NEET-PG 2024 — Microbiology

Q: A frequent traveler presented with 4 days of continuous fever, abdominal pain, and bradycardia. What is the best diagnostic test to confirm the pathogen?

Blood culture. ***Blood culture*** - **Blood culture** is the most sensitive and specific test for confirming **typhoid fever** in the first week of illness. - The presence of **continuous fever** (step-ladder pattern), **abdominal pain**, and **relative bradycardia** in a traveler strongly suggests typhoid fever caused by *Salmonella Typhi*. *Widal test* - The **Widal test** detects antibodies against *Salmonella Typhi* antigens and is often positive later in the disease course. - It has **limited sensitivity and specificity**, especially in endemic areas or with prior vaccination, leading to false positives and negatives. *Urine culture* - **Urine culture** has a low yield for *Salmonella Typhi*, as bacteria are intermittently shed in urine, usually later in the disease. - It's primarily useful for diagnosing **urinary tract infections** or in chronic carriers of typhoid. *Stool culture* - **Stool culture** yield is higher in the later stages of typhoid fever, as *Salmonella Typhi* is shed in feces. - Its sensitivity is lower than blood culture in the early acute phase when bacteremia is most prominent. [Practice more Microbiology PYQs on OnCourse]

Q: An adult patient with a military background is admitted with a rash, fever, altered sensorium, and a deficiency of the membrane attack complex. What is the most likely etiological agent?

Neisseria meningitidis. ***Neisseria meningitidis*** - A deficiency in the **membrane attack complex (MAC)**, particularly **C5-C9 components**, predisposes individuals to recurrent infections with encapsulated bacteria, especially *N. meningitidis*. - *N. meningitidis* is a common cause of **meningitis**, presenting with **fever, altered sensorium**, and often a **petechial rash** due to disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), which align with the patient's symptoms. *Klebsiella pneumoniae* - While *K. pneumoniae* can cause severe infections, including pneumonia and meningitis, it is not specifically associated with **MAC deficiency**. - Its infections more commonly manifest as **severe pneumonia** or **urinary tract infections** in immunocompromised patients. *Haemophilus influenzae* - *H. influenzae* can cause meningitis and other invasive infections, especially in children, but it is not typically linked to **MAC deficiency**. - The classic presentation involving **rash** and severe systemic symptoms as described is more characteristic of **meningococcal disease**. *CMV* - **Cytomegalovirus (CMV)** is a herpesvirus that causes a wide range of diseases, particularly in immunocompromised individuals. - However, CMV infections are primarily associated with **cellular immunity defects** rather than a deficiency in the **membrane attack complex** of the complement system. [Practice more Microbiology PYQs on OnCourse]

Q: A patient was admitted with bloody diarrhea after consumption of oysters. The organism exhibits the Kanagawa phenomenon. What is the correct organism?

Vibrio parahaemolyticus. ***Vibrio parahaemolyticus*** - This organism is a common cause of **gastroenteritis** linked to consumption of **raw or undercooked seafood**, especially oysters, and is known for causing **bloody diarrhea**. - The **Kanagawa phenomenon** refers to the production of **thermostable direct hemolysin (TDH)** by *V. parahaemolyticus*, which is a key virulence factor causing hemolysis and is detectable by a specific agar assay. *Staphylococcus aureus* - While *S. aureus* can cause **food poisoning** through its toxins, it typically presents with **nausea, vomiting**, and **abdominal cramps**, not bloody diarrhea. - Food poisoning from *S. aureus* is usually rapid-onset (within hours) and is associated with **improperly handled foods**, particularly those requiring no cooking after preparation (e.g., salads, custards). *Campylobacter jejuni* - This bacterium is a common cause of **bacterial gastroenteritis** and can lead to **bloody diarrhea**, but it's typically acquired from **poultry** or contaminated water, not specifically oysters. - **Guillain-Barré syndrome** is a serious complication that can follow *C. jejuni* infection, which is not characteristic of *Vibrio* infections. *Salmonella typhi* - *Salmonella typhi* causes **typhoid fever**, a systemic illness characterized by **sustained fever, headache, malaise**, and can lead to a "rose spot" rash. - While it can cause gastrointestinal symptoms, **bloody diarrhea is not the predominant symptom**, and raw oyster consumption is not its typical mode of transmission; it's usually spread through contaminated food or water by asymptomatic carriers. [Practice more Microbiology PYQs on OnCourse]

Q: Desert rheumatism is caused by:

Coccidioides immitis. ***Coccidioides immitis*** - This fungus is the causative agent of **coccidioidomycosis**, also known as **Valley fever** or **desert rheumatism**, due to its prevalence in arid regions. - Infection most commonly occurs through inhalation of **arthroconidia** from disturbed soil in endemic areas. *Paracoccidioides brasiliensis* - This fungus causes **paracoccidioidomycosis** (South American blastomycosis), which is endemic to Latin America. - It typically manifests as chronic granulomatous disease affecting the lungs, skin, mucous membranes, lymph nodes, and internal organs. *Candida albicans* - This is a common opportunistic yeast responsible for various infections, from **superficial mucocutaneous candidiasis** (e.g., thrush, vaginal yeast infections) to severe invasive candidemia. - It is not associated with "desert rheumatism." *Cryptococcus neoformans* - This encapsulated yeast is a major cause of **cryptococcosis**, particularly in immunocompromised individuals. - It commonly causes **meningoencephalitis** and pulmonary disease, and is associated with bird droppings, but not "desert rheumatism." [Practice more Microbiology PYQs on OnCourse]

Q: Broad-based budding yeasts are seen in:

Blastomycosis. ***Blastomycosis*** - This fungal infection is classically characterized by **broad-based budding yeasts** seen on microscopic examination. - The yeast cells are typically large and have a characteristic wide connection between the mother and daughter cells during budding. *Histoplasmosis* - Characterized by **small, intracellular yeasts** often seen within macrophages. - These yeasts do **not exhibit broad-based budding**. *Candidiasis* - Primarily presents as **pseudohyphae** (elongated yeast cells resembling hyphae) and budding yeasts (blastoconidia) with **narrow bases**. - **True hyphae** may also be present depending on the species and growth conditions. *Coccidioidomycosis* - In tissue, it is characterized by **spherules** containing **endospores**, not budding yeasts. - The mycelial form is found in culture or environmental samples. [Practice more Microbiology PYQs on OnCourse]

15 Previous Year Questions with Answers & Explanations

Questions

A frequent traveler presented with 4 days of continuous fever, abdominal pain, and bradycardia. What is the best diagnostic test to confirm the pathogen?

An adult patient with a military background is admitted with a rash, fever, altered sensorium, and a deficiency of the membrane attack complex. What is the most likely etiological agent?

A patient was admitted with bloody diarrhea after consumption of oysters. The organism exhibits the Kanagawa phenomenon. What is the correct organism?

Desert rheumatism is caused by:

Broad-based budding yeasts are seen in:

A female patient presents with dysuria and frequency. A coagulase-negative, novobiocin-resistant Staphylococcus species (>10^4 CFU/mL) was grown in urine culture. What does this indicate?

A patient was diagnosed with Escherichia coli O157:H7 infection. In this designation, what does the "H" stand for?

A man presents with dysuria and urethral discharge after a history of unprotected sex. The Gram stain of his discharge is shown. What is the best culture medium for isolating the organism responsible?

A young boy who used to wash his contact lenses in tap water or with unhygienic lens fluid developed keratitis. Microscopy revealed an organism with spiked or star-shaped structures. Identify the correct organism responsible.

Q10

A patient in the ICU with a central venous catheter (CVC) develops an infection. Microscopy reveals ovoid budding yeast cells. What is the most likely organism?

NEET-PG 2024 - Microbiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 1: A frequent traveler presented with 4 days of continuous fever, abdominal pain, and bradycardia. What is the best diagnostic test to confirm the pathogen?

A. Widal test
B. Blood culture (Correct Answer)
C. Urine culture
D. Stool culture

Explanation: ***Blood culture*** - **Blood culture** is the most sensitive and specific test for confirming **typhoid fever** in the first week of illness. - The presence of **continuous fever** (step-ladder pattern), **abdominal pain**, and **relative bradycardia** in a traveler strongly suggests typhoid fever caused by *Salmonella Typhi*. *Widal test* - The **Widal test** detects antibodies against *Salmonella Typhi* antigens and is often positive later in the disease course. - It has **limited sensitivity and specificity**, especially in endemic areas or with prior vaccination, leading to false positives and negatives. *Urine culture* - **Urine culture** has a low yield for *Salmonella Typhi*, as bacteria are intermittently shed in urine, usually later in the disease. - It's primarily useful for diagnosing **urinary tract infections** or in chronic carriers of typhoid. *Stool culture* - **Stool culture** yield is higher in the later stages of typhoid fever, as *Salmonella Typhi* is shed in feces. - Its sensitivity is lower than blood culture in the early acute phase when bacteremia is most prominent.

Question 2: An adult patient with a military background is admitted with a rash, fever, altered sensorium, and a deficiency of the membrane attack complex. What is the most likely etiological agent?

A. Klebsiella pneumoniae
B. Neisseria meningitidis (Correct Answer)
C. Haemophilus influenzae
D. CMV

Explanation: ***Neisseria meningitidis*** - A deficiency in the **membrane attack complex (MAC)**, particularly **C5-C9 components**, predisposes individuals to recurrent infections with encapsulated bacteria, especially *N. meningitidis*. - *N. meningitidis* is a common cause of **meningitis**, presenting with **fever, altered sensorium**, and often a **petechial rash** due to disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), which align with the patient's symptoms. *Klebsiella pneumoniae* - While *K. pneumoniae* can cause severe infections, including pneumonia and meningitis, it is not specifically associated with **MAC deficiency**. - Its infections more commonly manifest as **severe pneumonia** or **urinary tract infections** in immunocompromised patients. *Haemophilus influenzae* - *H. influenzae* can cause meningitis and other invasive infections, especially in children, but it is not typically linked to **MAC deficiency**. - The classic presentation involving **rash** and severe systemic symptoms as described is more characteristic of **meningococcal disease**. *CMV* - **Cytomegalovirus (CMV)** is a herpesvirus that causes a wide range of diseases, particularly in immunocompromised individuals. - However, CMV infections are primarily associated with **cellular immunity defects** rather than a deficiency in the **membrane attack complex** of the complement system.

Question 3: A patient was admitted with bloody diarrhea after consumption of oysters. The organism exhibits the Kanagawa phenomenon. What is the correct organism?

A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Vibrio parahaemolyticus (Correct Answer)
C. Campylobacter jejuni
D. Salmonella typhi

Explanation: ***Vibrio parahaemolyticus*** - This organism is a common cause of **gastroenteritis** linked to consumption of **raw or undercooked seafood**, especially oysters, and is known for causing **bloody diarrhea**. - The **Kanagawa phenomenon** refers to the production of **thermostable direct hemolysin (TDH)** by *V. parahaemolyticus*, which is a key virulence factor causing hemolysis and is detectable by a specific agar assay. *Staphylococcus aureus* - While *S. aureus* can cause **food poisoning** through its toxins, it typically presents with **nausea, vomiting**, and **abdominal cramps**, not bloody diarrhea. - Food poisoning from *S. aureus* is usually rapid-onset (within hours) and is associated with **improperly handled foods**, particularly those requiring no cooking after preparation (e.g., salads, custards). *Campylobacter jejuni* - This bacterium is a common cause of **bacterial gastroenteritis** and can lead to **bloody diarrhea**, but it's typically acquired from **poultry** or contaminated water, not specifically oysters. - **Guillain-Barré syndrome** is a serious complication that can follow *C. jejuni* infection, which is not characteristic of *Vibrio* infections. *Salmonella typhi* - *Salmonella typhi* causes **typhoid fever**, a systemic illness characterized by **sustained fever, headache, malaise**, and can lead to a "rose spot" rash. - While it can cause gastrointestinal symptoms, **bloody diarrhea is not the predominant symptom**, and raw oyster consumption is not its typical mode of transmission; it's usually spread through contaminated food or water by asymptomatic carriers.

Question 4: Desert rheumatism is caused by:

A. Paracoccidioides brasiliensis
B. Candida albicans
C. Cryptococcus neoformans
D. Coccidioides immitis (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Coccidioides immitis*** - This fungus is the causative agent of **coccidioidomycosis**, also known as **Valley fever** or **desert rheumatism**, due to its prevalence in arid regions. - Infection most commonly occurs through inhalation of **arthroconidia** from disturbed soil in endemic areas. *Paracoccidioides brasiliensis* - This fungus causes **paracoccidioidomycosis** (South American blastomycosis), which is endemic to Latin America. - It typically manifests as chronic granulomatous disease affecting the lungs, skin, mucous membranes, lymph nodes, and internal organs. *Candida albicans* - This is a common opportunistic yeast responsible for various infections, from **superficial mucocutaneous candidiasis** (e.g., thrush, vaginal yeast infections) to severe invasive candidemia. - It is not associated with "desert rheumatism." *Cryptococcus neoformans* - This encapsulated yeast is a major cause of **cryptococcosis**, particularly in immunocompromised individuals. - It commonly causes **meningoencephalitis** and pulmonary disease, and is associated with bird droppings, but not "desert rheumatism."

Question 5: Broad-based budding yeasts are seen in:

A. Histoplasmosis
B. Blastomycosis (Correct Answer)
C. Candidiasis
D. Coccidioidomycosis

Explanation: ***Blastomycosis*** - This fungal infection is classically characterized by **broad-based budding yeasts** seen on microscopic examination. - The yeast cells are typically large and have a characteristic wide connection between the mother and daughter cells during budding. *Histoplasmosis* - Characterized by **small, intracellular yeasts** often seen within macrophages. - These yeasts do **not exhibit broad-based budding**. *Candidiasis* - Primarily presents as **pseudohyphae** (elongated yeast cells resembling hyphae) and budding yeasts (blastoconidia) with **narrow bases**. - **True hyphae** may also be present depending on the species and growth conditions. *Coccidioidomycosis* - In tissue, it is characterized by **spherules** containing **endospores**, not budding yeasts. - The mycelial form is found in culture or environmental samples.

Question 6: A female patient presents with dysuria and frequency. A coagulase-negative, novobiocin-resistant Staphylococcus species (>10^4 CFU/mL) was grown in urine culture. What does this indicate?

A. UTI (Correct Answer)
B. Commensal
C. Contamination
D. Repeat culture needed

Explanation: ***UTI*** - The isolation of a **coagulase-negative, novobiocin-resistant Staphylococcus** in a patient with UTI symptoms suggests **_Staphylococcus saprophyticus_**, a common cause of UTIs in young women. - A bacterial count of **>10^4 CFU/mL** is generally considered significant for diagnosing a UTI, indicating active infection rather than contamination. - _S. saprophyticus_ accounts for 10-20% of UTIs in sexually active young women and is the second most common cause after _E. coli_. *Commensal* - While some coagulase-negative staphylococci can be commensals, **_S. saprophyticus_** is an important pathogen, especially in UTIs. - The combination of **novobiocin resistance** and a significant bacterial count in a symptomatic patient strongly points away from a commensal role. *Contamination* - **Contamination** usually involves lower bacterial counts (<10^4 CFU/mL) or the isolation of multiple different organisms. - The presence of **>10^4 CFU/mL** of a pure culture of a known urinary pathogen (_S. saprophyticus_) in a symptomatic patient makes contamination unlikely. *Repeat culture needed* - Repeat cultures are indicated when initial results are equivocal (e.g., low counts, mixed flora, or asymptomatic bacteriuria). - For symptomatic UTI with **>10^4 CFU/mL** of a known pathogen, a single culture is sufficient for diagnosis and treatment initiation. - Multiple consecutive samples are primarily used for diagnosing **bacteremia** or **endocarditis**, not routine UTI.

Question 7: A patient was diagnosed with Escherichia coli O157:H7 infection. In this designation, what does the "H" stand for?

A. Lipopolysaccharide (LPS)
B. Capsule
C. Flagella (Correct Answer)
D. Fimbriae

Explanation: **Flagella** - The "H" in bacterial designations like *Escherichia coli* O157:H7 refers to the **H antigen**, which is associated with bacterial **flagella**. - Flagellar antigens are important for serotyping bacteria, identifying different strains based on their unique flagellar protein compositions. *Lipopolysaccharide (LPS)* - The "O" in bacterial designations like *E. coli* O157 refers to the **O antigen**, which is part of the **lipopolysaccharide (LPS)** layer on the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria. - LPS is a major component of the bacterial outer membrane and acts as an **endotoxin**. *Capsule* - The "K" in some bacterial serotypes (e.g., *Klebsiella pneumoniae* K1) refers to the **K antigen**, which is associated with the **capsule**. - The capsule is a protective layer surrounding some bacteria that helps them evade phagocytosis. *Fimbriae* - **Fimbriae** (also known as pili) are short, hair-like appendages on the surface of some bacteria that aid in **adhesion** to host cells. - While fimbriae have their own antigenic properties, they are not typically designated by the "H" prefix in standard serotyping, which specifically refers to flagellar antigens.

Question 8: A man presents with dysuria and urethral discharge after a history of unprotected sex. The Gram stain of his discharge is shown. What is the best culture medium for isolating the organism responsible?

A. Thayer-Martin agar (Correct Answer)
B. MacConkey agar
C. Chocolate agar
D. TCBS agar

Explanation: ***Thayer-Martin agar*** - The image shows numerous **polymorphonuclear leukocytes (neutrophils)** with intracellular, gram-negative diplococci, which is characteristic of **Neisseria gonorrhoeae**. - **Thayer-Martin agar** is a selective medium specifically formulated for the isolation of *Neisseria gonorrhoeae* from specimens containing flora. *MacConkey agar* - **MacConkey agar** is a selective and differential medium used primarily for the isolation of Gram-negative **enteric bacilli** and differentiation based on lactose fermentation. - It is not suitable for *Neisseria* species, which are fastidious organisms requiring enriched media. *Chocolate agar* - **Chocolate agar** is an enriched, non-selective medium that supports the growth of fastidious organisms like *Neisseria* species and *Haemophilus influenzae*. - While *Neisseria gonorrhoeae* grows on chocolate agar, **Thayer-Martin agar** is preferred for specimens from sites with normal flora as it inhibits contaminants. *TCBS agar* - **Thiosulfate Citrate Bile Salts Sucrose (TCBS) agar** is a selective medium used for the isolation of *Vibrio* species, particularly *Vibrio cholerae*. - This medium is completely unsuitable for the growth of *Neisseria gonorrhoeae*, which has entirely different nutritional and environmental requirements.

Question 9: A young boy who used to wash his contact lenses in tap water or with unhygienic lens fluid developed keratitis. Microscopy revealed an organism with spiked or star-shaped structures. Identify the correct organism responsible.

A. Balantidium
B. Pseudomonas
C. Acanthamoeba (Correct Answer)
D. Staphylococcus aureus

Explanation: ***Acanthamoeba*** - *Acanthamoeba* is a **free-living amoeba** found in water, soil, and inadequately disinfected contact lens solutions, specifically linked to **keratitis** in contact lens wearers. - Its characteristic morphology, often described as having **spiked or star-shaped structures**, refers to the **acanthopodia** (spine-like pseudopods) that are distinctive features visible microscopically. *Balantidium* - *Balantidium coli* is a **ciliated protozoan** and primarily causes **intestinal infections** (balantidiasis), not keratitis. - It would be distinguished microscopically by its **large size**, **kidney-shaped macronucleus**, and **cilia**, not spiked structures. *Pseudomonas* - *Pseudomonas aeruginosa* is a **bacterium** and a common cause of **bacterial keratitis**, especially in contact lens wearers, but it is not a protozoan. - Microscopically, it would appear as **rod-shaped bacteria**, not organisms with spiked or star-shaped structures. *Staphylococcus aureus* - *Staphylococcus aureus* is a **bacterium** and a frequent cause of various infections, including **bacterial keratitis**. - Under a microscope, it presents as **Gram-positive cocci in clusters**, not as an amoeba with spiked or star-shaped protrusions.

Question 10: A patient in the ICU with a central venous catheter (CVC) develops an infection. Microscopy reveals ovoid budding yeast cells. What is the most likely organism?

A. Candida (Correct Answer)
B. Staphylococcus epidermidis
C. Escherichia coli
D. Staphylococcus aureus

Explanation: ***Candida*** - **Gram-positive ovoid budding organisms** are characteristic findings for yeast, with **Candida** species being the most common cause of CVC-related fungal infections in ICU patients. - Patients with CVCs are at high risk for candidemia due to compromised skin barriers and often receiving broad-spectrum antibiotics, which can disrupt the normal flora. *Staphylococcus epidermidis* - This is a **Gram-positive coccus** that grows in clusters and is a common cause of CVC-related **bacterial infections**, developing **biofilms** on catheters. - It does not present as an ovoid budding organism on microscopy. *Escherichia coli* - This is a **Gram-negative rod**, typically associated with **urinary tract infections** and sepsis from an abdominal source. - It would not appear as a Gram-positive ovoid budding organism and is not a common cause of primary CVC-related bloodstream infections unless there's an associated abdominal source. *Staphylococcus aureus* - This is a **Gram-positive coccus** that grows in grape-like clusters and can cause severe CVC-related bloodstream infections, often leading to **endocarditis** or widespread dissemination. - Like *S. epidermidis*, it is a bacterium and does not exhibit ovoid budding.