NEET-PG 2020
334 Previous Year Questions with Answers & Explanations
Community Medicine
1 questionsTargeted screening for communicable diseases is most commonly implemented in which population?
NEET-PG 2020 - Community Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: Targeted screening for communicable diseases is most commonly implemented in which population?
- A. Newborns for thyroid disease
- B. Immigrant screening (Correct Answer)
- C. Diabetes mellitus
- D. Cervical cancer screening with Pap smear
Explanation: ***Immigrant screening*** - Targeted screening for communicable diseases such as **tuberculosis**, **hepatitis B**, and **HIV** is commonly implemented in immigrants due to varied disease prevalence in their countries of origin and potential for public health impact. - This screening aims to **prevent the spread** of these diseases within the host country and ensure appropriate medical attention for new arrivals. *Newborns for thyroid disease* - This is an example of **universal newborn screening** for a **non-communicable disease** (congenital hypothyroidism), not targeted screening for communicable diseases. - The purpose is early detection of conditions that can cause **developmental delays** if untreated, not preventing infection spread. *Diabetes mellitus* - Screening for **diabetes** focuses on a **non-communicable metabolic disorder**. - Screening typically targets individuals with risk factors like obesity, family history, or certain ethnic backgrounds, but it's not for communicable diseases. *Cervical cancer screening with Pap smear* - This screens for **cancer** (a non-communicable disease) caused by the **human papillomavirus (HPV)**, but the screening itself is not primarily for a communicable disease. - The Pap smear primarily detects **precancerous and cancerous changes** in cervical cells, rather than active HPV infection or other communicable diseases.
ENT
1 questionsWhat is the surgical procedure for widening of the cartilaginous part of the external auditory canal?
NEET-PG 2020 - ENT NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: What is the surgical procedure for widening of the cartilaginous part of the external auditory canal?
- A. otoplasty
- B. myringoplasty
- C. tympanoplasty
- D. meatoplasty (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Meatoplasty*** - **Meatoplasty** is a surgical procedure specifically designed to **widen the external auditory canal**, often performed to improve drainage or aid in fitting hearing aids. - This procedure usually involves modifying the **cartilaginous part** of the canal to prevent stenosis or collapse, which can cause conductive hearing loss. *Otoplasty* - **Otoplasty** is a cosmetic surgical procedure primarily focused on reshaping the **external ear (pinna)**, often to correct prominent ears or deformities. - It does not involve widening the external auditory canal. *Myringoplasty* - **Myringoplasty** is a surgical repair of a **perforated tympanic membrane (eardrum)**. - The goal is to close the hole in the eardrum to improve hearing and prevent recurrent infections, without altering the external auditory canal's width. *Tympanoplasty* - **Tympanoplasty** is a broader surgical term that involves the repair of the **tympanic membrane (eardrum)** and/or the **ossicular chain** within the middle ear. - While it addresses middle ear issues and hearing improvement, it typically does not involve widening the external auditory canal as its primary goal.
Internal Medicine
4 questionsIn renal transplant recipients, which is the likely organism causing reactivation disease within 1 to 4 months after surgery?
A patient presents with clustered, white lesions on the buccal mucosa, typically near the upper molars. These lesions are pathognomonic for measles. What are these lesions called?
In multiple sclerosis, where does the defect occur?
A middle-aged male presented with a history of fatigue and tiredness. On investigation, he had a hemoglobin level of 8 g/dL and a mean corpuscular volume (MCV) of 110 fl, with the peripheral smear showing macrocytes and hypersegmented neutrophils. Which of the following is the most likely cause of these findings in this patient?
NEET-PG 2020 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: In renal transplant recipients, which is the likely organism causing reactivation disease within 1 to 4 months after surgery?
- A. EBV
- B. CMV (Correct Answer)
- C. HSV
- D. VZV
Explanation: ***CMV*** - **Cytomegalovirus (CMV)** is the most common viral infection causing significant morbidity and mortality in solid organ transplant recipients, often leading to **reactivation disease** within 1 to 4 months post-transplant due to immunosuppression [1]. - CMV disease can manifest in various forms, including **fever**, **leukopenia**, **gastroenteritis**, and potentially organ-specific involvement, mimicking transplant rejection [3]. *EBV* - **Epstein-Barr Virus (EBV)** reactivation is a concern in transplant recipients but is more strongly associated with the development of **post-transplant lymphoproliferative disorder (PTLD)**, which tends to occur later than the 1-4 month window for typical CMV reactivation [1]. - While EBV can cause a mononucleosis-like syndrome, its timeline and common severe complications differ from the typical CMV reactivation pattern [2]. *HSV* - **Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV)** reactivation is typically seen much earlier in transplant recipients, often within the first few weeks (usually 1-2 weeks) post-transplant [1]. - HSV reactivation typically presents as **mucocutaneous lesions** (e.g., cold sores, genital ulcers) rather than systemic disease in the 1-4 month window [3]. *VZV* - **Varicella-Zoster Virus (VZV)** reactivation (shingles) occurs in transplant recipients, but it generally has a slightly later onset than CMV, often beyond 4 months post-transplant or less commonly within the 1-4 month window [1]. - VZV reactivation typically presents as **dermatomal rash** and pain, which is distinct from the systemic symptoms of CMV disease.
Question 2: A patient presents with clustered, white lesions on the buccal mucosa, typically near the upper molars. These lesions are pathognomonic for measles. What are these lesions called?
- A. Leukoplakia
- B. Koplik spots (Correct Answer)
- C. Kaposi spots
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***Koplik spots*** - These are pathognomonic for **measles (rubeola)** and appear as small, **white or bluish-white lesions** on an erythematous base on the buccal mucosa. - They typically precede the characteristic rash of measles by 1-2 days, making them a crucial early diagnostic sign. *Leukoplakia* - Refers to **thickened, white patches** on the mucous membranes that cannot be scraped off and are often precancerous. - These lesions are usually associated with chronic irritation (e.g., tobacco use) and are not a feature of viral infections like measles. *Kaposi spots* - This term is **not typically used** to describe oral lesions, particularly in the context of measles. - Kaposi sarcoma involves **purple or brown skin lesions** associated with HHV-8 infection, commonly seen in immunocompromised individuals. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because **Koplik spots** accurately describe the buccal mucosal lesions pathognomonic for measles.
Question 3: In multiple sclerosis, where does the defect occur?
- A. Oligodendrocytes
- B. Myelin sheath (Correct Answer)
- C. Node of Ranvier
- D. Neuroglial cells
Explanation: ***Myelin sheath*** - Multiple sclerosis (MS) is an autoimmune disorder characterized by the destruction of the **myelin sheath** in the central nervous system [3]. - The demyelination of nerve fibers impairs the **conduction of electrical signals**, leading to a wide range of neurological symptoms [3]. *Oligodendrocytes* - **Oligodendrocytes** are the cells responsible for **producing and maintaining the myelin sheath** in the central nervous system [1]. - While oligodendrocytes are directly involved in myelination, the primary defect in MS is the **destruction of the myelin itself**, not primarily a defect in the oligodendrocytes' ability to produce it initially [3]. *Node of Ranvier* - The **nodes of Ranvier** are gaps in the myelin sheath that allow for **saltatory conduction** of nerve impulses [1]. - While damage to the myelin sheath around the nodes can affect their function, the primary defect in MS is the **loss of the insulating myelin material**, not a structural defect in the nodes themselves [2]. *Neuroglial cells* - **Neuroglial cells** (or glial cells) encompass various cell types, including oligodendrocytes, astrocytes, microglia, and ependymal cells, which support neurons [4]. - While glial cells (specifically oligodendrocytes) are involved in myelin production, and other glial cells like microglia can contribute to the inflammatory response in MS, the **direct defect leading to neurological impairment is the destruction of the myelin sheath**, not a general defect in all neuroglial cells [4].
Question 4: A middle-aged male presented with a history of fatigue and tiredness. On investigation, he had a hemoglobin level of 8 g/dL and a mean corpuscular volume (MCV) of 110 fl, with the peripheral smear showing macrocytes and hypersegmented neutrophils. Which of the following is the most likely cause of these findings in this patient?
- A. Chronic alcohol use (Correct Answer)
- B. Ancylostoma duodenale infection
- C. Chronic kidney disease
- D. Colorectal cancer
Explanation: ***Chronic alcoholism*** - **Macrocytic anemia** with a **hemoglobin level of 8 g/dL** is commonly seen in chronic alcoholism due to impaired erythropoiesis and folate deficiency. [1] - The **peripheral smear** showing **hypersegmented neutrophils** is indicative of megaloblastic anemia, often linked to **alcoholism**. [1] *Chronic renal failure* - Typically causes **normocytic anemia** due to inadequate erythropoietin production, not macrocytic anemia. [2] - While uremic effects can impact erythropoiesis, they usually do not produce **hypersegmented neutrophils** found in megaloblastic anemia. *Colon cancer* - More commonly causes **microcytic anemia** due to **iron deficiency** from chronic blood loss rather than macrocytic anemia. [2] - **Macrocytic anemia** with hypersegmented neutrophils would not be expected in most cases of colon cancer. *Ancylostoma duodenale infestation* - This hookworm infection typically leads to **microcytic anemia** due to **iron deficiency**, not macrocytic. [2] - The presence of **macrocytes** and **hypersegmented neutrophils** does not correlate with this type of anemia.
Obstetrics and Gynecology
1 questionsWhat is the obstetric score of a 26-year-old woman who is 36 weeks pregnant, has had one previous delivery of twins, and is certain of her dates?
NEET-PG 2020 - Obstetrics and Gynecology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: What is the obstetric score of a 26-year-old woman who is 36 weeks pregnant, has had one previous delivery of twins, and is certain of her dates?
- A. G2P1L2 (2 live births) (Correct Answer)
- B. G3P2L2 (3 pregnancies, 2 live births)
- C. G2P2L2 (2 pregnancies, 2 live births)
- D. G3P3L2
Explanation: ***G2P1L2 (2 live births)*** - **Gravida (G)** refers to the total number of pregnancies, including the current one. This woman is currently pregnant and has had one previous pregnancy, making her G2. - **Parity (P)** refers to the number of pregnancies that reached viability (>20 weeks gestation or >500g), *regardless of the number of fetuses*. She had one previous delivery (twins) that reached viability, so her P is 1. The current pregnancy is not included in parity until after delivery. - **Live births (L)** refers to the number of live children delivered. Her previous pregnancy resulted in twins, meaning 2 live births. *G3P2L2 (3 pregnancies, 2 live births)* - This option incorrectly counts the number of pregnancies (**G**) as 3. She has had one previous pregnancy and is currently pregnant, totaling 2 pregnancies. - It also incorrectly counts the parity (**P**) as 2. Parity refers to the number of deliveries that reached viability, not the number of fetuses. Her previous delivery was a single event, making P1. *G2P2L2 (2 pregnancies, 2 live births)* - While the Gravida (G2) and Live births (L2) are correct, the Parity (**P**) is incorrectly stated as 2. Parity refers to the number of viable pregnancies delivered, and she has only had one previous delivery. - The number of fetuses (twins) does not increase the parity count for a single delivery event. *G3P3L2 (3 pregnancies, 3 live births)* - This option incorrectly states the number of pregnancies (**G**) as 3 and the parity (**P**) as 3. - The woman has only had one previous pregnancy and is currently pregnant, for a total of G2 and P1.
Pharmacology
1 questionsWhich of the following antiarrhythmic drugs is contraindicated in a patient with interstitial lung disease?
NEET-PG 2020 - Pharmacology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: Which of the following antiarrhythmic drugs is contraindicated in a patient with interstitial lung disease?
- A. Amiodarone (Correct Answer)
- B. Lignocaine
- C. Sotalol
- D. Quinidine
Explanation: ***Amiodarone*** - **Amiodarone** is contraindicated in patients with interstitial lung disease due to its well-known and potentially severe pulmonary toxicity, which can exacerbate or induce **pulmonary fibrosis**. - Its long half-life means that drug accumulation and persistent adverse effects, including **ILD exacerbation**, are significant concerns. *Sotalol* - **Sotalol** primarily carries risks of **prolonged QT interval** and **torsades de pointes** because it has both beta-blocking and Class III antiarrhythmic properties. - While it has cardiac and minor non-cardiac side effects, it is not specifically known to cause or worsen **interstitial lung disease**. *Lignocaine* - **Lignocaine** (lidocaine) is a Class Ib antiarrhythmic primarily used for **ventricular arrhythmias**, especially in acute settings. - Its adverse effects are mainly **neurological** (e.g., dizziness, seizures at high doses) and **cardiovascular** (e.g., hypotension, bradycardia), with no significant association with lung disease. *Quinidine* - **Quinidine** is a Class Ia antiarrhythmic that can cause a variety of side effects, including **gastrointestinal upset**, **cinchonism** (tinnitus, blurred vision), and **cardiac rhythm disturbances**. - While it can rarely cause a hypersensitivity pneumonitis, it is not a primary concern or contraindication in existing **interstitial lung disease** compared to amiodarone.
Physiology
1 questionsWhich of the following techniques is used to study current flow across a single ion channel?
NEET-PG 2020 - Physiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: Which of the following techniques is used to study current flow across a single ion channel?
- A. Galvanometry
- B. Voltage clamp
- C. Patch clamp (Correct Answer)
- D. Iontophoresis
Explanation: ***Patch clamp*** - The **patch clamp** technique allows for the direct measurement of **ion current flow** through a single ion channel or a small group of channels. - It involves isolating a small patch of cell membrane with a micropipette to record the electrical activity. *Voltage clamp* - The **voltage clamp** technique is used to maintain a constant membrane potential while measuring the **total ionic current** across the entire cell membrane. - It is not typically used for studying current across a *single* ion channel, but rather for analyzing whole-cell currents. *Iontophoresis* - **Iontophoresis** is a method used to introduce ionized substances, such as drugs or neurotransmitters, into tissues using a small electric current. - It is a technique for drug delivery or localized stimulation, not for directly measuring ion channel current. *Galvanometry* - **Galvanometry** is a general term for the measurement of small electric currents using a galvanometer. - While ion channel activity involves electric currents, galvanometry is not a specific technique for isolating and studying single ion channels.
Surgery
1 questionsWhat is the appropriate management for a male patient who presents to the hospital with abdominal pain from cholecystitis and is incidentally detected with an asymptomatic abdominal aortic aneurysm?
NEET-PG 2020 - Surgery NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: What is the appropriate management for a male patient who presents to the hospital with abdominal pain from cholecystitis and is incidentally detected with an asymptomatic abdominal aortic aneurysm?
- A. Immediate surgery
- B. Monitor till size reaches 55 mm (Correct Answer)
- C. Monitor till size reaches 45 mm
- D. USG monitoring till size of the aneurysm reaches 70 mm
Explanation: ***Monitor till size reaches 55 mm*** - For **asymptomatic abdominal aortic aneurysms (AAAs)** in male patients, elective repair is generally recommended when the aneurysm reaches 5.5 cm (55 mm) in diameter. - This size balances the risk of rupture against the risks associated with surgery. *Immediate surgery* - Immediate surgery is reserved for patients with a **symptomatic** or **ruptured AAA**, indicated by severe abdominal pain, hypotension, and a pulsatile mass. - An incidentally detected, asymptomatic AAA typically does not warrant emergency surgical intervention. *Monitor till size reaches 45 mm* - A 45 mm aneurysm in a male patient is typically managed with **regular surveillance** rather than immediate intervention. - The risk of rupture at this size is generally considered low enough to avoid the risks of elective surgery. *USG monitoring till size of the aneurysm reaches 70 mm* - Monitoring an AAA until it reaches 70 mm (7 cm) is **not safe practice** due to a significantly increased risk of rupture as the aneurysm grows beyond 5.5 cm. - Guidelines recommend intervention at 5.5 cm to prevent life-threatening rupture.