NEET-PG 2015 Practice Questions

Q: Japanese encephalitis vaccine in routine schedule is given in how many doses -

Two doses (at 9-12 months and 15-18 months). ***Two doses (at 9-12 months and 15-18 months)*** - The **routine JE vaccination schedule in India** as per NTAGI and IAP recommendations involves **two doses**. - **First dose** is given at **9-12 months** of age. - **Second dose** is administered at **15-18 months** (or up to 24 months), approximately **6-12 months after the first dose**. - This provides adequate long-term protection against Japanese encephalitis in endemic areas. *Single dose vaccine* - A single dose does **not provide adequate long-lasting protection** against Japanese encephalitis. - The **immune response** from a single dose is insufficient for routine immunization. - Two doses are required to ensure protective antibody levels. *Three doses 1 month apart followed by a booster if needed* - This schedule is **not part of the routine immunization program** for JE in India. - The standard routine schedule involves **only 2 primary doses**, not three. - Rapid three-dose schedules may be used in specific outbreak situations but not for routine immunization. *Three doses with the second dose 1 month and 3rd dose 6 months after the first dose* - This three-dose schedule is **not the routine JE vaccination schedule** in India. - This may be confused with schedules for other vaccines or older JE vaccine protocols. - The current **routine schedule requires only 2 doses** at specified age intervals.

Q: What condition is suggested by eyelid papules and a hoarse cry in a child?

Lipoid proteinosis. ***Lipoid proteinosis*** - This condition is characterized by **hoarseness from infancy** due to deposition in the vocal cords and characteristic **beaded papules on the eyelids** (moniliform blepharosis). - Also known as **Urbach-Wiethe disease**, it is a rare autosomal recessive disorder resulting from mutations in the **ECM1 gene**, leading to abnormal deposition of hyaline material in various tissues. *Croup* - Croup typically presents with a **barking cough** and **stridor**, often following a viral upper respiratory infection. - It does not cause eyelid papules or chronic hoarseness from infancy, but rather acute respiratory distress. *Acrodermatitis enteropathica* - This is a rare autosomal recessive disorder of **zinc malabsorption**, leading to a classic triad of **dermatitis**, **diarrhea**, and **alopecia**. - It does not involve eyelid papules or hoarseness as primary features. *Congenital syphilis* - Congenital syphilis can cause a wide range of manifestations, including skin rashes, bone abnormalities, and rhinitis ("snuffles"), but eyelid papules and chronic hoarseness are not typical presenting features. - Diagnosis is usually confirmed by serological tests for syphilis.

Q: Which fluid is ideally given for a patient experiencing dehydration?

Normal Saline. ***Normal Saline*** - **Normal saline (0.9% sodium chloride)** is an **isotonic solution** that effectively increases **extracellular fluid volume**, making it ideal for treating **dehydration** and hypovolemia [1]. - It closely mimics the **osmolality of plasma** and stays predominantly in the intravascular space, helping to restore circulating volume [1]. *Plasma* - **Plasma** is primarily used for **coagulation factor deficiencies** or volume expansion in cases of severe **hypoproteinemia**, not routine dehydration. - It contains **proteins and clotting factors** that are not typically needed for simple dehydration and carries risks of **allergic reactions and transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI)**. *Blood* - **Blood transfusions** are indicated for patients with **significant anemia** or **acute blood loss**, not for generalized dehydration. - Using blood for dehydration would be inappropriate due to risks such as **transfusion reactions**, **infections**, and **iron overload**. *5% dextrose* - **5% dextrose in water (D5W)** is an **isotonic solution initially**, but once the dextrose is metabolized, it becomes **hypotonic**, causing free water to shift into the cells [1]. - While it provides some free water, it is not ideal for primary rehydration in cases of significant volume depletion due to its lack of electrolytes and potential for causing **hyponatremia** if given in large quantities [1].

Q: Which of the following types of kidney stones are commonly associated with urinary tract infections?

Struvite stones. ***Struvite stones*** - **Struvite stones** (magnesium ammonium phosphate) are strongly associated with **urinary tract infections (UTIs)** caused by urease-producing bacteria like *Proteus* and *Klebsiella*. - These bacteria hydrolyze urea into ammonia and carbon dioxide, increasing urine pH and promoting the precipitation of struvite, often forming **staghorn calculi** [1]. *Cystine stones* - **Cystine stones** are caused by a **genetic defect** in amino acid transport, leading to increased excretion of cystine, ornithine, lysine, and arginine (COLA) in the urine. - They are not directly associated with UTIs but rather with a rare inherited metabolic disorder called **cystinuria**. *Xanthine stones* - **Xanthine stones** are very rare and typically occur in individuals with **xanthinuria**, a genetic disorder characterized by a deficiency in xanthine oxidase. - They are also not linked to UTIs but are a consequence of abnormal purine metabolism. *Calcium oxalate stones* - **Calcium oxalate stones** are the most common type of kidney stone, resulting from high levels of calcium and oxalate in the urine, often due to dietary factors, malabsorption, or idiopathic hypercalciuria. - While UTIs can complicate any kidney stone, **calcium oxalate stones** are not primarily *caused* by UTIs. [1]

Q: What size of Hegar's dilator, when passed through the internal os, indicates cervical incompetence?

8 or more. ***8 or more*** - The passage of a **Hegar's dilator of size 8 mm or larger** through the internal os without resistance is a classic diagnostic criterion for **cervical incompetence** or insufficiency. - This finding suggests a **weakened cervix** that is unable to withstand the pressure of a growing pregnancy, leading to recurrent mid-trimester pregnancy losses or preterm births. *4* - A Hegar's dilator of size 4 mm is relatively small and can often pass through a normal, non-pregnant **cervical os** without indicating pathology. - This size would not be considered abnormal and does not signify **cervical incompetence**. *6* - While a Hegar's dilator of 6 mm is larger than 4 mm, it is still generally within the range that might pass through a normal cervix, especially in **multiparous women**, without definitively diagnosing incompetence. - The threshold for diagnosing **cervical incompetence** is typically set higher, at 8 mm or more. *10* - While the passage of a 10 mm Hegar's dilator would certainly indicate **cervical incompetence**, the diagnostic cutoff is typically considered to be **8 mm or more**. - Any dilator **equal to or greater than 8 mm** confirms the diagnosis, so 10 mm is not the *only* size indicating incompetence.

Q: Medulloblastoma arises exclusively from the cells of

Immature embryonal cells. ***Immature embryonal cells*** - **Medulloblastoma** is a malignant **embryonal tumor** of the cerebellum, exclusively arising from primitive neuroectodermal cells. - These tumors are thought to originate from remnants of the **external granular layer** of the cerebellum or other primitive neuroectodermal cells. *Ependymal cells* - Tumors arising from **ependymal cells** are called **ependymomas**, which typically occur within the ventricles of the brain or spinal cord. - Ependymomas have distinct histological features and clinical behavior compared to medulloblastomas. *Neurons* - Tumors primarily composed of neurons or with significant neuronal differentiation include **gangliogliomas** and **central neurocytomas**. - **Medulloblastomas** largely consist of undifferentiated, small round cells with minimal evidence of neuronal maturation. *Spindle-shaped cells* - **Spindle-shaped cells** are characteristic of various tumor types, including some **gliomas** (e.g., pilocytic astrocytoma) or mesenchymal tumors. - While some medulloblastoma variants can show desmoplastic features, the hallmark cell type is a small, round, blue embryonal cell.

Q: What is the average weight gain of the neonate per day after the initial weight loss period?

25-30 g. ***25-30 g*** - After the initial physiological weight loss (typically 5-10% of birth weight in the first few days), healthy term neonates should gain approximately **25-30 grams per day**. - This consistent weight gain indicates adequate feeding and healthy development in the first month of life. *5-10 g* - This range is too low for the average daily weight gain after the initial weight loss period. - A gain of only **5-10 g per day** would suggest inadequate feeding or an underlying medical issue. *50-60 g* - This rate of weight gain is typically seen in **older infants** (e.g., 2-3 months of age) or in cases of catch-up growth, not usually in the immediate neonatal period after initial weight loss. - While rapid growth can occur, 50-60 g/day is above the average for a neonate. *100-150 g* - This is an **excessively high** rate of daily weight gain for a neonate. - Such rapid weight gain is not typical and could potentially indicate measurement error or an unusual metabolic state.

Q: Which of the following statements about shock in children is correct?

Tachycardia is a sensitive indicator of shock in children.. ***Tachycardia is a sensitive indicator of shock in children.*** - **Tachycardia** is often the first and most reliable sign of **compensated shock** in children, as their cardiovascular system initially maintains cardiac output by increasing heart rate. - Children have a remarkable ability to compensate for significant fluid loss, and an elevated heart rate helps maintain **perfusion** before blood pressure drops. *Mottling of extremities is an early sign of shock.* - **Mottling** of extremities is typically a sign of **decompensated shock** and indicates significant vasoconstriction and poor tissue perfusion. - It is a **late sign** that suggests the child's compensatory mechanisms are failing. *Confusion and stupor are early signs of shock.* - **Altered mental status**, such as confusion or stupor, usually indicates **severe shock** and reduced cerebral perfusion. - These are generally **late signs** of shock, appearing after initial compensatory mechanisms have failed. *Respiratory rate is a more sensitive indicator of shock than heart rate.* - While **tachypnea** can be present in shock due to metabolic acidosis or compensatory mechanisms, **tachycardia** is a more consistently sensitive and earlier indicator of circulatory compromise. - Respiratory changes can also be influenced by other factors like pain, fever, or respiratory illness, making heart rate a more specific initial marker for shock.

Q: At what age do children typically begin to use past and present tense in their speech?

30 Months. ***30 Months*** - Around 30 months (2.5 years), children typically begin to comprehend and produce **simple past and present tense forms**. - This stage reflects an increased understanding of **time concepts** and more complex grammatical structures. *1 Year* - At 1 year, children are usually at the **single-word stage**, using vocabulary like 'mama' or 'dada'. - They are primarily focused on **naming objects and people**, with little to no grasp of verb tenses. *2 Years* - By 2 years, children are generally using **two-word phrases** and beginning to combine words into simple sentences. - While they are expanding their vocabulary, consistent use of distinct past and present tenses is still developing. *18 Months* - Children at 18 months are typically expanding their **single-word vocabulary** and may be starting to use two-word combinations. - Their language is still focused on immediate needs and objects, without the grammatical complexity of verb tenses.

Q: Which of the following statements about Gallbladder carcinoma is true?

Gallstones may be a predisposing factor. ***Gallstones may be a predisposing factor*** - The chronic inflammation and irritation caused by **gallstones (cholelithiasis)** are considered major risk factors for the development of gallbladder carcinoma. - Approximately 70-90% of patients with gallbladder carcinoma also have **cholelithiasis**, suggesting a strong association. *Carries a good prognosis* - Gallbladder carcinoma generally has a **poor prognosis** due to its asymptomatic nature in early stages and aggressive local invasion. - Most cases are diagnosed at an advanced stage, leading to a **low 5-year survival rate**. *Commonly squamous cell carcinoma* - The vast majority of gallbladder carcinomas are **adenocarcinomas** (around 90%), arising from the glandular epithelium. - **Squamous cell carcinoma** is rare, accounting for only a small percentage of cases. *Jaundice is rare* - **Jaundice** is a common symptom in advanced gallbladder carcinoma, often indicating obstruction of the biliary ducts. - It arises when the tumor invades or compresses the **common bile duct**, leading to bilirubin backup.

Question 1

Japanese encephalitis vaccine in routine schedule is given in how many doses -

Accepted Answer

Two doses (at 9-12 months and 15-18 months)

Answer

Single dose vaccine

Answer

Three doses 1 month apart followed by a booster if needed

Answer

Three doses with the second dose 1 month and 3rd dose 6 months after the first dose

Question 2

What condition is suggested by eyelid papules and a hoarse cry in a child?

Accepted Answer

Lipoid proteinosis

Answer

Croup

Answer

Acrodermatitis enteropathica

Answer

Congenital syphilis

Question 3

Which fluid is ideally given for a patient experiencing dehydration?

Accepted Answer

Normal Saline

Answer

Plasma

Answer

Blood

Answer

5% dextrose

Question 4

Which of the following types of kidney stones are commonly associated with urinary tract infections?

Accepted Answer

Struvite stones

Answer

Cystine stones

Answer

Xanthine stones

Answer

Calcium oxalate stones

Question 5

What size of Hegar's dilator, when passed through the internal os, indicates cervical incompetence?

Accepted Answer

8 or more

Answer

4

Answer

6

Answer

10

Question 6

Medulloblastoma arises exclusively from the cells of

Accepted Answer

Immature embryonal cells

Answer

Ependymal cells

Answer

Neurons

Answer

Spindle-shaped cells

Question 7

What is the average weight gain of the neonate per day after the initial weight loss period?

Accepted Answer

25-30 g

Answer

5-10 g

Answer

50-60 g

Answer

100-150 g

Question 8

Which of the following statements about shock in children is correct?

Accepted Answer

Tachycardia is a sensitive indicator of shock in children.

Answer

Mottling of extremities is an early sign of shock.

Answer

Confusion and stupor are early signs of shock.

Answer

Respiratory rate is a more sensitive indicator of shock than heart rate.

Question 9

At what age do children typically begin to use past and present tense in their speech?

Accepted Answer

30 Months

Answer

18 Months

Answer

1 Year

Answer

2 Years

Question 10

Which of the following statements about Gallbladder carcinoma is true?

Accepted Answer

Gallstones may be a predisposing factor

Answer

Carries a good prognosis

Answer

Commonly squamous cell carcinoma

Answer

Jaundice is rare

NEET-PG 2015

Community Medicine

Dermatology

General Medicine

Internal Medicine

Obstetrics and Gynecology

Pathology

Pediatrics

Surgery