NEET-PG 2015 Practice Questions

Q: Traumatic optic neuropathy due to closed head trauma commonly affects which part of the optic nerve?

Optic canal. ***Optic canal*** - The **optic nerve** is highly susceptible to injury within the **optic canal** due to its tight anatomical confines and the close proximity of the optic nerve to rigid bone. - Trauma to this region can lead to direct compression, shearing injury, or ischemia from damage to surrounding vasculature, resulting in significant visual impairment. *Intra ocular part* - The intraocular part of the optic nerve, including the **optic disc**, is typically protected by the globe and orbit against blunt trauma. - Direct intraocular trauma, such as a penetrating injury, would be required to significantly affect this segment, which is not usually the cause in closed head trauma. *Intracranial part* - The intracranial part of the optic nerve is relatively mobile within the cerebrospinal fluid and is less prone to direct compression or shearing forces from closed head trauma compared to the optic canal. - While it can be affected by diffuse axonal injury or mass effects within the cranium, it is not the most commonly affected segment for traumatic optic neuropathy in closed head injuries. *Optic tract* - The **optic tract** lies posterior to the optic chiasm and is part of the central nervous system pathways for vision, not the optic nerve itself. - Injuries to the optic tract are more likely to cause homonymous hemianopia rather than the profound unilateral vision loss characteristic of traumatic optic neuropathy, and are generally less vulnerable to direct mechanical trauma from closed head injury.

Q: Laryngeal mask airway [LMA] is contraindicated in?

Pregnant female. ***Pregnant female*** - **Pregnant patients** are at an increased risk of **gastric reflux and aspiration pneumonitis** due to decreased lower esophageal sphincter tone and increased intra-abdominal pressure. - The LMA does not provide a secure airway seal against aspiration, making it contraindicated in cases where **aspiration risk is high**, such as pregnancy or full stomach. *Difficult airways* - The LMA is often considered a **rescue device** in difficult airway algorithms when tracheal intubation fails. - It can be used as a conduit for **fiberoptic intubation** or as a temporary airway while preparing for a definitive airway. *Ocular surgeries* - LMAs are generally suitable for ocular surgeries as they provide a stable airway without the use of a mask, which can obstruct the surgical field. - They tend to cause **less coughing and straining** upon insertion and maintenance compared to endotracheal tubes, which is beneficial in preventing increases in intraocular pressure. *In CPR* - The LMA can be an effective airway device during **cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR)** when endotracheal intubation is not immediately feasible. - It provides a relatively quick and easy way to establish an airway, facilitate ventilation, and reduce the risk of gastric insufflation during chest compressions.

Q: Which zone of the prostate is primarily involved in Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH)?

Transitional zone. ***Transitional zone*** - The **transitional zone** surrounds the urethra and is the primary site of origin and enlargement in **Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH)**. - Its hypertrophy leads to compression of the urethra, causing **lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS)**. *Central zone* - The **central zone** surrounds the ejaculatory ducts and is less commonly involved in BPH. - It is more frequently associated with the development of **prostate carcinoma**. *Peripheral zone* - The **peripheral zone** is the largest zone of the prostate and is where the majority of prostate cancers originate. - While it can be affected by BPH, it is not the primary zone for hypertrophy. *Prostate capsule* - The **prostate capsule** is the outer fibrous layer that encloses the prostate gland. - It does not undergo hyperplasia in BPH; rather, it encases the enlarging gland.

Q: Which test is used to diagnose congenital syphilis in a newborn born to a syphilitic mother?

Detection of IgM. ***Detection of IgM*** - The presence of **IgM antibodies** in a newborn suggests active infection because maternal IgM does not cross the placenta. - This indicates the newborn's immune system has produced its own antibodies in response to *Treponema pallidum* infection. *Detection of IgG* - **Maternal IgG antibodies can cross the placenta**, so detecting IgG in a newborn does not differentiate between passive transfer from the mother and active newborn infection. - While total IgG might be elevated due to infection, specific IgM is a more reliable indicator of active congenital syphilis. *ZN staining* - **Ziehl-Neelsen (ZN) staining** is used to identify **acid-fast bacteria**, such as *Mycobacterium tuberculosis*, not spirochetes like *Treponema pallidum*. - *Treponema pallidum* is typically visualized using darkfield microscopy or silver stains due to its thin, helical shape. *FTA-ABS test* - The **Fluorescent Treponemal Antibody Absorption (FTA-ABS)** test detects specific antibodies against *Treponema pallidum* but primarily measures IgG, which can be maternally transferred. - While it confirms exposure, an IgM-specific FTA-ABS would be more definitive for congenital syphilis, but the general FTA-ABS test alone is not sufficient to diagnose active infection in a newborn.

Q: Which is not a risk factor for gestational hypertension

Smoking. ***Smoking*** - **Smoking** paradoxically shows a *protective effect* against gestational hypertension and preeclampsia, making it the correct answer as it is NOT a risk factor for gestational hypertension. - This well-documented phenomenon may be related to smoking's vasodilatory effects and reduced production of anti-angiogenic factors. - However, smoking carries numerous other serious risks including **intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR)**, **placental abruption**, **preterm birth**, and **perinatal mortality**. *Primigravida* - **Primigravida** (first pregnancy) is a well-established risk factor for gestational hypertension and preeclampsia. - First-time exposure to paternal antigens and incomplete immune tolerance may contribute to this increased risk. - The risk decreases in subsequent pregnancies with the same partner. *Factor V Leiden mutation* - The **Factor V Leiden mutation** is the most common inherited thrombophilia and significantly increases the risk of gestational hypertension and preeclampsia. - This mutation causes resistance to activated protein C, leading to a hypercoagulable state that can impair placental perfusion. - Associated with increased risk of venous thromboembolism during pregnancy. *Low maternal age* - **Low maternal age** (adolescent pregnancy, <20 years) is actually a recognized *risk factor* for gestational hypertension. - Young mothers may have incomplete physical and cardiovascular maturity to handle pregnancy-related physiological changes. - Adolescent pregnancies are associated with higher rates of hypertensive disorders of pregnancy.

Q: Which of the following is NOT a cause of oligohydramnios?

Chorioangioma. ***Chorioangioma*** - A **chorioangioma** is a benign placental tumor that causes **polyhydramnios** (excess amniotic fluid), which is the **opposite** of oligohydramnios. - Large chorioangiomas lead to increased transudation from the tumor's vascular channels, fetal anemia, and high-output cardiac failure, resulting in increased fetal urine production. - This is clearly **NOT a cause** of oligohydramnios, making it the correct answer. *IUGR* - **Intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR)**, particularly with placental insufficiency, is a common cause of **oligohydramnios**. - Reduced placental perfusion leads to decreased **fetal renal blood flow** and diminished urine production. - Since fetal urine is the main source of amniotic fluid after 16 weeks, reduced output causes oligohydramnios. *Renal agenesis* - **Bilateral renal agenesis** (Potter syndrome) is a classic and severe cause of **oligohydramnios/anhydramnios**. - Complete absence of kidneys means **no fetal urine production**, eliminating the primary source of amniotic fluid in the second and third trimesters. - Results in severe oligohydramnios with associated pulmonary hypoplasia and Potter facies. *Amnion nodosum* - **Amnion nodosum** refers to small, grayish-yellow nodules on the fetal surface of the amnion, composed of aggregated fetal squamous epithelial cells and vernix. - These nodules are a **pathological finding** that occurs as a **consequence** of chronic oligohydramnios, not a cause. - They form due to prolonged contact between the fetal skin and amnion when amniotic fluid is severely reduced. - While technically "not a cause," it is strongly **associated with** oligohydramnios, whereas chorioangioma causes the opposite condition entirely.

Q: During pregnancy, the increased size of the pituitary gland is primarily due to the enlargement of which hormone-secreting cells?

Prolactin. ***Prolactin*** - During pregnancy, the number and size of **lactotrophs**, the cells that secrete prolactin, increase significantly due to high **estrogen** levels. - This **hyperplasia** and **hypertrophy** of lactotrophs contribute to the overall enlargement of the pituitary gland, preparing it for lactation. *Growth hormone* - While growth hormone is important, there isn't a primary enlargement of **somatotrophs** (GH-secreting cells) in the pituitary during pregnancy. - Furthermore, most circulating GH during pregnancy is **placental growth hormone**, rather than pituitary-derived. *ACTH* - Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) is secreted by **corticotrophs**, and these cells do not undergo prominent hypertrophy or hyperplasia during normal pregnancy. - While cortisol levels increase, this is largely due to factors other than increased pituitary ACTH cell size. *TSH* - Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) is secreted by **thyrotrophs**, which do not notably enlarge during pregnancy. - Thyroid gland activity increases during pregnancy, but this is mediated by **hCG** and other mechanisms, not pituitary thyrotroph growth.

Q: A 54 year old woman is diagnosed as having carcinoma of the renal pelvis of size less than 4 cm without any metastasis. The best treatment option is

Radical Nephroureterectomy. ***Radical Nephroureterectomy*** - Carcinoma of the **renal pelvis** is a type of upper tract urothelial carcinoma (UTUC). Because of the multifocal nature and higher risk of recurrence of UTUC, **radical nephroureterectomy** (which includes removal of the kidney, ureter, and bladder cuff) is the standard treatment, even for smaller tumors. - Unlike renal cell carcinoma, partial nephrectomy is generally not recommended for renal pelvis carcinomas due to the risk of leaving behind residual disease in the ureter or bladder cuff. *Partial nephrectomy* - This is generally reserved for small, localized **renal cell carcinomas**, especially when kidney function preservation is a concern (e.g., solitary kidney, bilateral tumors). - For **renal pelvis carcinomas**, partial nephrectomy is associated with a higher risk of local recurrence because of the potential for tumor spread within the ureter and multifocal disease. *Chemotherapy and immunotherapy* - **Chemotherapy** (often cisplatin-based) might be used as neoadjuvant or adjuvant therapy for locally advanced or high-risk UTUC, or for metastatic disease. It is not the primary curative treatment for localized disease. - **Immunotherapy** is typically reserved for advanced or metastatic urothelial carcinoma that has progressed after chemotherapy. *Palliative Radiotherapy* - **Radiotherapy** has a limited role in the primary curative treatment of renal pelvis carcinoma. - It is mainly used in a **palliative setting** for symptom control (e.g., bone metastases, local pain) in advanced or metastatic disease, not for localized, resectable tumors.

Q: RPLND and Chemotherapy may be used in management of?

Non-seminomatous germ cell tumors of the testis. ***Non-seminomatous germ cell tumors of the testis*** - **Retroperitoneal lymph node dissection (RPLND)** and **chemotherapy** are key components in the management of non-seminomatous germ cell tumors (NSGCTs), especially for metastatic disease or after initial orchidectomy. - The combination therapy addresses both local nodal involvement (RPLND) and widespread micrometastases (chemotherapy), which are common in NSGCTs. *Non-germ cell tumors* - This is a broad category, and while some non-germ cell testicular tumors may require surgery or chemotherapy, **RPLND** is not a standard part of their management in the same way it is for germ cell tumors. - The specific treatment depends on the tumor type (e.g., Leydig cell tumor, Sertoli cell tumor), stage, and histology, and often involves less aggressive approaches. *Seminomatous germ cell tumors* - **Seminomas** are highly radiosensitive and often respond well to **radiation therapy**, particularly for localized disease or retroperitoneal nodal involvement. - While chemotherapy is used for metastatic seminoma, **RPLND** is generally not indicated for seminomas due to their radiosensitivity and different metastatic patterns compared to NSGCTs. *Lymphoma of the testis* - Testicular lymphoma is a type of **non-Hodgkin lymphoma** and is primarily managed with systemic **chemotherapy** (e.g., R-CHOP) and sometimes radiation therapy. - **RPLND** is not a standard treatment modality for testicular lymphoma, as it is a systemic disease requiring systemic treatment, not local surgical excision of retroperitoneal nodes.

Q: What is the typical absorption duration of Polydioxanone sutures?

6 months. ***Correct: 6 months*** - **Polydioxanone (PDS) sutures** are known for their **prolonged absorption time**, typically ranging from 180 to 210 days, or approximately 6 months. - This characteristic makes PDS sutures suitable for tissues requiring **extended support** during the healing process. - PDS retains approximately **50% tensile strength at 4 weeks** and **25% at 6 weeks**, with complete absorption occurring over 6-7 months. *Incorrect: 2 weeks* - An absorption duration of 2 weeks is characteristic of **rapidly absorbing sutures**, such as **chromic gut** or **fast-absorbing synthetic sutures**, which are used for tissues that heal quickly or require minimal support. - PDS sutures offer much longer tensile strength retention and absorption than this brief period. *Incorrect: 4 weeks* - A 4-week absorption time is considerably shorter than that of PDS sutures. This duration might be seen with some **intermediate-absorbing sutures**, but not with the long-lasting PDS. - Sutures absorbed in this timeframe would not provide sufficient support for tissues where PDS is typically indicated. *Incorrect: 6 weeks* - While longer than 2 or 4 weeks, 6 weeks (approximately 42 days) is still much shorter than the typical absorption profile of PDS sutures. - Sutures like **Vicryl Rapide** might fall into this absorption range, but PDS is designed for applications needing several months of support.

Question 1

Traumatic optic neuropathy due to closed head trauma commonly affects which part of the optic nerve?

Accepted Answer

Optic canal

Answer

Intraocular part

Answer

Intracranial part

Answer

Optic tract

Question 2

Laryngeal mask airway [LMA] is contraindicated in?

Accepted Answer

Pregnant female

Answer

Ocular surgeries

Answer

Difficult airways

Answer

In CPR

Question 3

Which zone of the prostate is primarily involved in Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH)?

Accepted Answer

Transitional zone

Answer

Central zone

Answer

Peripheral zone

Answer

Prostate capsule

Question 4

Which test is used to diagnose congenital syphilis in a newborn born to a syphilitic mother?

Accepted Answer

Detection of IgM

Answer

Detection of IgG

Answer

ZN staining

Answer

FTA-ABS test

Question 5

Which is not a risk factor for gestational hypertension

Accepted Answer

Smoking

Answer

Primigravida

Answer

Factor V Leiden mutation

Answer

Low maternal age

Question 6

Which of the following is NOT a cause of oligohydramnios?

Accepted Answer

Chorioangioma

Answer

Renal agenesis

Answer

Amnion nodosum

Answer

IUGR

Question 7

During pregnancy, the increased size of the pituitary gland is primarily due to the enlargement of which hormone-secreting cells?

Accepted Answer

Prolactin

Answer

Growth hormone

Answer

ACTH

Answer

TSH

Question 8

A 54 year old woman is diagnosed as having carcinoma of the renal pelvis of size less than 4 cm without any metastasis. The best treatment option is

Accepted Answer

Radical Nephroureterectomy

Answer

Palliative Radiotherapy

Answer

Chemotherapy and immunotherapy

Answer

Partial nephrectomy

Question 9

RPLND and Chemotherapy may be used in management of?

Accepted Answer

Non-seminomatous germ cell tumors of the testis

Answer

Non-germ cell tumors

Answer

Seminomatous germ cell tumors

Answer

Lymphoma of the testis

Question 10

What is the typical absorption duration of Polydioxanone sutures?

Accepted Answer

6 months

Answer

4 weeks

Answer

6 weeks

Answer

2 weeks

NEET-PG 2015

Anatomy

Anesthesiology

Internal Medicine

Microbiology

Obstetrics and Gynecology

Physiology

Surgery