Anatomy
1 questionsIdentify the type of cartilage shown in the image.
NEET-PG 2022 - Anatomy NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 41: Identify the type of cartilage shown in the image.
- A. Hyaline cartilage
- B. Elastic cartilage
- C. Dense connective tissue
- D. Fibrocartilage (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Fibrocartilage*** - The image displays **chondrocytes** arranged in rows between bundles of **collagen fibers**, characteristic of fibrocartilage. This structure provides high tensile strength and shock absorption. - Unlike other cartilage types, fibrocartilage lacks a distinct perichondrium and is found in structures requiring extreme strength, such as intervertebral discs and menisci. *Hyaline cartilage* - Hyaline cartilage has an amorphous, **glassy matrix** with chondrocytes typically arranged in small groups (isogenous groups) within lacunae, without prominent collagen bundles. - It is found in articular surfaces, tracheal rings, and the costal cartilages, providing smooth, low-friction surfaces. *Elastic cartilage* - Elastic cartilage is characterized by a high concentration of **elastic fibers** within its matrix, giving it flexibility and resilience. - Chondrocytes are typically scattered and the matrix stains darker due to the elastic fibers, which are not apparent in the image. *Dense connective tissue* - While dense connective tissue contains abundant **collagen fibers**, it lacks chondrocytes in lacunae, instead containing fibroblasts. - The presence of chondrocytes in the image confirms this is cartilage, not dense connective tissue.
Anesthesiology
1 questionsIdentify the mask used for patients requiring high concentrations of oxygen.
NEET-PG 2022 - Anesthesiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 41: Identify the mask used for patients requiring high concentrations of oxygen.
- A. Hudson mask
- B. Nebulizer
- C. Non-rebreathing mask (Correct Answer)
- D. Venturi mask
Explanation: ***Non-rebreathing mask*** - The **non-rebreathing mask** delivers the **highest concentration of oxygen** (FiO2 60-90%) among standard oxygen masks due to a one-way valve that prevents exhaled air from returning to the reservoir bag and ensures only pure oxygen is inhaled. - It is identifiable by the **reservoir bag** which fills with oxygen and one-way valves. *Hudson mask* - The **Hudson mask**, also known as a simple face mask, delivers a **moderate concentration of oxygen (FiO2 35-50%)** and does not have the reservoir bag or one-way valves seen in the image. - It is used for patients requiring a higher oxygen concentration than nasal cannulae, but less than a non-rebreather. *Nebulizer* - A **nebulizer** is a device used to administer medication in the form of a **mist**, typically for respiratory conditions, not primarily for administering high concentrations of oxygen. - While it can be oxygen-driven, its primary function is drug delivery, not oxygen concentration. *Venturi mask* - The **Venturi mask** delivers **precise and consistent concentrations of oxygen (FiO2 24-60%)** through interchangeable jets, which are not visible in the depicted mask. - It is used when precise control over oxygen delivery is crucial, such as in patients with **COPD**.
Forensic Medicine
1 questionsA patient presents with complaints of hair loss and behavioral changes noted by his wife. Upon examination, the doctor observes a loss of eyebrows. After further assessment, including an examination of the nails, what type of poisoning is suspected in this case?
NEET-PG 2022 - Forensic Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 41: A patient presents with complaints of hair loss and behavioral changes noted by his wife. Upon examination, the doctor observes a loss of eyebrows. After further assessment, including an examination of the nails, what type of poisoning is suspected in this case?
- A. Thallium (Correct Answer)
- B. Arsenic
- C. Mercury
- D. Lead
Explanation: ***Thallium*** - **Thallium poisoning** characteristically presents with **hair loss (alopecia)**, including loss of eyebrows, and **neurological symptoms** such as behavioral changes. - It also causes nail changes like **Mees' lines** and is known for its **neurotoxic effects**. *Arsenic* - **Arsenic poisoning** primarily causes **gastrointestinal symptoms** (nausea, vomiting, diarrhea), **skin lesions** (hyperpigmentation, hyperkeratosis), and **neuropathy**. - While it can cause nail changes (Mees' lines), significant alopecia and loss of eyebrows are less prominent compared to thallium. *Mercury* - **Mercury poisoning** often leads to **neurological symptoms** (tremors, ataxia, irritability), kidney damage, and **gingivostomatitis**. - Hair loss and loss of eyebrows are not typical or prominent features of mercury toxicity. *Lead* - **Lead poisoning** is associated with **neurodevelopmental deficits** in children, **peripheral neuropathy**, **abdominal pain (lead colic)**, and **anemia**. - Alopecia and loss of eyebrows are not characteristic symptoms of lead toxicity.
Internal Medicine
2 questionsWhich of the following is not seen in MEN 2B syndrome?
A patient presents to you with fever, night sweats, ptosis, and bilateral facial nerve palsy. Investigations showed leukocytosis and bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
NEET-PG 2022 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 41: Which of the following is not seen in MEN 2B syndrome?
- A. Mucosal neuroma
- B. Marfanoid habitus
- C. Parathyroid adenoma (Correct Answer)
- D. Megacolon
Explanation: ***Parathyroid adenoma*** - **Parathyroid adenomas**, leading to hyperparathyroidism, are characteristic of **MEN 2A syndrome**, not MEN 2B [1]. - While both MEN 2A and 2B involve mutations in the **RET proto-oncogene**, the specific clinical manifestations differ significantly. *Megacolon* - **Megacolon** (due to intestinal ganglioneuromatosis) is a recognized feature of **MEN 2B syndrome**. - This condition involves abnormal nerve ganglion cells in the intestine, leading to motility issues. *Mucosal neuroma* - **Mucosal neuromas** on the tongue, lips, and eyelids are a hallmark clinical sign of **MEN 2B syndrome**. - These benign growths are often one of the earliest and most recognizable features. *Marfanoid habitus* - **Marfanoid habitus**, characterized by a tall, slender build with long limbs and arachnodactyly, is a common physical finding in **MEN 2B syndrome**. - This connective tissue abnormality helps distinguish MEN 2B from other MEN syndromes.
Question 42: A patient presents to you with fever, night sweats, ptosis, and bilateral facial nerve palsy. Investigations showed leukocytosis and bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Sarcoidosis (Correct Answer)
- B. Tuberculosis
- C. Lymphoma
- D. Hypersensitive pneumonitis
Explanation: ***Sarcoidosis*** - The combination of **fever**, **night sweats**, **bilateral facial nerve palsy**, **ptosis**, and **bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy** is highly suggestive of **neurosarcoidosis** manifesting as Heerfordt's syndrome (uveoparotid fever) [1]. - **Leukocytosis** is a non-specific finding but can be present due to inflammatory processes in sarcoidosis. *Tuberculosis* - While tuberculosis can cause **fever**, **night sweats**, and **hilar lymphadenopathy** [2] [3], it is less likely to present with **bilateral facial nerve palsy** and **ptosis** simultaneously. - Pulmonary tuberculosis often shows specific patterns like **apical infiltrates** or cavitations, rather than solely bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy, especially without other classic symptoms like productive cough. *Lymphoma* - Lymphoma can cause **fever**, **night sweats**, and **lymphadenopathy** (including hilar) [4]. - However, **bilateral facial nerve palsy** and **ptosis** are not typical primary manifestations of lymphoma and would require other evidence of direct mass effect or widespread infiltration. *Hypersensitive pneumonitis* - This condition is characterized by **inflammation of the lung alveoli** and small airways due to repeated exposure to inhaled antigens, leading to symptoms like cough, dyspnea, and fever. - It typically does **not cause neurological symptoms** such as facial nerve palsy or ptosis, nor is it prominently associated with hilar lymphadenopathy.
Obstetrics and Gynecology
1 questionsWhich of the following is NOT an absolute contraindication for the use of an Intra Uterine Contraceptive Device (IUD)?
NEET-PG 2022 - Obstetrics and Gynecology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 41: Which of the following is NOT an absolute contraindication for the use of an Intra Uterine Contraceptive Device (IUD)?
- A. Uterine malformation (Correct Answer)
- B. Pregnancy
- C. Active pelvic infection
- D. Known allergy to IUD components
Explanation: ***Uterine malformation*** - While a **uterine malformation** can make IUD placement difficult or increase the risk of expulsion, it is generally considered a **relative contraindication**, not an absolute one. - The decision to place an IUD in such cases depends on the specific type of malformation and the experience of the clinician. *Pregnancy* - **Pregnancy** is an **absolute contraindication** because an IUD offers no protection against pregnancy in an already conceived state and can lead to complications such as miscarriage or ectopic pregnancy if inserted. - Inserting an IUD into a pregnant uterus can cause significant harm to both the mother and the fetus. *Active pelvic infection* - An **active pelvic infection** (e.g., **pelvic inflammatory disease, cervicitis**) is an **absolute contraindication** due to the risk of exacerbating the infection and spreading it further into the uterus and fallopian tubes. - IUD insertion during an active infection can lead to severe complications. *Known allergy to IUD components* - A **known allergy** to any component of the IUD (e.g., copper, plastic) is an **absolute contraindication** to avoid severe allergic reactions. - Allergic reactions can range from localized irritation to systemic responses.
Ophthalmology
1 questionsA 65-year-old male presents with blurred vision and a history of cataract surgery. Upon examination, fluffy white deposits are noted on the anterior lens capsule. What is the most likely diagnosis?
NEET-PG 2022 - Ophthalmology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 41: A 65-year-old male presents with blurred vision and a history of cataract surgery. Upon examination, fluffy white deposits are noted on the anterior lens capsule. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Intraocular foreign body
- B. Pseudoexfoliation syndrome (Correct Answer)
- C. Ocular trauma
- D. Vossius ring
Explanation: ***Pseudoexfoliation syndrome*** - The description of **fluffy white deposits on the anterior lens capsule** in an older patient with blurred vision and a history of cataract surgery is highly characteristic of **pseudoexfoliation syndrome**. - This condition is caused by the abnormal production and accumulation of an **extracellular fibrillar material**, which can also affect the iris, ciliary body, and trabecular meshwork, potentially leading to **glaucoma** and lens subluxation. *Intraocular foreign body* - An intraocular foreign body would typically present with a history of **trauma** and might be visible as a distinct object, rather than diffuse fluffy deposits. - While it can cause inflammation and vision changes, its appearance is not consistent with the described findings. *Ocular trauma* - Ocular trauma would typically have an associated history of injury and could present with various signs like hyphema, iritis, or retinal detachment, but not specifically this type of **fluffy white deposit** on the lens. - While it can lead to vision issues, the specific clinical findings do not point towards acute or chronic sequelae of trauma as the primary diagnosis. *Vossius ring* - A **Vossius ring** is a deposition of iris pigment on the anterior lens capsule, forming a circular ring corresponding to the pupil margin at the time of blunt trauma. - It would appear as a **pigmented ring**, not fluffy white deposits, and is directly linked to a history of blunt trauma.
Orthopaedics
1 questionsAn RTA patient presented to the emergency department with severe pain in the ankle. An X-ray was performed, given below. What is the best next step in management?
NEET-PG 2022 - Orthopaedics NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 41: An RTA patient presented to the emergency department with severe pain in the ankle. An X-ray was performed, given below. What is the best next step in management?
- A. Neurovascular Assessment and Closed reduction with slab application (Correct Answer)
- B. Neurovascular Assessment and Closed reduction with cast application
- C. Neurovascular Assessment and Immediate surgery
- D. Neurovascular Assessment and Immediate open reduction
Explanation: ***Neurovascular Assessment and Closed reduction with slab application*** - The X-ray shows an **ankle dislocation without an obvious fracture**, making **closed reduction** the appropriate initial treatment. - A **slab (splint)** is preferred over a full cast initially for acute injuries to accommodate for swelling, reducing the risk of compartment syndrome, and allowing for serial neurovascular checks. *Neurovascular Assessment and Closed reduction with cast application* - While closed reduction is correct, applying a **full cast** immediately after an acute injury carries a risk of **compartment syndrome** due to potential swelling that cannot be accommodated by a rigid cast. - A cast would typically be applied after the initial swelling has subsided, usually a few days to a week after initial reduction and splinting. *Neurovascular Assessment and Immediate surgery* - **Immediate surgery** is generally reserved for **open fractures/dislocations**, dislocations that cannot be reduced closed (irreducible dislocations), or those with significant associated fractures that require surgical fixation to stabilize the joint. - In this case, the dislocation appears to be isolated and amenable to closed reduction, making surgery not the immediate next step. *Neurovascular Assessment and Immediate open reduction* - **Open reduction** is performed when closed reduction fails or is contraindicated, for example, due to soft tissue interposition or highly unstable fracture patterns. - Since closed reduction has not yet been attempted, immediate open reduction is premature and unnecessary for an apparently simple dislocation.
Pediatrics
1 questionsAn 11-year-old child with a history of streptococcal pharyngitis presents you with fever and arthralgia. There is no past history of rheumatic heart disease or features of carditis or valvular disease. How often is 600,000 IU of benzathine penicillin recommended for prophylaxis of rheumatic heart disease?
NEET-PG 2022 - Pediatrics NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 41: An 11-year-old child with a history of streptococcal pharyngitis presents you with fever and arthralgia. There is no past history of rheumatic heart disease or features of carditis or valvular disease. How often is 600,000 IU of benzathine penicillin recommended for prophylaxis of rheumatic heart disease?
- A. Immediately
- B. Thrice weekly lifelong
- C. Once in three weeks for 10 years or till the age of 25, whichever is longer
- D. Once in three weeks for 5 years or till the age of 18, whichever is longer (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Once in three weeks for 5 years or till the age of 18, whichever is longer*** - For patients with a history of **rheumatic fever** but **no carditis**, secondary prophylaxis with benzathine penicillin G is recommended for **5 years** or until **age 18**, whichever is longer. - The usual dose of benzathine penicillin G for children (under 27 kg) is **600,000 IU** intramuscularly every 3-4 weeks. *Immediately* - This option refers to the timing of initial treatment for **streptococcal pharyngitis**, not the duration or frequency of secondary prophylaxis. - Initiating antibiotic treatment immediately for acute strep throat prevents **acute rheumatic fever**, but long-term prophylaxis follows guidelines. *Thrice weekly lifelong* - This frequency is incorrect; secondary prophylaxis is typically given every **3-4 weeks**, not three times a week. - Lifelong prophylaxis is generally reserved for patients with severe **rheumatic heart disease** or those undergoing valve replacement, which is not the case here. *Once in three weeks for 10 years or till the age of 25, whichever is longer* - This duration is recommended for patients with **rheumatic fever with carditis but no residual heart disease**. - For patients with **carditis** and **residual heart disease**, prophylaxis is often extended for **10 years** or until **age 40**, or even lifelong in severe cases.
Pharmacology
1 questionsA patient presents to the emergency department with a history of ingestion of ten tablets of paracetamol. He has developed oliguria and liver function tests show deranged values. In the context of paracetamol overdose, which of the following can be used in the management of this condition?
NEET-PG 2022 - Pharmacology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 41: A patient presents to the emergency department with a history of ingestion of ten tablets of paracetamol. He has developed oliguria and liver function tests show deranged values. In the context of paracetamol overdose, which of the following can be used in the management of this condition?
- A. N-acetylcysteine (Correct Answer)
- B. Dopamine
- C. Ursodeoxycholic acid
- D. Furosemide
Explanation: **Correct: N-acetylcysteine** - **N-acetylcysteine (NAC)** is the specific antidote for **paracetamol overdose**, working by replenishing **glutathione** stores in the liver. - Replenishing **glutathione** helps detoxify the toxic metabolite **N-acetyl-p-benzoquinone imine (NAPQI)**, preventing further **hepatic damage** and facilitating recovery in cases of **liver failure** and potential **renal damage** (oliguria). - Most effective when given within **8 hours** of ingestion, but remains beneficial even with **established hepatotoxicity** (as in this case with deranged LFTs). *Incorrect: Dopamine* - **Dopamine** is a **vasopressor** primarily used to increase **blood pressure** and **cardiac output** in conditions like **shock**. - While it might be used to support circulation in severe overdose complications, it does not directly treat the **paracetamol toxicity** itself. *Incorrect: Ursodeoxycholic acid* - **Ursodeoxycholic acid (UDCA)** is a **cholagogue** used in the management of **cholestatic liver diseases** (e.g., primary biliary cholangitis) by improving bile flow. - It has no role in the direct management of **acute liver failure** due to **paracetamol overdose**. *Incorrect: Furosemide* - **Furosemide** is a **loop diuretic** used to increase **urine output** in conditions like **fluid overload** or **heart failure**. - While **oliguria** is present, it is often a sign of **acute kidney injury** requiring supportive care, and furosemide would not address the underlying **toxic mechanism** of paracetamol.