and mutations in this gene are among the most frequent genetic alterations across a wide spectrum of human cancers. - Although p53 plays a critical role in cell cycle regulation and apoptosis, it is not a primary or common driver mutation specifically associated with Langerhans cell histiocytosis [1]. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Diseases of White Blood Cells, Lymph Nodes, Spleen, and Thymus, pp. 629-630.
Question 222: A patient has a cerebellar mass, renal tumor, and a family history of similar conditions. Which of the following mutations is most likely present in the family?
- A. VHL (Correct Answer)
- B. Neurofibromatosis (NF1)
- C. Tuberous Sclerosis Complex (TSC)
- D. Li-Fraumeni syndrome
Explanation: ***VHL*** - **Von Hippel-Lindau (VHL) disease** is an inherited disorder characterized by the development of tumors and cysts in various parts of the body, including **hemangioblastomas** in the cerebellum and retina, **renal cell carcinomas**, and pheochromocytomas [1]. - The combination of a **cerebellar mass**, renal tumor, and a family history strongly points to VHL disease, which is caused by a germline mutation in the **VHL tumor suppressor gene** [1]. *Neurofibromatosis (NF1)* - **Neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF1)** typically presents with multiple neurofibromas, **café-au-lait spots**, optic pathway gliomas, and Lisch nodules in the iris. - While NF1 can cause tumors, the specific combination of a cerebellar mass and renal tumor is not typical of NF1, and the characteristic skin findings are not mentioned. *Tuberous Sclerosis Complex (TSC)* - **Tuberous Sclerosis Complex (TSC)** is characterized by the growth of benign tumors in the brain (e.g., **subependymal giant cell astrocytomas**), kidneys (e.g., **angiomyolipomas**), heart, lungs, and skin (e.g., facial angiofibromas) [2]. - While TSC can involve brain and kidney tumors, the typical brain tumors are different (astrocytomas vs. hemangioblastomas), and hemangioblastomas are not a common feature of TSC [2]. *Li-Fraumeni syndrome* - **Li-Fraumeni syndrome** is a rare inherited cancer predisposition syndrome characterized by a high risk of developing various cancers, including **sarcomas**, breast cancer, brain tumors (often astrocytomas or medulloblastomas), and adrenocortical carcinoma. - While brain tumors are part of Li-Fraumeni syndrome, renal cell carcinoma is not a primary feature, and the classic cerebellar hemangioblastoma is not typical for this syndrome. **References:** [1] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Manifestations Of Central And Peripheral Nervous System Disease, pp. 724-727. [2] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Central Nervous System, pp. 1318-1319.
Question 223: TTF-1 (Thyroid Transcription Factor-1) immunohistochemical marker is most commonly seen in which of the following?
- A. Squamous Cell Carcinoma (SCC)
- B. Lung adenocarcinoma (Correct Answer)
- C. Large cell lung cancer
- D. Papillary thyroid carcinoma
Explanation: ***Lung adenocarcinoma*** - **TTF-1 (Thyroid Transcription Factor-1)** is a nuclear transcription factor that is highly expressed in adenocarcinomas of the lung. Positivity for TTF-1 is a key marker used in the diagnosis of primary lung adenocarcinoma, distinguishing it from other lung cancers and metastatic tumors. - While TTF-1 can also be positive in thyroid follicular and papillary carcinomas, its strong association with **lung adenocarcinoma** makes it a crucial diagnostic marker in this context, especially when differentiating between primary lung tumors and metastases or other lung cancer types. *Squamous Cell Carcinoma (SCC)* - **Squamous cell carcinoma of the lung** is generally **negative for TTF-1**. It typically expresses markers like p40 and CK5/6. - TTF-1 has very low sensitivity and specificity for squamous cell carcinoma, making it a poor choice for identifying this type of lung cancer. *Large cell lung cancer* - **Large cell lung carcinoma** is a diagnosis of exclusion and is typically **negative for TTF-1**, as well as other specific markers for adenocarcinoma or squamous cell carcinoma. - This type of cancer is characterized by large, anaplastic cells that lack features of other specific lung cancer types when viewed under a microscope. *Papillary thyroid carcinoma* - While **papillary thyroid carcinoma** is also **TTF-1 positive**, the question asks for the most common context in which TTF-1 is seen, and TTF-1 is a highly valuable marker for confirming a lung primary in the setting of lung masses. - TTF-1's utility in lung cancer diagnostics is particularly significant for differentiating primary lung adenocarcinomas from metastatic tumors and other lung cancer subtypes.
Pharmacology
1 questionsWhich of the following chelating agents is indicated in iron overdose?
NEET-PG 2024 - Pharmacology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 221: Which of the following chelating agents is indicated in iron overdose?
- A. Desferrioxamine (Correct Answer)
- B. BAL
- C. Calcium Edetate
- D. DTPA
- E. Penicillamine
Explanation: ***Desferrioxamine*** - **Desferrioxamine** is a **chelate** formed by the bacterium *Streptomyces pilosus* that has a high affinity for **iron**. - It is currently the most commonly used chelating agent for **acute iron overdose** and **chronic iron overload** conditions like hemochromatosis or transfusional hemosiderosis. *BAL* - **BAL (dimercaprol)** is a chelating agent primarily used for poisoning with **arsenic**, **mercury**, and **gold**. - It works by forming stable cyclic compounds with these metals, facilitating their excretion. *Calcium Edetate* - **Calcium edetate (Calcium-EDTA)** is primarily used for **lead poisoning**. - It works by forming a stable, water-soluble complex with lead, which is then excreted by the kidneys. *DTPA* - **Diethylenetriamine pentaacetate (DTPA)** is a chelating agent primarily used for poisoning with **plutonium** and other **radioactive metals**. - It is not indicated for iron overdose. *Penicillamine* - **Penicillamine** is a chelating agent primarily used for **copper** overload (Wilson's disease) and can also be used for **lead** and **mercury** poisoning. - It is not effective for iron chelation in overdose situations.