Biochemistry
1 questionsCancer cells preferentially utilize glycolysis for energy production even in the presence of adequate oxygen. What is this phenomenon called?
NEET-PG 2022 - Biochemistry NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 101: Cancer cells preferentially utilize glycolysis for energy production even in the presence of adequate oxygen. What is this phenomenon called?
- A. Warburg effect (Correct Answer)
- B. Hypoxic adaptation
- C. Anoxic survival
- D. Oxygen-independent metabolism
Explanation: ***Warburg*** - The **Warburg effect** describes how cancer cells preferentially use glycolysis for energy production even in the presence of oxygen, allowing them to thrive in **hypoxic conditions** [1]. - This metabolic adaptation supports **cell proliferation** and survival in tumor microenvironments where oxygen is limited [1][3]. - Cancer cells upregulate glucose uptake and express specific metabolic enzymes like the M2 isoform of pyruvate kinase that facilitate this altered metabolism [2][4]. *Wanton* - This term typically refers to recklessness or extravagance and is not used in the context of cancer metabolism or hypoxia. - There are no associations with **cancer cell adaptation** under adverse environmental conditions. *Wormian* - **Wormian bones** are extra bone pieces within sutures of the skull, unrelated to cancer cell metabolism or survival mechanisms. - This term does not connect to **hypoxia** or metabolic adaptations in cancer biology. *Wolf* - "Wolf" has no recognized connection to cancer cell biology, particularly regarding metabolic adaptations under **hypoxic stress**. - It does not imply any concept associated with how cancer cells cope with adverse conditions. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Neoplasia, pp. 307-308. [2] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Neoplasia, pp. 308-310. [3] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Neoplasia, pp. 290-291. [4] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. With Illustrations By, pp. 26-27.
Community Medicine
1 questionsBased on healthcare utility values and life expectancy, which of the following measures can be calculated? Consider a scenario where the average life expectancy for a woman in Japan is 87 years, and there is an increase in life expectancy due to healthcare advancements.
NEET-PG 2022 - Community Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 101: Based on healthcare utility values and life expectancy, which of the following measures can be calculated? Consider a scenario where the average life expectancy for a woman in Japan is 87 years, and there is an increase in life expectancy due to healthcare advancements.
- A. HALE
- B. DALY
- C. DFLE
- D. QALY (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***QALY*** - **Quality-Adjusted Life Years (QALYs)** combine the length of life with the **quality of life** lived, taking into account healthcare utility values (e.g., from 0 for dead to 1 for perfect health). - An increase in life expectancy due to healthcare advancements, coupled with assumed utility values, directly enables the calculation of QALYs gained or lost. *HALE* - **Health-Adjusted Life Expectancy (HALE)** is a measure of the average number of years that a person can expect to live in "**full health**" by adjusting for years lived in less than full health due to disease or injury. - While it incorporates health status, it specifically focuses on time lived in full health rather than the utility-weighted quality of life over the entire lifespan as QALYs do. *DALY* - **Disability-Adjusted Life Years (DALYs)** measure the total number of healthy years lost due to disease, disability, or premature death. - DALYs are a measure of disease burden, quantifying years lost, whereas QALYs are a measure of health gains or health states. *DFLE* - **Disability-Free Life Expectancy (DFLE)** measures the expected number of years an individual will live without disability. - While it considers the absence of disability, it does not incorporate the concept of "utility values" or varying degrees of health-related quality of life beyond a binary disabled/non-disabled state, as QALYs do.
Forensic Medicine
2 questionsA 45-year-old female patient is told about the benefits and complications of a hysterectomy, and she agrees to the procedure. What kind of consent is this?
A surgeon is called to perform an emergency operation after attending a party. During the operation, the assisting staff notices the surgeon's hands shaking and instruments falling from his grasp. He eventually nicks an artery, leading to the patient's collapse and significant blood loss. Under which legal term is this incident most likely to be classified in Indian medical jurisprudence?
NEET-PG 2022 - Forensic Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 101: A 45-year-old female patient is told about the benefits and complications of a hysterectomy, and she agrees to the procedure. What kind of consent is this?
- A. Informed consent (Correct Answer)
- B. Implied consent
- C. Opt-out consent
- D. Passive consent
Explanation: ***Informed consent*** - This type of consent occurs when a patient is fully educated about the proposed treatment, including its **benefits, risks, and alternatives**, and voluntarily agrees to proceed. - It ensures the patient has adequate information to make an **autonomous decision** about their healthcare. *Implied consent* - This consent is inferred from a patient's **actions or conduct**, rather than being explicitly stated or written. - Examples include extending an arm for a blood draw or arriving at an appointment for a specific test. *Opt-out consent* - This model assumes agreement unless the individual explicitly **refuses or declines** participation. - It is commonly used in organ donation systems, where individuals are presumed donors unless they register otherwise. *Passive consent* - This usually refers to situations where explicit consent is not sought but also explicitly not denied, such as when parents are informed about a school health program and are given the opportunity to decline, but if they don't, consent is assumed. - It is less formal than informed consent and typically used for **low-risk interventions** or data collection.
Question 102: A surgeon is called to perform an emergency operation after attending a party. During the operation, the assisting staff notices the surgeon's hands shaking and instruments falling from his grasp. He eventually nicks an artery, leading to the patient's collapse and significant blood loss. Under which legal term is this incident most likely to be classified in Indian medical jurisprudence?
- A. Criminal negligence in medical practice (Correct Answer)
- B. Civil negligence
- C. Medical error
- D. Informed consent violation
Explanation: ***Criminal negligence in medical practice*** - This incident involves **reckless disregard for patient safety** by performing surgery while clearly impaired, leading to severe harm. - Under **IPC Section 304A (causing death by negligence)** and **Sections 337/338 (causing hurt by endangering life)**, operating while impaired constitutes **gross negligence** with criminal liability. - The surgeon's actions demonstrate **wanton and willful omission** of duty by consciously choosing to operate despite obvious unfitness, which distinguishes this from simple civil negligence. - Indian courts have held that such **reckless deviation from standard care** elevates negligence to the criminal level (*Kusum Sharma v. Batra Hospital, 2010*). *Civil negligence* - This typically involves a **breach of duty of care** without the same level of deliberate or reckless disregard for life. - While civil liability would certainly apply, the **conscious decision to operate while impaired** elevates this beyond mere inadvertence or error in judgment. - Civil negligence addresses compensation; criminal negligence addresses punishment for gross deviation from duty. *Medical error* - This refers to an **unintended act of commission or omission** in medical care, often without culpable mental state. - While nicking an artery could be a technical error, the **context of obvious impairment** transforms this into negligence rather than a bona fide error. - The surgeon's **unfitness to perform surgery** indicates a failure to meet even basic standards of care before attempting the procedure. *Informed consent violation* - This occurs when a patient has not been adequately informed about **risks, benefits, and alternatives** before consenting to a procedure. - The primary issue here is the surgeon's **fitness and capability**, not the adequacy of information provided to the patient. - While there may be consent issues if the patient wasn't informed of the surgeon's condition, the dominant legal issue is criminal negligence.
Internal Medicine
3 questionsA patient on anti-depressants presented to you with hypotension. An ECG was done, which showed wide QRS complexes and right axis deviation. How will you manage this patient?
A hypertensive patient who is non-compliant with medication presents to you with sudden onset breathlessness. A chest x-ray was done, which is shown below. How will you manage this patient?
Which of the following is the MOST common complication of untreated hypertension?
NEET-PG 2022 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 101: A patient on anti-depressants presented to you with hypotension. An ECG was done, which showed wide QRS complexes and right axis deviation. How will you manage this patient?
- A. Intravenous sodium bicarbonate for TCA-induced arrhythmias (Correct Answer)
- B. Use of antiarrhythmics
- C. Administration of propranolol
- D. Use of phenytoin
Explanation: Intravenous sodium bicarbonate for TCA-induced arrhythmias - The patient's presentation with **hypotension**, **wide QRS complexes**, and **right axis deviation** in the context of antidepressant use is highly suggestive of **Tricyclic Antidepressant (TCA) toxicity**. [1] - **Sodium bicarbonate** improves cardiac function by increasing plasma sodium and alkalizing the blood, which reduces the binding of TCAs to myocardial fast sodium channels and alleviates cardiotoxicity. [1] *Use of antiarrhythmics* - Many antiarrhythmics, particularly **Class IA and IC agents**, block sodium channels and could exacerbate TCA-induced cardiotoxicity. [1] - Furthermore, antiarrhythmics may worsen hypotension and prolong the QRS interval in TCA overdose. *Administration of propranolol* - **Propranolol** is a non-selective beta-blocker that can worsen **hypotension** and **bradycardia**, which are common in TCA overdose. - It would not address the primary issue of **sodium channel blockade** caused by TCAs. *Use of phenytoin* - **Phenytoin** acts by blocking sodium channels and is used for certain arrhythmias, but its efficacy in TCA toxicity is limited and can be proarrhythmic. - **Sodium bicarbonate** is the preferred treatment as it is more effective at reversing the cardiotoxic effects of TCAs. [1]
Question 102: A hypertensive patient who is non-compliant with medication presents to you with sudden onset breathlessness. A chest x-ray was done, which is shown below. How will you manage this patient?
- A. Intravenous salbutamol
- B. Nebulization with salbutamol
- C. Oxygen and antibiotics
- D. Intravenous nitroglycerin (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Intravenous nitroglycerin*** - The chest X-ray shows diffuse bilateral infiltrates and **cardiomegaly**, consistent with **pulmonary edema** due to **acute decompensated heart failure** in a hypertensive patient. - **Intravenous nitroglycerin** is crucial for patients with acute cardiogenic pulmonary edema, as it **reduces preload and afterload**, thereby decreasing pulmonary congestion and improving breathlessness. *Intravenous salbutamol* - **Salbutamol** is a **bronchodilator** used for bronchospasm in conditions like asthma or COPD. - It would not address the underlying pathology of **pulmonary edema** and could potentially worsen the condition by causing **tachycardia** and increasing myocardial oxygen demand. *Nebulization with salbutamol* - Similar to intravenous salbutamol, nebulized salbutamol is used for **bronchospasm** and is ineffective in treating **cardiogenic pulmonary edema**. - There is no indication of airway constriction, and its systemic effects could paradoxically **exacerbate heart failure**. *Oxygen and antibiotics* - While **oxygen** is always indicated for hypoxemia, it alone is insufficient to manage severe **pulmonary edema**. - **Antibiotics** are used to treat bacterial infections, but there are no signs of infection (e.g., fever, purulent sputum) to suggest **pneumonia** as the primary cause of breathlessness; the X-ray findings are more typical of edema.
Question 103: Which of the following is the MOST common complication of untreated hypertension?
- A. Stroke (Correct Answer)
- B. Kidney damage
- C. Heart failure
- D. Vision loss
Explanation: ***Stroke*** - **Untreated hypertension** is a major risk factor for both **ischemic** and **hemorrhagic strokes**, damaging blood vessels in the brain [1]. - Sustained high blood pressure can lead to **atherosclerosis** and weakened blood vessel walls, increasing the likelihood of a stroke [1]. *Heart failure* - While hypertension is a leading cause of **heart failure**, it typically develops over a longer period as the heart works harder against elevated pressure, leading to remodeling and dysfunction [2]. - In terms of acute, severe complications, a stroke is often considered more immediately catastrophic. *Kidney damage* - **Hypertensive nephropathy** is a significant long-term complication where high blood pressure damages the small blood vessels in the kidneys, impairing their function. - This process is gradual and contributes to **chronic kidney disease**, but stroke often emerges as a more common and acute serious event. *Vision loss* - **Hypertensive retinopathy** involves damage to the blood vessels in the retina, which can lead to vision problems including **vision loss** or **blindness**. - This is a serious complication, but **stroke** generally has a higher prevalence and more immediate impact in terms of overall morbidity and mortality associated with untreated hypertension.
Ophthalmology
1 questionsA diabetic patient presents to you with visual acuity of 6/9 in one eye. Further investigations revealed preretinal hemorrhages with neovascularization at the optic disc. What is the next step in management?
NEET-PG 2022 - Ophthalmology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 101: A diabetic patient presents to you with visual acuity of 6/9 in one eye. Further investigations revealed preretinal hemorrhages with neovascularization at the optic disc. What is the next step in management?
- A. Focal laser photocoagulation
- B. Pan-retinal photocoagulation (Correct Answer)
- C. Grid laser photocoagulation
- D. Scleral buckling
Explanation: ***Pan-retinal photocoagulation*** - The presence of **preretinal hemorrhages** and **neovascularization at the optic disc (NVD)** indicates **high-risk proliferative diabetic retinopathy (PDR)**. - **NVD is a high-risk characteristic** for severe vision loss and requires urgent treatment with **pan-retinal photocoagulation (PRP)**. - PRP aims to ablate ischemic peripheral retina, which reduces the production of **VEGF** and other angiogenic factors that stimulate neovascularization. *Focal laser photocoagulation* - This treatment targets discrete leaking microaneurysms in cases of **clinically significant macular edema (CSME)**, which is not the primary issue here. - It is used for **non-proliferative diabetic retinopathy** with macular involvement, not for neovascularization. *Grid laser photocoagulation* - Grid laser is a type of focal laser used for **diffuse macular edema** where specific leaking microaneurysms cannot be identified. - It is not indicated for **neovascularization** or **preretinal hemorrhages**, which are signs of PDR. *Scleral buckling* - **Scleral buckling** is a surgical procedure primarily used to treat **retinal detachment** by indenting the sclera to relieve vitreoretinal traction. - It is not the initial or primary treatment for **proliferative diabetic retinopathy** or **neovascularization**.
Pathology
1 questionsA 59-year-old lady presents with a progressive, painless lump in the breast. What is the cause of the skin change associated with breast cancer?
NEET-PG 2022 - Pathology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 101: A 59-year-old lady presents with a progressive, painless lump in the breast. What is the cause of the skin change associated with breast cancer?
- A. Infiltration of subdermal lymphatics (Correct Answer)
- B. Infiltration of the lactiferous duct
- C. Involvement of Cooper’s ligament
- D. Spread of the tumor to the anterior chest wall
Explanation: ***Infiltration of subdermal lymphatics*** - The skin change described often refers to **peau d'orange**, which is caused by the **blockage of superficial lymphatic vessels** by tumor cells [1]. - This lymphatic obstruction leads to **edema** and dimpling of the skin, resembling an orange peel [1]. *Infiltration of the lactiferous duct* - While cancer can arise in or infiltrate lactiferous ducts, this primarily causes symptoms like **nipple discharge**, inversion, or a palpable mass. - It does not directly explain the specific **skin dimpling** or **peau d'orange** appearance. *Involvement of Cooper's ligament* - Involvement of **Cooper's ligaments** (suspensory ligaments of the breast) can cause skin dimpling or retraction [1]. - However, the image depicts widespread **peau d'orange**, which is more commonly associated with lymphatic involvement than direct ligamentous retraction [1]. *Spread of the tumor to the anterior chest wall* - Tumor extension to the **anterior chest wall** signifies advanced disease and can cause **fixation of the breast** to underlying structures or skin ulceration [2]. - This typically results in **immobility of the breast** or an ulcerated lesion, not the widespread edematous and dimpled appearance of **peau d'orange**. **References:** [1] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Liver And Biliary System Disease, pp. 453-454. [2] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Liver And Biliary System Disease, pp. 456-457.
Surgery
1 questionsAn elderly male patient presented with a sudden onset of scrotal pain and discharge as shown in the image. What is the likely diagnosis?
NEET-PG 2022 - Surgery NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 101: An elderly male patient presented with a sudden onset of scrotal pain and discharge as shown in the image. What is the likely diagnosis?
- A. Fournier’s gangrene (Correct Answer)
- B. Torsion of testis
- C. Scrotal carcinoma
- D. Acute epididymo-orchitis
Explanation: ***Fournier's gangrene*** - The sudden onset of scrotal pain with discharge in an elderly male, combined with **tissue necrosis** and extensive scrotal skin changes, is characteristic of **Fournier's gangrene** (necrotizing fasciitis of the genitalia). - Elderly males are at higher risk due to **diabetes**, **immunocompromise**, and **urogenital infections**, making this a rapidly progressive and potentially life-threatening condition requiring urgent surgical debridement. *Acute epididymo-orchitis* - While epididymo-orchitis can cause scrotal pain and discharge, it typically does **not cause tissue necrosis** or the extensive scrotal skin changes described. - It presents as **localized inflammation** of the epididymis/testis without the widespread necrotizing changes seen in this case. *Torsion of testis* - Testicular torsion typically presents with **abrupt, severe scrotal pain** and swelling, but usually **without discharge** or the extensive scrotal skin changes seen here. - It constitutes a **surgical emergency** due to compromised blood supply to the testis, but doesn't involve necrotizing infection. *Scrotal carcinoma* - Scrotal carcinoma usually presents as a **painless mass or ulceration** that grows over time, rather than a sudden onset of severe pain and discharge. - It represents a **chronic process** and doesn't typically cause the acute necrotizing inflammatory changes observed in this case.