NEET-PG 2015 — Physiology

Q: Which of the following characteristics is shared by both active transport and facilitated diffusion?

Requires specific carrier proteins. ***Requires specific carrier proteins*** - Both **active transport** and **facilitated diffusion** rely on specific **transmembrane proteins** to move substances across the cell membrane. - These carrier proteins bind to the specific molecule they transport, undergoing conformational changes that facilitate its movement. *Does not require energy input* - This statement is only true for **facilitated diffusion**, which is a form of passive transport. - **Active transport** requires an input of **metabolic energy**, typically in the form of ATP, to move substances. *Transports solute down concentration gradient* - This is characteristic of **facilitated diffusion**, where molecules move from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration. - **Active transport** moves solutes **against** their concentration gradient, requiring energy. *Transports solute against concentration gradient* - This is a defining feature of **active transport**, which allows cells to accumulate substances even when their external concentration is lower. - **Facilitated diffusion** moves solutes **down** their concentration gradient and cannot transport against a gradient. [Practice more Physiology PYQs on OnCourse]

Q: Through which of the following means of transport is folic acid absorbed in the proximal jejunum?

Both active and passive transport. ***Both active and passive transport*** - **Folic acid** absorption in the **proximal jejunum** occurs through **both active and passive mechanisms**. - At **low physiological concentrations**, an **active carrier-mediated transport** system is primarily responsible, while at **higher concentrations** (e.g., from supplements), **passive diffusion** also plays a significant role. *Facilitated diffusion* - While a type of passive transport, **facilitated diffusion** alone does not fully encompass the entirety of folic acid absorption, especially at low concentrations. - It relies on a **concentration gradient** and **carrier proteins** but does not require metabolic energy. *Active transport* - **Active transport** is crucial for absorbing folic acid when its concentration is low in the gut lumen. - This process requires **energy** and specific **carrier proteins**, like the **reduced folate carrier (RFC)**, to transport folate against a concentration gradient. *Passive transport* - **Passive transport**, specifically **simple diffusion**, contributes to folic acid absorption but primarily at **high lumen concentrations**, such as after taking large doses of supplements. - It occurs down a **concentration gradient** and does not require energy or specific carriers. [Practice more Physiology PYQs on OnCourse]

Q: Labour pain in uterus is carried by

Sympathetic nerves. ***Sympathetic nerves*** - Pain signals from the **uterus** during the first stage of labor (cervical dilation and uterine contractions) are transmitted via **visceral afferent fibers that accompany the sympathetic nerves** through the **hypogastric plexus**. - These fibers synapse in the **thoracolumbar spinal cord** at **T10-L1 segments**, leading to referred pain in these dermatomes. - The pathway is: Uterus → Uterine plexus → Superior hypogastric plexus → Sympathetic chain → T10-L1 dorsal roots. *Splanchnic nerve* - While visceral afferents do travel with splanchnic nerves in the thoracoabdominal region, for **uterine pain** specifically, the standard medical terminology refers to **sympathetic nerves** and the **hypogastric plexus** as the primary pathway. - Splanchnic nerves typically refer to thoracic sympathetic contributions (T5-T12) to upper abdominal viscera. *Pudendal nerve* - The **pudendal nerve (S2-S4)** primarily innervates the perineum, external genitalia, and pelvic floor structures. - It transmits pain during the **second stage of labor**, particularly with stretching of the perineum and vaginal distension, but **not from the uterus itself**. *Parasympathetic nerves* - **Parasympathetic innervation (S2-S4 via pelvic splanchnic nerves)** to the uterus influences motor function but does **not transmit nociceptive (pain) signals** during labor. - These nerves are involved in visceral reflexes and efferent control, not the primary afferent pain pathway. [Practice more Physiology PYQs on OnCourse]

Q: Which of the following is not a recognized stage of prophase I in meiosis?

Arachytene. ***Arachytene*** - **Arachytene** is not a recognized stage of prophase I in meiosis. - The correct stages are leptotene, zygotene, pachytene, diplotene, and diakinesis. *Diakinesis* - **Diakinesis** is the final stage of prophase I, where homologous chromosomes condense further, and the nuclear envelope begins to break down. - Chiasmata terminalize, and the bivalents are ready for metaphase I. *Leptotene* - **Leptotene** is the first stage of prophase I, characterized by the condensation of chromatin into visible chromosomes. - Chromosomes appear as long, thin threads. *Zygotene* - **Zygotene** is the second stage of prophase I, where homologous chromosomes pair up in a process called **synapsis**, forming bivalents. - The synaptonemal complex begins to form between homologous chromosomes. [Practice more Physiology PYQs on OnCourse]

Q: Stapedius pulls stapes in which direction?

Posterior. ***Posterior*** - The **stapedius muscle** attaches to the **posterior surface of the stapes neck**. - Contraction of the stapedius muscle pulls the stapes **posteriorly and laterally** (posterolaterally), tilting the footplate away from the oval window and reducing sound transmission. - This action dampens excessive vibrations and protects the inner ear from loud sounds as part of the **acoustic reflex**. *Anterior* - Pulling the stapes anteriorly would push the footplate further into the **oval window**, which would increase sound transmission rather than dampen it. - No muscle pulls the stapes anteriorly in the context of the **acoustic reflex**. *Superior* - The stapedius muscle's action is primarily along the **posterolateral axis**, not superiorly. - Pulling superiorly would not effectively dampen sound vibrations or protect the inner ear from acoustic trauma. *Inferior* - The anatomy and function of the stapedius muscle do not support an inferior pulling action. - The stapedius acts to stabilize and retract the stapes **posterolaterally**, not inferiorly. [Practice more Physiology PYQs on OnCourse]

119 Previous Year Questions with Answers & Explanations

119

Questions

Which of the following characteristics is shared by both active transport and facilitated diffusion?

Through which of the following means of transport is folic acid absorbed in the proximal jejunum?

Labour pain in uterus is carried by

Which of the following is not a recognized stage of prophase I in meiosis?

Stapedius pulls stapes in which direction?

In a patient experiencing a stress response, which structure acts as the major central coordinator of the sympathetic nervous system?

Spermatogenesis begins at -

Inotropic effect of thyroid hormone is by ?

Somatomedin-C deficiency causes?

Q10

Cholecystokinin is produced from:

NEET-PG 2015 - Physiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 1: Which of the following characteristics is shared by both active transport and facilitated diffusion?

A. Does not require energy input
B. Transports solute down concentration gradient
C. Transports solute against concentration gradient
D. Requires specific carrier proteins (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Requires specific carrier proteins*** - Both **active transport** and **facilitated diffusion** rely on specific **transmembrane proteins** to move substances across the cell membrane. - These carrier proteins bind to the specific molecule they transport, undergoing conformational changes that facilitate its movement. *Does not require energy input* - This statement is only true for **facilitated diffusion**, which is a form of passive transport. - **Active transport** requires an input of **metabolic energy**, typically in the form of ATP, to move substances. *Transports solute down concentration gradient* - This is characteristic of **facilitated diffusion**, where molecules move from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration. - **Active transport** moves solutes **against** their concentration gradient, requiring energy. *Transports solute against concentration gradient* - This is a defining feature of **active transport**, which allows cells to accumulate substances even when their external concentration is lower. - **Facilitated diffusion** moves solutes **down** their concentration gradient and cannot transport against a gradient.

Question 2: Through which of the following means of transport is folic acid absorbed in the proximal jejunum?

A. Facilitated diffusion
B. Both active and passive transport (Correct Answer)
C. Active transport
D. Passive transport

Explanation: ***Both active and passive transport*** - **Folic acid** absorption in the **proximal jejunum** occurs through **both active and passive mechanisms**. - At **low physiological concentrations**, an **active carrier-mediated transport** system is primarily responsible, while at **higher concentrations** (e.g., from supplements), **passive diffusion** also plays a significant role. *Facilitated diffusion* - While a type of passive transport, **facilitated diffusion** alone does not fully encompass the entirety of folic acid absorption, especially at low concentrations. - It relies on a **concentration gradient** and **carrier proteins** but does not require metabolic energy. *Active transport* - **Active transport** is crucial for absorbing folic acid when its concentration is low in the gut lumen. - This process requires **energy** and specific **carrier proteins**, like the **reduced folate carrier (RFC)**, to transport folate against a concentration gradient. *Passive transport* - **Passive transport**, specifically **simple diffusion**, contributes to folic acid absorption but primarily at **high lumen concentrations**, such as after taking large doses of supplements. - It occurs down a **concentration gradient** and does not require energy or specific carriers.

Question 3: Labour pain in uterus is carried by

A. Sympathetic nerves (Correct Answer)
B. Pudendal nerve
C. Parasympathetic nerves
D. Splanchnic nerve

Explanation: ***Sympathetic nerves*** - Pain signals from the **uterus** during the first stage of labor (cervical dilation and uterine contractions) are transmitted via **visceral afferent fibers that accompany the sympathetic nerves** through the **hypogastric plexus**. - These fibers synapse in the **thoracolumbar spinal cord** at **T10-L1 segments**, leading to referred pain in these dermatomes. - The pathway is: Uterus → Uterine plexus → Superior hypogastric plexus → Sympathetic chain → T10-L1 dorsal roots. *Splanchnic nerve* - While visceral afferents do travel with splanchnic nerves in the thoracoabdominal region, for **uterine pain** specifically, the standard medical terminology refers to **sympathetic nerves** and the **hypogastric plexus** as the primary pathway. - Splanchnic nerves typically refer to thoracic sympathetic contributions (T5-T12) to upper abdominal viscera. *Pudendal nerve* - The **pudendal nerve (S2-S4)** primarily innervates the perineum, external genitalia, and pelvic floor structures. - It transmits pain during the **second stage of labor**, particularly with stretching of the perineum and vaginal distension, but **not from the uterus itself**. *Parasympathetic nerves* - **Parasympathetic innervation (S2-S4 via pelvic splanchnic nerves)** to the uterus influences motor function but does **not transmit nociceptive (pain) signals** during labor. - These nerves are involved in visceral reflexes and efferent control, not the primary afferent pain pathway.

Question 4: Which of the following is not a recognized stage of prophase I in meiosis?

A. Diakinesis
B. Leptotene
C. Zygotene
D. Arachytene (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Arachytene*** - **Arachytene** is not a recognized stage of prophase I in meiosis. - The correct stages are leptotene, zygotene, pachytene, diplotene, and diakinesis. *Diakinesis* - **Diakinesis** is the final stage of prophase I, where homologous chromosomes condense further, and the nuclear envelope begins to break down. - Chiasmata terminalize, and the bivalents are ready for metaphase I. *Leptotene* - **Leptotene** is the first stage of prophase I, characterized by the condensation of chromatin into visible chromosomes. - Chromosomes appear as long, thin threads. *Zygotene* - **Zygotene** is the second stage of prophase I, where homologous chromosomes pair up in a process called **synapsis**, forming bivalents. - The synaptonemal complex begins to form between homologous chromosomes.

Question 5: Stapedius pulls stapes in which direction?

A. Anterior
B. Superior
C. Inferior
D. Posterior (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Posterior*** - The **stapedius muscle** attaches to the **posterior surface of the stapes neck**. - Contraction of the stapedius muscle pulls the stapes **posteriorly and laterally** (posterolaterally), tilting the footplate away from the oval window and reducing sound transmission. - This action dampens excessive vibrations and protects the inner ear from loud sounds as part of the **acoustic reflex**. *Anterior* - Pulling the stapes anteriorly would push the footplate further into the **oval window**, which would increase sound transmission rather than dampen it. - No muscle pulls the stapes anteriorly in the context of the **acoustic reflex**. *Superior* - The stapedius muscle's action is primarily along the **posterolateral axis**, not superiorly. - Pulling superiorly would not effectively dampen sound vibrations or protect the inner ear from acoustic trauma. *Inferior* - The anatomy and function of the stapedius muscle do not support an inferior pulling action. - The stapedius acts to stabilize and retract the stapes **posterolaterally**, not inferiorly.

Question 6: In a patient experiencing a stress response, which structure acts as the major central coordinator of the sympathetic nervous system?

A. Nucleus ambiguus
B. Nucleus tractus solitarius
C. Edinger-Westphal nucleus
D. Hypothalamus (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Hypothalamus*** - The **hypothalamus** is the primary subcortical region that integrates stress responses by coordinating the **autonomic nervous system** and the **endocrine system**. - It directly regulates the **sympathetic nervous system** activation during stress through its projections to lower brainstem and spinal cord centers. *Nucleus ambiguus* - This nucleus is primarily involved in the motor control of the **pharynx, larynx, and esophagus**, as well as controlling the **parasympathetic innervation of the heart**. - While part of the autonomic system, it is not the major central coordinator of the sympathetic stress response. *Nucleus tractus solitarius* - The **nucleus tractus solitarius (NTS)** receives visceral sensory input from cranial nerves (e.g., vagus nerve) and plays a role in cardiovascular and respiratory reflexes. - It influences the autonomic nervous system but acts as a relay and integration center for specific reflexes rather than the overall central coordinator of the stress response. *Edinger-Westphal nucleus* - The **Edinger-Westphal nucleus** is a preganglionic parasympathetic nucleus that controls the **pupillary light reflex** and **accommodation (lens focusing)**. - Its function is related to the parasympathetic division but not as the central coordinator of the systemic sympathetic stress response.

Question 7: Spermatogenesis begins at -

A. Birth
B. 5 years
C. Puberty (Correct Answer)
D. 18 years

Explanation: ***Puberty*** - **Spermatogenesis**, the process of sperm production, is initiated and sustained by the surge of **gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)**, which begins at puberty. - This hormonal signal leads to the secretion of **luteinizing hormone (LH)** and **follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)**, crucial for testicular function and sperm development. *Birth* - At birth, the male testes contain **spermatogonia**, but these cells remain dormant and do not begin active sperm production. - Hormonal levels at birth are not conducive to initiating spermatogenesis. *5 years* - While some hormonal changes occur in early childhood, they are not sufficient to trigger the full process of spermatogenesis. - The reproductive system is still in a quiescent state before puberty. *18 years* - By 18 years, spermatogenesis is typically well-established and has been ongoing for several years, having started at puberty. - This age marks a period of full reproductive maturity, not the initiation of sperm production.

Question 8: Inotropic effect of thyroid hormone is by ?

A. Membrane receptors
B. cAMP
C. cGMP
D. Enhancement of Catecholamines (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Enhancement of Catecholamines*** - Thyroid hormones **potentiate the effects of catecholamines** (like adrenaline and noradrenaline) on the heart, leading to increased heart rate and contractility, which is an **inotropic effect**. - This occurs by increasing the number and sensitivity of **beta-adrenergic receptors** on cardiac muscle cells. *Membrane receptors* - While thyroid hormones do have some rapid, non-genomic effects that may involve **membrane receptors**, their primary and well-established inotropic effect is mediated indirectly through catecholamine sensitivity. - The classic action of thyroid hormones is via intracellular receptors that modulate gene expression, not direct membrane receptor signaling for inotropic effects. *cAMP* - **cAMP** is a common second messenger for many hormones, particularly those acting via G protein-coupled receptors. - While catecholamines themselves act through cAMP to exert their cardiac effects, thyroid hormones *enhance the action* of catecholamines rather than directly using cAMP as their primary inotropic mechanism. *cGMP* - **cGMP** is a second messenger often associated with nitric oxide signaling and vasodilation, contributing to cGMP-dependent protein kinases. - It is not the primary mediator for the *positive inotropic effect* of thyroid hormones on the heart.

Question 9: Somatomedin-C deficiency causes?

A. Growth retardation (Correct Answer)
B. Genetic dwarfism
C. Congenital hypothyroidism
D. Type 1 diabetes mellitus

Explanation: ***Growth retardation*** - **Somatomedin-C** (also known as **Insulin-like Growth Factor 1 or IGF-1**) is a crucial mediator of **growth hormone's** effects on growth. - A deficiency in Somatomedin-C, therefore, directly leads to **impaired growth** and **stature**, manifesting as **growth retardation**. *Genetic dwarfism* - This term generally refers to dwarfism caused by various **genetic conditions** (e.g., achondroplasia), which may or may not involve the **growth hormone/IGF-1 axis**. - While Somatomedin-C deficiency can be genetic, "genetic dwarfism" is a broader term and not the most precise answer for the direct consequence. *Congenital hypothyroidism* - This condition results from **deficient thyroid hormone production** from birth. - It leads to neurological impairment and **growth failure**, but it is due to **thyroid hormone deficiency**, not Somatomedin-C deficiency. *Type 1 diabetes mellitus* - This is an **autoimmune disease** characterized by the **destruction of pancreatic beta cells**, leading to **insulin deficiency**. - It is entirely unrelated to **Somatomedin-C** or the growth hormone axis.

Question 10: Cholecystokinin is produced from:

A. Hepatocyte
B. Gastric mucosa
C. Duodenal mucosa (Correct Answer)
D. Epithelial cells of distal common bile duct

Explanation: ***Duodenal mucosa*** - **Cholecystokinin (CCK)** is primarily secreted by **I cells**, which are specialized enteroendocrine cells located in the **mucosa of the duodenum** and jejunum. - The release of CCK is stimulated by the presence of **fatty acids** and **amino acids** in the small intestine. *Hepatocyte* - **Hepatocytes** are the main functional cells of the liver, responsible for bile production, metabolism, and detoxification. - They **do not produce regulatory hormones** like cholecystokinin. *Gastric mucosa* - The **gastric mucosa** primarily produces **gastrin**, hydrochloric acid, and pepsinogen, which are involved in gastric digestion. - It does **not secrete cholecystokinin**, which is involved in stimulating gallbladder contraction and pancreatic enzyme release. *Epithelial cells of distal common bile duct* - The **epithelial cells of the common bile duct** are involved in bile transport and modification, but **not in hormone production**. - Their primary role is to line the duct and contribute to the composition of bile.