NEET-PG 2015 Practice Questions

Q: Anterior Mediastinal nodes are included in which level of lymph nodes?

VI. ***VI*** - Level VI lymph nodes are the **prevascular and retrotracheal nodes** located in the **anterior mediastinum** [1]. - According to the **IASLC (International Association for the Study of Lung Cancer)** lymph node mapping system, Level 6 nodes are specifically classified as anterior mediastinal nodes [1]. - These include nodes anterior to the superior vena cava and ascending aorta, and nodes between the trachea and esophagus [1]. *I* - Level I lymph nodes are located in the **low cervical, supraclavicular, and sternal notch** regions. - These are **extra-thoracic nodes** and not part of the mediastinal compartments. - They represent the highest mediastinal, supraclavicular, and sternal notch nodes [1]. *V* - Level V lymph nodes are the **subaortic (aortopulmonary window)** nodes [1]. - These are located in the space between the **aorta and pulmonary artery**, lateral to the ligamentum arteriosum [1]. - While mediastinal, they are specifically in the aortopulmonary window, not classified as anterior mediastinal. *VII* - Level VII lymph nodes are the **subcarinal nodes** located below the carina in the **middle mediastinum** [1]. - These nodes are positioned in the space beneath where the trachea bifurcates into the main bronchi [1]. - They are classified as middle mediastinal nodes, not anterior mediastinal nodes.

Q: Which condition has the maximum relative risk attributed to obesity?

DM. ***DM*** - Obesity is a major risk factor for Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus (T2DM), with a **relative risk often exceeding 3-7 times that of normal-weight individuals**, and even higher for severe obesity. - The link is primarily due to **insulin resistance** caused by increased adipose tissue. *Hypertension* - Obesity significantly increases the risk of hypertension, with a relative risk typically in the range of **2 to 3 times higher** than normal-weight individuals. - The mechanisms involve increased **blood volume**, **sympathetic nervous system activity**, and **renal sodium reabsorption**. *CHD* - Obesity is a strong independent risk factor for Coronary Heart Disease (CHD), contributing to a relative risk of approximately **1.5 to 2.5 times higher** than normal weight. - It often acts by exacerbating other risk factors like **hypertension**, **dyslipidemia**, and **diabetes**. *Cancer* - Obesity is linked to various cancers, including endometrial, esophageal adenocarcinoma, renal cell, and breast cancer in postmenopausal women, with relative risks typically ranging from **1.2 to 2 times higher** for specific cancers. - The pathways include **chronic inflammation**, altered **hormone levels** (e.g., estrogen), and **insulin-like growth factor signaling**.

Q: The artery which leads to bleeding in Woodruff's area is?

Sphenopalatine artery. ***Sphenopalatine artery*** - **Woodruff's area** is located on the posterior lateral wall of the nasal cavity, specifically a plexus of veins and arteries inferior to the posterior end of the inferior turbinate. - Bleeding from this region, often associated with **posterior epistaxis**, typically involves branches of the **sphenopalatine artery**. *Anterior ethmoidal artery* - The **anterior ethmoidal artery** is primarily involved in **anterior epistaxis**, supplying Kiesselbach's plexus on the nasal septum. - It does not contribute significantly to bleeding from Woodruff's area on the posterior lateral wall. *Greater palatine artery* - The **greater palatine artery** supplies the hard and soft palate and a small portion of the nasal floor. - It is not a major contributor to bleeding in Woodruff's area, which is located more superiorly and posteriorly on the lateral nasal wall. *Superior labial artery* - The **superior labial artery** is a branch of the facial artery, primarily supplying the upper lip and philtrum. - While it contributes to the vascular supply of the anterior nasal septum, it is not involved in bleeding from Woodruff's area.

Q: Which of the following is most specific for arsenic poisoning ?

Garlic-like odor in breath and urine. ***Garlic-like odor in breath and urine*** - A **garlic-like odor** in the breath and urine is a classic and highly **specific sign** of **arsenic poisoning**. - This distinctive odor is due to the **methylation of arsenic** compounds in the body. *Blue line on gums* - A **blue line on the gums**, also known as a **Burton line**, is characteristic of **lead poisoning**, not arsenic. - It results from the deposition of **lead sulfide** in the gingival tissue. *Tremors* - **Tremors** can be a symptom of various toxic exposures and neurological conditions, making them a **non-specific finding** for arsenic poisoning alone. - While **chronic arsenic poisoning** can lead to neurological symptoms, tremors are not a primary distinguishing feature. *Anemia* - **Anemia** is a common and **non-specific sign** that can be caused by many conditions, including various toxic exposures. - While chronic arsenic exposure can lead to **bone marrow suppression** and anemia, it is not specific enough for diagnosis.

Q: Central bronchiectasis is seen with

Cystic fibrosis. ***Cystic fibrosis*** - **Cystic Fibrosis (CF)** is a genetic disorder commonly associated with **central bronchiectasis**, particularly affecting the upper lobes and central airways. - The abnormal mucus production in CF leads to chronic infection, inflammation, and eventual **dilation of the bronchi**, prominent in the central regions. *Bronchogenic carcinoma* - **Bronchogenic carcinoma** can cause **post-obstructive bronchiectasis** distal to the tumor due to airway obstruction and reduced clearance. - However, the bronchiectasis tends to be **localized** to the segment supplied by the obstructed bronchus, rather than being diffusely central. *Tuberculosis* - **Tuberculosis (TB)** can lead to bronchiectasis, often affecting the **upper lobes** and causing localized airway damage. - While TB can cause changes in the bronchi, it is typically linked with **focal or segmental bronchiectasis** resulting from inflammatory destruction, not diffuse central bronchiectasis like CF. *Cystic Adenomatoid Malformation (CAM)* - **Cystic Adenomatoid Malformation (CAM)** is a **congenital lung lesion** with abnormal airway development, but it does not primarily involve bronchiectasis. - CAM is characterized by **cystic structures** or abnormal lung tissue, not the permanent dilation of the bronchi seen in typical bronchiectasis.

Q: Female with blood sugar of 600 mg% and sodium of 110 mEq. Insulin was given, what will happen to serum sodium levels ?

Sodium levels may appear to increase. ***Sodium levels may appear to increase*** - The patient's initial presentation with severe hyperglycemia (600 mg%) and hyponatremia (110 mEq/L) suggests **hyperglycemia-induced pseudohyponatremia**. - **Insulin administration** will lower blood glucose, causing water to shift back into the cells from the extracellular space, thereby correcting the dilutional effect and leading to an **apparent increase in serum sodium levels**. *Sodium levels decrease* - This is incorrect because the hyponatremia in this scenario is largely **dilutional** due to hyperglycemia. - As glucose levels decrease with insulin, the osmotic drive for water movement out of cells diminishes, leading to **normalization**, not further decrease, of sodium concentration. *Sodium levels remain unchanged* - This is incorrect because the underlying cause of the initial low sodium is dilution from high glucose. - Once **hyperglycemia is treated**, the osmotic gradient changes, and water shifts, directly impacting and changing the serum sodium concentration. *Relative sodium deficiency may occur* - This option is incorrect because the initial hyponatremia is not primarily due to an absolute lack of sodium in the body but rather a **dilutional effect** caused by the osmotic pull of glucose. - As hyperglycemia resolves, the extracellular fluid becomes less diluted, and the measured sodium concentration will **rise**, not indicate a deficiency.

Q: Listeria escapes from phagosomes (phagolysosomes) due to:

beta-hemolysin. ***beta-hemolysin*** - *Listeria monocytogenes* produces **listeriolysin O (LLO)**, a **beta-hemolysin**, which is a pore-forming toxin that lyses the phagosomal membrane. - This allows the bacteria to escape into the host cell cytoplasm, thus **avoiding destruction** by lysosomal enzymes and neutralizing the microbicidal environment. *Caspases* - **Caspases** are a family of proteases that play essential roles in programmed cell death (apoptosis) and inflammation. - While bacteria can manipulate host cell apoptosis, caspases themselves are **host enzymes** and do not directly confer resistance to phagosome destruction. *Cell membrane adhesion molecules* - **Adhesion molecules** facilitate bacterial attachment to host cells and internalisation, but they do not directly provide a mechanism for **escaping the phagosome** once internalised. - Examples include internalins, which are involved in bacterial entry into cells. *Opacity associated protein (OAP)* - **Opacity associated proteins (OAPs)** are primarily associated with *Neisseria gonorrhoeae* and are involved in adherence to host cells and evasion of the immune response. - They are not a mechanism for **phagosomal escape** or directly related to *Listeria's* intracellular survival.

Q: In human infections, the morula form is seen in which of the following organisms?

Ehrlichia. ***Correct: Ehrlichia*** - *Ehrlichia* species are **obligate intracellular bacteria** that replicate in host immune cells, forming distinctive microcolonies known as **morulae** (mulberry-like clusters). - The presence of morulae within the cytoplasm of **white blood cells** (monocytes or granulocytes) is the **key diagnostic feature** for ehrlichiosis. - The term "morula" comes from Latin for "mulberry," describing the characteristic clustered appearance visible on microscopy. *Incorrect: Chlamydiae* - *Chlamydiae* are obligate intracellular parasites with a unique developmental cycle involving elementary bodies (infectious form) and reticulate bodies (replicative form). - They form **intracytoplasmic inclusions** within vacuoles, but these are **not morulae**. *Incorrect: Bartonella quintana* - *Bartonella quintana* is a fastidious gram-negative bacillus associated with **trench fever** and bacillary angiomatosis. - Typically seen as individual or small clusters of bacteria, but **does not form morulae** within host cells. *Incorrect: Mycoplasma hominis* - *Mycoplasma hominis* is a small, **wall-less bacterium** that can cause genitourinary infections. - It is an extracellular pathogen or adheres to host cells but **does not invade or form intracytoplasmic morulae**.

Q: When the fetus is at station +2 and the fetal skull reaches the pelvic floor, which of the following statements is MOST clinically relevant?

Forceps may be applied if necessary.. ***Forceps may be applied if necessary.*** - At **station +2**, the fetal head has progressed significantly into the pelvis (2 cm below the ischial spines), indicating a **low-lying head** where instrumental delivery with **forceps** or a **vacuum extractor** can be safely performed if indicated (e.g., maternal exhaustion, fetal distress). - This station qualifies as **low forceps** or **outlet forceps** delivery, which are considered safe procedures when properly indicated. - The fetal head at this level has reached or is approaching the **pelvic floor**, meeting the prerequisites for assisted vaginal delivery. *Crowning occurs at this stage.* - **Crowning** specifically refers to the stage when the largest diameter of the fetal head is visible at the **vaginal introitus** and does not recede between contractions. - This occurs at approximately **station +4 to +5**, not at station +2. - While station +2 indicates significant descent, the fetus must descend further before crowning occurs. *There is a risk of deep transverse arrest.* - **Deep transverse arrest** occurs when the fetal head fails to internally rotate from the transverse position to an occipito-anterior or occipito-posterior position. - This complication typically occurs at **station 0 to +1** (mid-pelvis level), not at station +2. - By the time the fetal head reaches station +2 and the pelvic floor, internal rotation should have already occurred. *Episiotomy must be performed at this station.* - **Episiotomy** is **not mandatory** at any particular fetal station. - It is a selective procedure performed when indicated, typically just before crowning (around station +3 to +4), to prevent severe perineal trauma or expedite delivery. - The decision is based on clinical factors like fetal size, maternal tissue quality, and risk of severe laceration—not solely on fetal station.

Question 1

Anterior Mediastinal nodes are included in which level of lymph nodes?

Accepted Answer

VI

Answer

I

Answer

V

Answer

VII

Question 2

Which condition has the maximum relative risk attributed to obesity?

Accepted Answer

DM

Answer

Hypertension

Answer

CHD

Answer

Cancer

Question 3

Which of the following tests is used to differentiate between cochlear and retrocochlear hearing loss?

Accepted Answer

Evoked response audiometry

Answer

Recruitment

Answer

Threshold tone decay test

Answer

SISI test

Question 4

The artery which leads to bleeding in Woodruff's area is?

Accepted Answer

Sphenopalatine artery

Answer

Anterior ethmoidal artery

Answer

Greater palatine artery

Answer

Superior labial artery

Question 5

Which of the following is most specific for arsenic poisoning ?

Accepted Answer

Garlic-like odor in breath and urine

Answer

Blue line on gums

Answer

Tremors

Answer

Anemia

Question 6

Central bronchiectasis is seen with

Accepted Answer

Cystic fibrosis

Answer

Tuberculosis

Answer

Bronchogenic carcinoma

Answer

Cystic Adenomatoid Malformation (CAM)

Question 7

Female with blood sugar of 600 mg% and sodium of 110 mEq. Insulin was given, what will happen to serum sodium levels ?

Accepted Answer

Sodium levels may appear to increase

Answer

Sodium levels decrease

Answer

Sodium levels remain unchanged

Answer

Relative sodium deficiency may occur

Question 8

Listeria escapes from phagosomes (phagolysosomes) due to:

Accepted Answer

beta-hemolysin

Answer

Opacity associated protein (OAP)

Answer

Caspases

Answer

Cell membrane adhesion molecules

Question 9

In human infections, the morula form is seen in which of the following organisms?

Accepted Answer

Ehrlichia

Answer

Chlamydiae

Answer

Bartonella quintana

Answer

Mycoplasma hominis

Question 10

When the fetus is at station +2 and the fetal skull reaches the pelvic floor, which of the following statements is MOST clinically relevant?

Accepted Answer

Forceps may be applied if necessary.

Answer

Crowning occurs at this stage.

Answer

There is a risk of deep transverse arrest.

Answer

Episiotomy must be performed at this station.

NEET-PG 2015

Anatomy

Community Medicine

ENT

Forensic Medicine

Internal Medicine

Microbiology

Obstetrics and Gynecology