Which type of anemia is most commonly characterized by marked poikilocytosis and anisocytosis on peripheral blood smear?
The Ham test is specifically used for diagnosing paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH) and is based upon:
The tissue of origin of the Kaposi's sarcoma is
Plaques jaunes are seen in which condition?
Alzheimer type II astrocytes are seen in which condition?
Which of the following statements about cross-matching of blood is false?
What is the number of Barr bodies present in Klinefelter's syndrome?
Which of the following is NOT a recognized cause of Urothelial Carcinomas?
Which is the most common type of male breast cancer?
Which of the following testicular tumours is NOT a germ cell tumour?
NEET-PG 2015 - Pathology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 71: Which type of anemia is most commonly characterized by marked poikilocytosis and anisocytosis on peripheral blood smear?
- A. Megaloblastic anemia
- B. Iron deficiency anemia (Correct Answer)
- C. Nutritional anemia
- D. Thalassemia
Explanation: ***Iron deficiency anaemia*** - Characterized by **poikilocytosis** (abnormal shapes) and **anisocytosis** (variation in red blood cell sizes), which are common findings in iron deficiency [1]. - Typically results in **microcytic hypochromic anemia** [1], distinguishing it from other types of anemia. *Nutritional deficiency anaemia* - May present with various blood cell morphology but does not specifically exhibit **poikilocytosis** and **anisocytosis** characteristic of iron deficiency anemia. - Usually includes deficiencies like **vitamin B12** or **folate**, which result in **macrocytic anemia** instead. *Megaloblastic anaemia* - Primarily caused by deficiency of **vitamin B12** or **folate**, leading to large, immature red blood cells (megaloblasts) rather than varied shapes and sizes. - Associated with **hypersegmented neutrophils** in the blood smear, which differentiates it from iron deficiency anemia. *Thalassemia* - Characterized by **microcytic hypochromic red blood cells** and often involves **target cells** rather than generalized poikilocytosis and anisocytosis. - Typically presents with **hemolytic anemia** but does not show the same variability in cell shapes and sizes as seen in iron deficiency anemia. **References:** [1] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Blood And Bone Marrow Disease, pp. 590-591.
Question 72: The Ham test is specifically used for diagnosing paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH) and is based upon:
- A. GPI Anchor Proteins
- B. Complement (Correct Answer)
- C. Spectrin protein
- D. Mannose binding proteins
Explanation: ***Complement*** - The HAM test is based on the activation of the **complement system** which enhances the opsonization and clearance of immune complexes [1]. - It is used in the diagnosis of certain conditions, notably those associated with **hemolytic anemia** due to complement fixation. *GPI Anchor Proteins* - GPI anchor proteins are involved in anchoring proteins to cell membranes but are **not related to the HAM test**. - This oes not explain the **mechanism** or purpose of the HAM test. *Mannose binding proteins* - Mannose binding lectins play a role in **innate immunity** but are not the basis of the HAM test. - They function in the **opsonization of pathogens**, which is unrelated to the complement activation aspect of the HAM test. *Spectrin protein* - Spectrin is a cytoskeletal protein that contributes to the integrity of cell membranes, particularly in red blood cells. - It does not relate to the **mechanism of the HAM test**, which focuses on complement involvement. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Inflammation and Repair, pp. 99-100.
Question 73: The tissue of origin of the Kaposi's sarcoma is
- A. Lymphoid
- B. Vascular (Correct Answer)
- C. Neural
- D. Muscular
Explanation: ***Vascular*** - Kaposi's sarcoma originates from the **vascular tissue**, specifically from endothelial cells lining blood vessels [2]. - The lesions are characterized by **angiogenesis**, leading to the formation of vascular tumors with dilated endothelial cell-lined vascular spaces [1]. *Muscular* - Muscular tissue is involved in **voluntary** and **involuntary movements** but is not related to the etiology of Kaposi's sarcoma. - This condition does not arise from **muscle cells** or any muscular components. *Neural* - Neural tissue consists of **neurons** and **glial cells**, which are not implicated in Kaposi's sarcoma. - Kaposi's sarcoma does not originate from any **neural structures** or pathologies. *Lymphoid* - Lymphoid tissue primarily concerns the immune system, particularly the **lymphatic system**, and does not give rise to Kaposi's sarcoma. - This malignancy does not derive from **lymphoid components** like lymphocytes or lymph nodes. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Diseases of Infancy and Childhood, pp. 526-527. [2] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Cardiovascular Disease, pp. 282-283.
Question 74: Plaques jaunes are seen in which condition?
- A. Syphilis
- B. Head injury
- C. Endocarditis
- D. Atherosclerosis (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Head injury*** - **Plaques jaunes**, or yellow plaques, are primarily associated with brain injuries, particularly in areas of **contusion** or **hemorrhage** [1]. - These plaques may represent **lipid-laden macrophages** and indicate areas of *necrosis* and inflammation in the brain [1]. *Endocarditis* - Endocarditis is characterized by **vegetations** on heart valves rather than plaques in the brain. - Symptoms typically include **fever**, **murmurs**, and **embolization**, which do not involve yellow plaques. *Syphilis* - Syphilis may cause *gummatous lesions* but is not associated with yellow plaques in the brain. - Typical findings include **rash** and **ulcerative lesions**, particularly during the secondary stage. *Atherosclerosis* - Atherosclerosis involves **plaque formation** in blood vessels but these are not the same as **plaques jaunes** in neurological contexts. - It is characterized by **cholesterol** deposits and plaque rupture leading to cardiovascular events, not plaques seen in head injuries. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Central Nervous System, pp. 1262-1264.
Question 75: Alzheimer type II astrocytes are seen in which condition?
- A. Hepatic encephalopathy (Correct Answer)
- B. Parkinsonism
- C. Alzheimer's
- D. Binswanger disease
Explanation: ***Hepatic encephalopathy*** - **Alzheimer type II astrocytes** are characteristic histological findings in cases of **hepatic encephalopathy**, reflecting the brain's response to elevated ammonia levels. - These astrocytes show enlarged, pale nuclei with prominent nucleoli and marginal chromatin, indicating cellular stress from metabolic dysfunction in the setting of liver failure. *Alzheimer's* - Alzheimer's disease is characterized by the presence of **neurofibrillary tangles** (tau protein) and **amyloid plaques** (beta-amyloid protein), not Alzheimer type II astrocytes. - Astrocytes in Alzheimer's disease may show reactive changes, but they do not typically manifest as the specific "Alzheimer type II" morphology. *Parkinsonism* - Parkinsonism is primarily characterized by the degeneration of **dopaminergic neurons** in the substantia nigra and the presence of **Lewy bodies** (alpha-synuclein aggregates). - While glial cells (astrocytes and microglia) do play a role in neuroinflammation in Parkinson's, they do not exhibit the specific Alzheimer type II astrocytic change. *Binswanger disease* - Binswanger disease is a form of **vascular dementia** characterized by diffuse white matter lesions due to chronic ischemia and damage to small cerebral blood vessels. - The pathology primarily involves demyelination and axonal loss in the white matter, with reactive gliosis, but not the specific changes seen in Alzheimer type II astrocytes.
Question 76: Which of the following statements about cross-matching of blood is false?
- A. Mandatory in all cases except emergency
- B. Involves visible agglutination
- C. Recipient serum is tested against donor packed cells
- D. Donor serum is tested against recipient packed cells (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Donor serum is tested against recipient packed cells*** - This statement is **FALSE** and describes a **minor crossmatch**, which is rarely performed in modern transfusion practice. - The minor crossmatch tests donor antibodies against recipient cells, but this is not standard practice because donor plasma is significantly diluted during transfusion, making clinically significant reactions rare. - Modern blood banking focuses on the **major crossmatch** as the critical safety measure. *Recipient serum is tested against donor packed cells* - This statement is **TRUE** and accurately describes the **major crossmatch**, which is the standard and most critical pre-transfusion compatibility test. - The major crossmatch detects antibodies in the recipient's serum that could react with donor red blood cell antigens, preventing potentially fatal hemolytic transfusion reactions. *Mandatory in all cases except emergency* - This statement is **TRUE**. Crossmatching is mandatory for safe transfusion practice. - In life-threatening emergencies where delay could be fatal, uncrossmatched O-negative (universal donor) blood may be given, but this is a rare exception. *Involves visible agglutination* - This statement is **TRUE**. A positive crossmatch indicating incompatibility is identified by **visible agglutination** or **hemolysis**. - These visible reactions occur when recipient antibodies bind to donor red blood cell antigens, signaling that transfusion would cause a severe reaction.
Question 77: What is the number of Barr bodies present in Klinefelter's syndrome?
- A. 0
- B. 1 (Correct Answer)
- C. 2
- D. 3
Explanation: ***1*** - **Klinefelter's syndrome** typically has a 47,XXY karyotype, meaning there are two X chromosomes [1]. - The number of Barr bodies is calculated as **N-1**, where N is the total number of X chromosomes. In this case, 2-1 = **1 Barr body** [1]. - This follows the principle that one X chromosome remains active while additional X chromosomes are inactivated [1]. *0* - **No Barr bodies** are found in individuals with a normal male karyotype (46,XY) or in Turner syndrome (45,XO), neither of which describes Klinefelter's syndrome [1]. - The presence of at least one Barr body indicates the presence of at least two X chromosomes. *2* - **Two Barr bodies** would be indicative of a karyotype with three X chromosomes (e.g., 47,XXX syndrome or Triple X syndrome), which is not Klinefelter's syndrome. - This calculation follows the N-1 rule: 3 X chromosomes - 1 = 2 Barr bodies. *3* - **Three Barr bodies** would correspond to a karyotype with four X chromosomes (e.g., 48,XXXX), which is an even rarer sex chromosome aneuploidy not associated with Klinefelter's syndrome. - The N-1 rule applies: 4 X chromosomes - 1 = 3 Barr bodies. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Genetic Disorders, pp. 173-174.
Question 78: Which of the following is NOT a recognized cause of Urothelial Carcinomas?
- A. Industrial solvents
- B. Exposure to thorotrast
- C. Alcohol consumption (Correct Answer)
- D. Smoking
Explanation: ***Alcohol consumption*** - Research does not support a direct association between **alcohol consumption** and an increased risk of urothelial carcinomas. - While excessive alcohol can lead to other forms of cancer, it is not a recognized risk factor for **bladder cancer** specifically. *Smoking* - Smoking is a well-established risk factor for **urothelial carcinomas**, significantly increasing the risk of **bladder cancer** [1]. - It is responsible for up to **50% of bladder cancer cases**, due to carcinogens in tobacco smoke [1]. *Exposure to thorotrast* - **Thorotrast**, a radiopaque contrast medium, is associated with **radiation exposure**, which is a known risk for urothelial carcinomas [3]. - Its use has been linked to increased incidence of bladder cancer due to radioactive properties [3]. *Industrial solvents* - Exposure to various **industrial solvents** such as **aromatic amines** has been linked to a higher risk of developing urothelial carcinomas [1][2]. - These chemicals are commonly found in **dyes**, **rubber**, and other manufacturing processes [2]. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Lower Urinary Tract and Male Genital System, pp. 968-970. [2] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. (Basic Pathology) introduces the student to key general principles of pathology, both as a medical science and as a clinical activity with a vital role in patient care. Part 2 (Disease Mechanisms) provides fundamental knowledge about the cellular and molecular processes involved in diseases, providing the rationale for their treatment. Part 3 (Systematic Pathology) deals in detail with specific diseases, with emphasis on the clinically important aspects., pp. 217-218. [3] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. (Basic Pathology) introduces the student to key general principles of pathology, both as a medical science and as a clinical activity with a vital role in patient care. Part 2 (Disease Mechanisms) provides fundamental knowledge about the cellular and molecular processes involved in diseases, providing the rationale for their treatment. Part 3 (Systematic Pathology) deals in detail with specific diseases, with emphasis on the clinically important aspects., pp. 216-217.
Question 79: Which is the most common type of male breast cancer?
- A. Inflammatory Breast Cancer
- B. Invasive Ductal Carcinoma (Correct Answer)
- C. Invasive Lobular Carcinoma
- D. Mucinous Carcinoma
Explanation: ***Invasive Ductal Carcinoma*** - This is by far the most common type of breast cancer in men, accounting for approximately **80-90%** of all male breast cancer cases. - It originates in the **milk ducts** and then invades the surrounding breast tissue. *Invasive Lobular Carcinoma* - This type of cancer originates in the **milk-producing glands (lobules)**. - It is **extremely rare** in men due to the underdeveloped and non-functional lobules in the male breast. *Mucinous Carcinoma* - This is a **rare subtype** of invasive ductal carcinoma characterized by cancer cells that produce **mucin**. - It accounts for only a small percentage of male breast cancers, typically **2-3%** of cases. *Inflammatory Breast Cancer* - This is a **rare and aggressive** form of breast cancer characterized by rapid onset of redness, swelling, and warmth in the breast, often mistaken for an infection. - Although it can occur in men, it is not the most common type and represents a very small fraction of male breast cancer diagnoses.
Question 80: Which of the following testicular tumours is NOT a germ cell tumour?
- A. Seminoma
- B. Teratoma
- C. Choriocarcinoma
- D. Sertoli cell tumour (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Sertoli cell tumour*** - This is a **sex-cord stromal tumour**, not a germ cell tumour, hence it does not arise from germ cells. - Sertoli cell tumours typically present with abnormal hormone levels, but not the classic germ cell tumour markers. *Choriocarcinoma* - This is a **germ cell tumour** that is aggressive and associated with high levels of **beta-hCG** [1][2]. - It derives from the placental tissue and is characterized by **trophoblastic differentiation** [2]. *Seminoma* - A well-known type of **germ cell tumour**, often presenting as a **homogeneous testicular mass** [1]. - It usually manifests with elevated **LDH** and is associated with a more favorable prognosis compared to non-seminomatous germ cell tumours [1]. *Teratoma* - Teratomas are also classified as **germ cell tumours**, containing differentiated tissues like hair, muscle, and bone [1][2]. - They can be **mature** (benign) or **immature** (malignant), and are typically found in younger patients [2][3]. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Lower Urinary Tract and Male Genital System, pp. 979-980. [2] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Lower Urinary Tract and Male Genital System, pp. 982-983. [3] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Diseases Of The Urinary And Male Genital Tracts, pp. 512-513.