NEET-PG 2015 — Surgery
82 Previous Year Questions with Answers & Explanations
In case of polytrauma with multiple injuries to the chest, neck, and abdomen, what is the highest priority intervention?
Which of the following statements is true about branchial cysts?
Solution currently used for liver preservation for transplantation is?
Amount of blood loss in Stage I of hemorrhagic shock is -
Which solid organ is considered to have the lowest risk of rejection during transplantation?
Which of the following structures does NOT pass through Calot's triangle?
What is the treatment of choice for Deviated Nasal Septum (DNS) in adults?
All of the following are indications for tracheostomy except ?
Which of the following cancers do not present with cervical lymph node involvement?
Which of the following statements is MOST accurate regarding Zenker diverticulum?
NEET-PG 2015 - Surgery NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: In case of polytrauma with multiple injuries to the chest, neck, and abdomen, what is the highest priority intervention?
- A. Stabilization of the airway (Correct Answer)
- B. Vasopressors
- C. Assessing disability
- D. Stabilization of the cervical spine
Explanation: ***Stabilization of the airway*** - Maintaining a **patent airway** is the absolute first priority in any trauma patient (following the **ABCDE approach**), as inadequate oxygenation and ventilation can rapidly lead to irreversible brain damage and death. - In a patient with injuries to the chest, neck, and abdomen, the airway is particularly vulnerable to compromise from direct trauma, swelling, or aspiration. *Vasopressors* - Vasopressors are used to support blood pressure in cases of **hypotensive shock**, but establishing adequate ventilation and oxygenation (airway, breathing) must precede circulatory support. - Administering vasopressors without a patent airway and efficient breathing will not be effective and can be detrimental. *Assessing disability* - Assessing disability (neurological status) is part of the **D** in the **ABCDE approach**, which comes after addressing airway, breathing, and circulation. - While important, it is not the highest priority intervention as an immediate threat to life takes precedence. *Stabilization of the cervical spine* - While crucial in trauma (especially with neck injuries) to prevent further neurological damage, **cervical spine stabilization** is often performed concurrently or immediately after airway assessment and control, under the **"A" for Airway with cervical spine protection** principle. - However, establishing a patent airway without moving the neck (if possible) still takes absolute priority over full stabilization, as a blocked airway is an immediate life threat.
Question 2: Which of the following statements is true about branchial cysts?
- A. Branchial cysts are more common in males than females.
- B. They mostly arise from the second branchial cleft. (Correct Answer)
- C. Surgical intervention is not always necessary.
- D. They can cause dysphagia and hoarseness if infected.
Explanation: ***They mostly arise from the second branchial cleft.*** - **Second branchial cleft cysts** are the most common type, accounting for approximately **95%** of all branchial anomalies. - They typically present as a smooth, fluctuant mass along the **anterior border of the sternocleidomastoid muscle** at the junction of the upper and middle third of the neck. - These cysts result from **incomplete obliteration** of the second branchial cleft during embryonic development. *Branchial cysts are more common in males than females.* - Branchial cysts have **no significant sex predilection**, affecting males and females with roughly equal frequency. - The overall incidence is relatively rare, with most cases presenting in late childhood or early adulthood. *Surgical intervention is not always necessary.* - **Complete surgical excision** is the **definitive treatment** and is strongly recommended for all branchial cysts. - Indications for surgery include: prevention of **recurrent infections**, risk of **abscess formation**, elimination of cosmetic concerns, and removal due to potential (though rare) **malignant transformation**. - While very small asymptomatic cysts may occasionally be observed, this carries significant risk of future complications, making surgery the standard of care in clinical practice. *They can cause dysphagia and hoarseness if infected.* - While an **infected branchial cyst** causes local inflammatory signs (pain, swelling, warmth, erythema), it **rarely causes dysphagia or hoarseness** unless exceptionally large. - These symptoms would require the cyst to compress the **pharynx** (dysphagia) or involve the **recurrent laryngeal nerve** (hoarseness), which is uncommon even with infection. - The primary presentation of infected cysts includes **tender neck mass** with overlying skin changes and possible **abscess formation**.
Question 3: Solution currently used for liver preservation for transplantation is?
- A. IGL-1 solution
- B. Ross Marshall Citrate solution
- C. University of Wisconsin (UW) solution (Correct Answer)
- D. Kyoto ET solution
Explanation: ***University of Wisconsin (UW) solution*** - The **University of Wisconsin (UW) solution** is widely considered the gold standard for **organ preservation**, particularly for liver transplantation, due to its superior ability to extend cold ischemia time. - It contains a unique blend of components, including **lactobionate, raffinose, and hydroxyethyl starch**, which help to minimize cellular swelling, prevent free radical injury, and maintain cellular integrity during cold storage. *IGL-1 solution* - **IGL-1** is a more recent preservation solution designed to be used with **machine perfusion** systems. - While showing promise, it is **not yet as universally adopted** as UW solution for static cold storage of livers. *Ross Marshall Citrate solution* - The **Ross Marshall Citrate solution** was an older solution primarily used for **kidney preservation**. - It has been largely **superseded by newer solutions** with improved efficacy for liver and other organ preservation. *Kyoto ET solution* - **Kyoto ET solution** is another preservation solution primarily used in **Japan**, particularly for **kidney and pancreas preservation**. - While effective for those organs, it is **not the most commonly used** or preferred solution for liver preservation globally.
Question 4: Amount of blood loss in Stage I of hemorrhagic shock is -
- A. <10%
- B. <30%
- C. <15% (Correct Answer)
- D. <40%
Explanation: ***<15%*** - Stage I (Class I) hemorrhagic shock is characterized by **minimal blood loss of up to 15%** of total blood volume (up to 750 mL in a 70 kg adult). - This is the **universally accepted ATLS definition** for Class I hemorrhage. - At this level, compensatory mechanisms maintain normal vital signs with minimal clinical manifestations. - Patients typically show minimal or no symptoms, with possible mild tachycardia only. *<10%* - While this amount falls within Stage I, it represents only a **portion of the Stage I range** and is not the complete definition. - Stage I actually extends up to 15%, making this option incomplete. *<30%* - This range encompasses **both Stage I (up to 15%) and Stage II (15-30%)** hemorrhagic shock. - Stage II manifests with tachycardia (>100 bpm), tachypnea, and decreased pulse pressure, but blood pressure remains normal. - This is too broad to specifically define Stage I. *<40%* - This range covers **Stage I, II, and III** hemorrhagic shock. - Stage III (30-40% loss) presents with significant hypotension, marked tachycardia (>120 bpm), altered mental status, and decreased urine output. - This is far beyond the compensated Stage I definition.
Question 5: Which solid organ is considered to have the lowest risk of rejection during transplantation?
- A. Pancreas
- B. Kidney
- C. Heart
- D. Liver (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Liver*** - The liver has a unique immunologic environment, often referred to as **immunologic privilege**, which contributes to its lower rates of rejection compared to other transplanted solid organs. - It produces various **immunosuppressive factors** and has a high capacity for regeneration and repair, adapting more readily to the recipient's immune system. - The liver's **dual blood supply** (hepatic artery and portal vein) and tolerogenic properties make it the most immunologically privileged solid organ. *Pancreas* - **Pancreas transplantation** carries a high risk of rejection, with rejection rates significantly higher than liver transplantation. - Pancreatic tissue is highly **immunogenic** due to its endocrine and exocrine functions, requiring aggressive immunosuppression. - Often transplanted with kidney in diabetic patients, and rejection episodes are common. *Kidney* - Kidney transplantation is common, but it carries a significant risk of both **acute and chronic rejection**, requiring lifelong immunosuppression. - The kidney expresses various **MHC antigens** that are readily recognized by the recipient's immune system, making it more immunogenic than the liver. *Heart* - **Heart transplantation** is associated with a high risk of rejection due to the rich vascularity and immunogenicity of cardiac tissue. - It often requires aggressive immunosuppressive regimens to prevent both **acute cellular rejection** and **antibody-mediated rejection**.
Question 6: Which of the following structures does NOT pass through Calot's triangle?
- A. Right hepatic artery
- B. Lymph node of Lund
- C. Portal vein (Correct Answer)
- D. Cystic artery
Explanation: ***Portal vein*** - The **portal vein** is a major vessel that carries venous blood from the gastrointestinal tract and spleen to the liver; it is located within the **porta hepatis** and does not pass through Calot's triangle. - Its position is medial and posterior to the structures within Calot's triangle, making it an unlikely structure to be inadvertently ligated during cholecystectomy. *Cystic artery* - The **cystic artery** is a consistent structure found within Calot's triangle, typically arising from the **right hepatic artery**. - Its presence in the triangle makes it a primary target for ligation during **cholecystectomy**. *Right hepatic artery* - The **right hepatic artery** typically runs **superior to Calot's triangle** and gives off the cystic artery which enters the triangle. - While the right hepatic artery itself does not routinely pass through the triangle, anatomical variations may bring it into close proximity, and it can be at risk of injury during dissection if the critical view of safety is not established. *Lymph node of Lund* - The **lymph node of Lund**, also known as the cystic lymph node, is a key landmark located within Calot's triangle. - Its presence is important for identifying the boundaries of the triangle and assessing for inflammation or malignancy related to the gallbladder.
Question 7: What is the treatment of choice for Deviated Nasal Septum (DNS) in adults?
- A. Medical management with decongestants
- B. Observation
- C. Turbinoplasty
- D. Septoplasty (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Septoplasty*** - **Septoplasty** is the surgical procedure of choice to correct a deviated nasal septum by **realigning the cartilage and bone** in the septum. - It is performed to improve nasal airflow and address symptoms like **nasal obstruction** or recurrent sinusitis. *Medical management with decongestants* - **Decongestants** provide temporary relief from nasal congestion but do not correct the underlying **anatomical deviation** of the septum. - Prolonged use of decongestants can lead to **rhinitis medicamentosa**, a rebound congestion. *Observation* - **Observation** is not an appropriate long-term solution for symptomatic DNS as the **anatomical deviation** will persist and symptoms are unlikely to improve spontaneously. - Patients with significant symptoms impacting their quality of life require active intervention rather than just monitoring. *Turbinoplasty* - **Turbinoplasty** is a procedure to reduce the size of the **turbinates**, which are bony structures in the nasal cavity that can contribute to nasal obstruction. - While it can be performed concurrently with septoplasty, it does not correct the **deviated septum itself**.
Question 8: All of the following are indications for tracheostomy except ?
- A. Coma after head injury
- B. Maxillofacial injury
- C. Bilateral abductor palsy
- D. Superior laryngeal nerve palsy (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Superior laryngeal nerve palsy*** - While superior laryngeal nerve palsy can cause **hoarseness** and **dysphagia** due to impaired laryngeal sensation and cricothyroid muscle function, it typically does not directly lead to **airway obstruction** requiring a tracheostomy. - The primary concern with this condition is often **aspiration risk**, which is usually managed through compensatory swallowing techniques or dietary modifications, not surgical airway establishment. *Coma after head injury* - Patients in a **prolonged coma** or with severe **neurological impairment** often lose their protective airway reflexes (e.g., cough, gag reflex), increasing the risk of **aspiration** and making **pulmonary toilet** difficult. - A tracheostomy provides a secure, long-term airway for **ventilatory support**, suctioning, and protection against aspiration in these patients. *Maxillofacial injury* - Severe **maxillofacial trauma** can cause significant **airway obstruction** due to edema, hemorrhage, or anatomical disruption of the upper airway structures. - In such cases, a tracheostomy may be necessary to bypass the obstructed area and establish a **stable airway** for respiration. *Bilateral abductor palsy* - **Bilateral abductor palsy** results in failed abduction of both vocal cords, leading to a fixed, adducted position of the vocal cords that can cause severe or complete **airway obstruction**. - This condition is a direct and urgent indication for tracheostomy to ensure an **open airway**.
Question 9: Which of the following cancers do not present with cervical lymph node involvement?
- A. Papillary thyroid cancer
- B. Oral cancer
- C. Glottic Cancer (Correct Answer)
- D. Subglottic Cancer
Explanation: ***Glottic Cancer*** - **Glottic cancers** rarely present with cervical lymph node involvement because the **vocal cords** have a sparse lymphatic drainage system. - This anatomical feature limits the early spread of cancer cells to regional lymph nodes, distinguishing it from other head and neck cancers. *Subglottic Cancer* - **Subglottic cancers** frequently metastasize to cervical lymph nodes, specifically the **paratracheal** and **prelaryngeal nodes**, due to a richer lymphatic network. - The disease often presents at a more advanced stage because symptoms may be subtle until significant tumor burden or nodal involvement occurs. *Papillary thyroid cancer* - **Papillary thyroid cancer** commonly metastasizes to the cervical lymph nodes, often presenting with palpable **lymphadenopathy** even with small primary tumors. - Lymphatic spread is a hallmark feature, and **central neck dissection** is frequently performed as part of the surgical treatment. *Oral cancer* - **Oral cancers** (e.g., squamous cell carcinoma of the tongue, buccal mucosa) have a high propensity for early metastasis to **cervical lymph nodes**. - The rich lymphatic drainage of the oral cavity means that cervical lymph node involvement is a significant prognostic factor and is routinely assessed during staging.
Question 10: Which of the following statements is MOST accurate regarding Zenker diverticulum?
- A. It is a pulsion diverticulum (Correct Answer)
- B. It is between superior and middle constrictor
- C. It projects posteriorly
- D. It is commonly seen in older adults
Explanation: ***It is a pulsion diverticulum*** - A **Zenker diverticulum** is formed by the herniation of the **pharyngeal mucosa** through a weak point in the posterior pharyngeal wall, driven by increased intraluminal pressure (**pulsion**). - This contrasts with **traction diverticula**, which are caused by external pulling forces on the esophageal wall. *It is between superior and middle constrictor* - **Zenker diverticulum** occurs in **Killian's triangle**, a weak area between the **cricopharyngeus muscle** (part of the inferior constrictor) and the **thyropharyngeus muscle** (also part of the inferior constrictor). - The superior and middle constrictor muscles are located more superiorly in the pharynx, and diverticula in this region are rare. *It projects posteriorly* - Although it originates from the **posterior pharyngeal wall**, the **Zenker diverticulum** typically projects **left laterally** or **inferiorly** into the neck as it enlarges. - Its initial herniation is posterior, but subsequent growth and gravitational forces lead to its characteristic downward and often left-sided displacement. *It is commonly seen in older adults* - While it most commonly affects **older adults**, this statement describes an **epidemiological characteristic** rather than a fundamental pathophysiological feature of the diverticulum's formation. - The question asks for the **most accurate statement** regarding its nature, and its classification as a pulsion diverticulum directly addresses its pathological mechanism.