NEET-PG 2020 Practice Questions

Q: Enzyme activated by decrease in Insulin: glucagon ratio:

Glucose 6 phosphatase. ***Glucose 6 phosphatase*** - A decreased **insulin:glucagon ratio** signifies a catabolic state, promoting glucose release into the blood. - **Glucose-6-phosphatase** is the key enzyme in **gluconeogenesis** and **glycogenolysis** in the liver, dephosphorylating **glucose-6-phosphate** to **free glucose**, which can then be exported from the liver. *PFK* - **Phosphofructokinase (PFK)** is a key regulatory enzyme in **glycolysis**, which is inhibited in a state of low insulin:glucagon ratio. - Its activity would decrease, not increase, to reduce glucose utilization. *Glucokinase* - **Glucokinase** phosphorylates glucose to **glucose-6-phosphate** in the liver, trapping it for metabolism; its activity is increased by high insulin levels. - In a low insulin:glucagon ratio, its activity would be reduced to conserve glucose. *Hexokinase* - **Hexokinase** phosphorylates glucose in most peripheral tissues but has a lower Km for glucose than glucokinase, becoming saturated even at low glucose concentrations. - Its activity is not primarily regulated by the insulin:glucagon ratio; it is generally involved in glucose uptake for cellular energy needs.

Q: A 5-year-old unimmunized child developed diphtheria. He has a 3-year-old immunized sibling contact, who received the last booster 18 months back. What should be done with the contact?

Single dose of toxoid vaccine. ***Single dose of toxoid vaccine*** - In the context of this question, this is the **best available option** among the choices provided. - For a close contact of diphtheria who was immunized but received their last booster **18 months ago**, guidelines recommend a **booster dose if more than 5 years** have elapsed since the last dose. - However, some protocols recommend a booster for **close contacts regardless of timing** to ensure maximum protection. - **Important note**: The PRIMARY management for diphtheria close contacts is **antibiotic prophylaxis** (Erythromycin 40-50 mg/kg/day for 7 days or single-dose Azithromycin) plus surveillance for 7 days, which is not mentioned in the available options. *No vaccine needed* - This is incorrect because as a **close contact of an active diphtheria case**, prophylactic measures are required. - Even though the child received a booster 18 months ago, additional protection through either antibiotics (primary) or a booster dose may be recommended. - Close contacts require active intervention to prevent secondary transmission. *Three doses of conjugate vaccine* - This represents a **complete primary series**, which is not appropriate for an already immunized child. - The child has already completed primary immunization and received boosters; they do not need to restart the vaccination schedule. - **Conjugate vaccines** (like Hib conjugate) are different formulations, though DTaP is technically a conjugated form of diphtheria toxoid. *Two doses of polysaccharide vaccine* - **Polysaccharide vaccines** are not used for diphtheria prevention. - Diphtheria vaccines are **toxoid-based** (inactivated diphtheria toxin), not polysaccharide-based. - This option represents an incorrect vaccine type for diphtheria prophylaxis.

Q: Indicators of air pollution are:

Sulphur dioxide, smoke, particulate matter. **Correct Option: Sulphur dioxide, smoke, particulate matter** - **Sulphur dioxide (SO₂)** is a major gaseous air pollutant indicator, primarily from fossil fuel combustion and industrial processes - **Smoke** (composed of small solid and liquid particles) is a visible indicator of air pollution - **Particulate matter (PM2.5 and PM10)** represents suspended particulate matter (SPM), significant contributors to air pollution causing respiratory and cardiovascular issues - These three parameters are the **standard indicators** used for air quality monitoring as per NAAQS (National Ambient Air Quality Standards) *Incorrect: Sulphur dioxide, lead, particulate matter* - While SO₂ and particulate matter are correct indicators, **lead** is a toxic heavy metal pollutant but not a standard indicator for routine air quality monitoring - Lead pollution is typically measured separately as a specific hazardous pollutant *Incorrect: Sulphur dioxide, hydrogen sulphide, carbon monoxide* - SO₂ and CO are air pollutants, but **hydrogen sulphide (H₂S)** is more associated with specific industrial emissions and sewage decomposition - This combination misses the critical indicators of **smoke and particulate matter** which are more ubiquitous and routinely monitored *Incorrect: Carbon dioxide, hydrogen sulphide, lead* - **Carbon dioxide (CO₂)** is primarily a greenhouse gas contributing to climate change, not a conventional air pollution indicator for local air quality - H₂S and lead are pollutants but not standard routine indicators - This option lacks the key indicators: SO₂, smoke, and particulate matter

Q: Partial closure of the nose is performed in which condition?

Atrophic rhinitis. ***Atrophic rhinitis*** - **Partial closure of the nose** (Young's operation or naris plasty) is a surgical procedure used to reduce the size of the nasal passages and improve airflow in patients with atrophic rhinitis. - This condition involves progressive **atrophy of the nasal mucosa** and turbinates, leading to dryness, crusting, paradoxical obstruction, and often a foul odor. *Vasomotor rhinitis* - This condition involves **non-allergic rhinitis** triggered by environmental changes, temperature shifts, or irritants, causing symptoms like sneezing, rhinorrhea, and nasal congestion. - Management typically involves **avoidance of triggers**, nasal corticosteroids, or anticholinergic sprays, not surgical closure of the nose. *Allergic rhinitis* - Caused by an ** IgE-mediated immune response** to airborne allergens, leading to inflammation of the nasal mucosa, sneezing, itching, rhinorrhea, and congestion. - Treatment focuses on **allergen avoidance**, antihistamines, and nasal corticosteroids; surgical modification of nasal passages is not indicated. *Occupational rhinitis* - This form of rhinitis is caused by exposure to **irritants or allergens in the workplace**, leading to nasal symptoms similar to allergic or non-allergic rhinitis. - Management involves **identifying and avoiding the offending agent** at work, and medical treatments like nasal sprays, but not surgical narrowing of the nostrils.

Q: A known case of COPD with acute exacerbation of symptoms. On examination patient was conscious and alert, pulse was 110 beats/ min and bilateral wheeze present. All of the following are true in the management of the patient except:

Non invasive ventilation is contraindicated. ***Non invasive ventilation is contraindicated*** - This statement is **false**, therefore the correct exception. **Non-invasive ventilation (NIV)** is often indicated and beneficial in the management of acute exacerbations of COPD, especially in patients with **respiratory acidosis** or persistent dyspnea, as it can reduce the need for intubation and improve outcomes [2]. - The patient's presentation (conscious, alert, wheeze, tachycardia) suggests an acute exacerbation, for which NIV is a key intervention unless there are absolute contraindications like cardiac arrest or inability to protect the airway [3]. *Permissible hypercapnia allowed* - **Permissive hypercapnia** is a valid strategy in managing acute exacerbations of COPD, particularly during mechanical ventilation. The goal is to maintain an adequate pH (e.g., >7.20-7.25) rather than normalizing CO2, to avoid **barotrauma** and **volutrauma** from aggressive ventilation [3]. - This approach acknowledges that some CO2 retention is acceptable as long as acidosis is not severe, protecting the lungs from excessive pressure. *Inhalation with salbutamol* - **Inhaled bronchodilators**, such as **salbutamol (a short-acting beta-agonist)**, are a cornerstone of treatment for acute COPD exacerbations [1]. They act rapidly to relieve **bronchospasm** and improve airflow, addressing the wheeze observed in the patient. - Frequent administration of these agents is crucial in the initial management to open up the airways and reduce air trapping. *I/V steroids* - **Systemic corticosteroids**, such as intravenous methylprednisolone or oral prednisone, are essential in managing acute COPD exacerbations. They reduce **airway inflammation** and swelling, leading to improved lung function and reduced recovery time. - Steroids are typically given for a short course (e.g., 5-7 days) to minimize side effects while maximizing therapeutic benefits.

Q: Which of the following is not a clinical presentation of Pituitary Apoplexy?

Hypertension. ***Hypertension*** - Pituitary apoplexy often leads to **adrenal insufficiency** due to damage to the pituitary gland, which in turn causes **hypotension**, not hypertension. - The sudden onset of severe pituitary dysfunction typically results in a drop in blood pressure rather than an increase. *Vomiting* - **Vomiting** is a common symptom of pituitary apoplexy, often accompanying severe headache due to increased intracranial pressure or hormonal imbalances [1]. - The sudden mass effect of the hemorrhage or infarction can irritate surrounding structures, leading to nausea and vomiting. *Headache* - A **sudden, severe headache** is the most common presenting symptom of pituitary apoplexy, often described as a "thunderclap" headache [1]. - This intense headache is caused by rapid expansion of the pituitary mass and irritation of the **dura mater**. *Hypotension* - **Hypotension** is a classic feature of pituitary apoplexy, resulting from acute **adrenal insufficiency** where insufficient ACTH leads to decreased cortisol production [1]. - This hormonal deficiency impairs the body's ability to maintain blood pressure and respond to stress [1].

Q: In a preterm baby with respiratory distress syndrome, which type of cell is deficient?

Type 2 alveolar cell. ***Type 2 alveolar cell*** - **Type 2 alveolar cells** (pneumocytes) are responsible for producing and secreting **surfactant**. - A deficiency in these cells, common in preterm infants, leads to insufficient surfactant, causing alveolar collapse and respiratory distress syndrome. *Type 1 alveolar cell* - **Type 1 alveolar cells** are primarily involved in **gas exchange** due to their thin, flat structure. - While essential for respiration, their deficiency is not the primary cause of respiratory distress syndrome in preterm infants. *Alveolar capillary endothelial cell* - **Alveolar capillary endothelial cells** form the walls of the capillaries surrounding the alveoli, facilitating the transfer of gases between the alveoli and blood. - They do not produce surfactant, and their deficiency is not the direct cause of respiratory distress syndrome. *Bronchial mucosal epithelial cell* - **Bronchial mucosal epithelial cells** line the airways and are involved in mucus production and ciliary clearance. - While important for respiratory function, their primary role is not in preventing alveolar collapse in respiratory distress syndrome.

Q: The lab reports of a patient given below: pH = 7.2, HCO3 = 10 mEq/L, PCO2 = 30 mmHg. This exemplifies which of the following disorders?

Metabolic acidosis. ***Metabolic acidosis*** - The pH of 7.2 is acidic, and the **bicarbonate (HCO3) of 10 mEq/L** is significantly low (normal: 22-28 mEq/L), indicating a primary metabolic disturbance causing acidosis. - The **PCO2 of 30 mmHg** is also low (normal: 35-45 mmHg), which represents **partial respiratory compensation** through hyperventilation to blow off CO2 and raise pH. - This is a classic example of **metabolic acidosis with respiratory compensation**. *Metabolic alkalosis* - This condition would be characterized by a **high pH** and a **high bicarbonate (HCO3)** level, which is the opposite of the given values. - The body would attempt to compensate by increasing PCO2 through hypoventilation. *Respiratory acidosis* - This would present with a **low pH** and a **high PCO2** (>45 mmHg), indicating a primary respiratory problem leading to CO2 retention and acid accumulation. - Metabolic compensation would show elevated HCO3, not the low HCO3 (10 mEq/L) seen here. *Respiratory alkalosis* - This condition is characterized by a **high pH** (>7.45) and a **low PCO2**, due to excessive ventilation causing CO2 elimination. - While PCO2 is low in the given scenario, the pH is acidic (7.2), not alkalotic, ruling out this diagnosis.

Q: A patient presents with abdominal pain, blood in stools and a palpable mass on examination. A Barium Study was performed, probable diagnosis is?

Intussusception. ***Intussusception*** - This condition is characterized by a "telescoping" of one segment of the intestine into another, which can lead to **abdominal pain**, **rectal bleeding** (often described as "currant jelly" stools), and a **palpable sausage-shaped mass** on examination. - A barium study (specifically a **barium enema**) is often diagnostic and can also be therapeutic for intussusception, revealing a **coiled spring appearance** or an obstruction. *Volvulus* - Volvulus involves the **twisting of a loop of bowel** around its mesentery, often presenting with sudden onset, severe **abdominal pain**, vomiting, and constipation. - While it can cause an obstruction and pain, a palpable mass and bloody stools are less common initial findings compared to intussusception. *Meckel's Diverticulum* - Meckel's diverticulum is a **congenital outpouching** of the small intestine that can be asymptomatic or cause complications like **gastrointestinal bleeding** (due to ectopic gastric mucosa), obstruction, or diverticulitis. - While it can cause painless rectal bleeding, a palpable mass and acute, intermittent abdominal pain are not typical primary presentations for an uncomplicated Meckel’s diverticulum. *Diverticulitis* - Diverticulitis is the **inflammation of diverticula** (small pouches in the colon), typically presenting with **left lower quadrant abdominal pain**, fever, and changes in bowel habits. - While it can cause bleeding, a palpable mass is less common unless there's an abscess, and the clinical picture does not align as strongly with the "currant jelly stool" and classic palpable mass of intussusception.

Question 1

Enzyme activated by decrease in Insulin: glucagon ratio:

Accepted Answer

Glucose 6 phosphatase

Answer

PFK

Answer

Glucokinase

Answer

Hexokinase

Question 2

A 5-year-old unimmunized child developed diphtheria. He has a 3-year-old immunized sibling contact, who received the last booster 18 months back. What should be done with the contact?

Accepted Answer

Single dose of toxoid vaccine

Answer

No vaccine needed

Answer

Three doses of conjugate vaccine

Answer

Two doses of polysaccharide vaccine

Question 3

Indicators of air pollution are:

Accepted Answer

Sulphur dioxide, smoke, particulate matter

Answer

Sulphur dioxide, lead, particulate matter

Answer

Sulphur dioxide, hydrogen sulphide, carbon monoxide

Answer

Carbon dioxide, hydrogen sulphide, lead

Question 4

"MONICA Project" is associated with:

Accepted Answer

Monitoring of trends and determinants in cardiovascular disease

Answer

Risk factor intervention trials for CVD

Answer

Lipid research clinics study

Answer

Oslo diet/smoking intervention study

Question 5

Partial closure of the nose is performed in which condition?

Accepted Answer

Atrophic rhinitis

Answer

Vasomotor rhinitis

Answer

Allergic rhinitis

Answer

Occupational rhinitis

Question 6

A known case of COPD with acute exacerbation of symptoms. On examination patient was conscious and alert, pulse was 110 beats/ min and bilateral wheeze present. All of the following are true in the management of the patient except:

Accepted Answer

Non invasive ventilation is contraindicated

Answer

Permissible hypercapnia allowed

Answer

Inhalation with salbutamol

Answer

I/V steroids

Question 7

Which of the following is not a clinical presentation of Pituitary Apoplexy?

Accepted Answer

Hypertension

Answer

Vomiting

Answer

Headache

Answer

Hypotension

Question 8

In a preterm baby with respiratory distress syndrome, which type of cell is deficient?

Accepted Answer

Type 2 alveolar cell

Answer

Type 1 alveolar cell

Answer

Alveolar capillary endothelial cell

Answer

Bronchial mucosal epithelial cell

Question 9

The lab reports of a patient given below: pH = 7.2, HCO3 = 10 mEq/L, PCO2 = 30 mmHg. This exemplifies which of the following disorders?

Accepted Answer

Metabolic acidosis

Answer

Metabolic alkalosis

Answer

Respiratory acidosis

Answer

Respiratory alkalosis

Question 10

A patient presents with abdominal pain, blood in stools and a palpable mass on examination. A Barium Study was performed, probable diagnosis is?

Accepted Answer

Intussusception

Answer

Volvulus

Answer

Meckel's Diverticulum

Answer

Diverticulitis

NEET-PG 2020

Biochemistry

Community Medicine

ENT

Internal Medicine

Physiology

Surgery