NEET-PG 2015 Practice Questions

Q: Swajaldhara programme is associated with:

Provision of safe drinking water. ***Provision of safe drinking water*** - The **Swajaldhara programme** was launched by the Government of India in 2002 to accelerate coverage of **drinking water supply** in rural areas - Its primary objective was to ensure access to **safe and sustainable drinking water sources** through community participation and decentralized management - The program emphasized local ownership with communities contributing 10% of project costs *Provision of food supplements for destitute women* - Food security programs for women fall under separate social welfare schemes like ICDS and PDS - The **Swajaldhara programme** was specifically focused on **water supply infrastructure**, not nutrition *Provision of relief for victim of sexual abuse* - Relief for victims of sexual abuse is addressed through **justice and women's safety initiatives** (e.g., One Stop Centres, Nirbhaya Fund) - This is unrelated to the water supply mandate of Swajaldhara *Provision of health care for sick tribals* - Health care for tribal populations is managed through dedicated programs under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare - Swajaldhara's scope was limited to **rural drinking water infrastructure**, not healthcare delivery

Q: What term is used for a patient who is kept under observation in a hospital for a short period (typically less than 48 hours) to determine if formal admission is necessary?

Observation status. ***Observation status*** - Patients under **observation status** are monitored in a hospital setting for a short period (typically less than 24-48 hours) to determine if inpatient admission is necessary. - This status is used when the medical condition is uncertain, requiring further evaluation and diagnostic tests to guide treatment decisions. *Inpatient* - An **inpatient** is formally admitted to the hospital for an expected stay of more than 24 hours, often requiring a hospital bed overnight. - This classification is associated with specific billing and care delivery models distinct from observation status. *Outpatient* - An **outpatient** receives medical care at a hospital, clinic, or doctor's office without being admitted for an overnight stay. - Examples include routine check-ups, specialist consultations, and minor surgical procedures performed on the same day. *Urgent care patient* - An **urgent care patient** receives immediate medical attention for illnesses or injuries that are not life-threatening but require prompt treatment. - This care is typically provided in an urgent care clinic, not usually in a hospital setting for 24-hour observation.

Q: Granuloma inguinale is caused by:

Calymmatobacterium granulomatis. ***Calymmatobacterium granulomatis*** - **Granuloma inguinale**, also known as **donovanosis**, is a sexually transmitted infection caused by **_Calymmatobacterium granulomatis_**. - This bacterium is notoriously difficult to culture, so diagnosis is typically made by identifying **Donovan bodies** (macrophages filled with bacteria) in tissue samples. *Haemophilus ducreyi* - **_Haemophilus ducreyi_** is the causative agent of **chancroid**, - Chancroid is characterized by **painful genital ulcers** with a ragged, undermined border, and often accompanied by **tender inguinal lymphadenopathy**. *Chlamydia trachomatis* - **_Chlamydia trachomatis_** is responsible for several conditions, including **chlamydia** (the most common bacterial STI), **lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV)**, and **trachoma**. - LGV presents with a transient, often unnoticed genital lesion followed by painful, suppurative lymphadenopathy, which is distinct from granuloma inguinale. *Treponema pallidum* - **_Treponema pallidum_** is the spirochete that causes **syphilis**, which progresses through several stages. - Primary syphilis manifests as a **painless chancre**, while secondary syphilis can involve a widespread rash, lymphadenopathy, and mucosal lesions.

Q: A chronic alcoholic is presenting with clinical features of meningitis. Most likely organism to grow on CSF culture:

Streptococcus pneumoniae. ***Streptococcus pneumoniae*** - **Chronic alcoholism** is a significant risk factor for **pneumococcal infections**, including meningitis, due to impaired immune function. - **S. pneumoniae** is the most common cause of **bacterial meningitis** in adults, especially in those with underlying conditions like alcoholism. *Neisseria meningitidis* - While a common cause of meningitis, especially in **young adults** and crowded settings, it is not specifically associated with chronic alcoholism as a primary risk factor like *S. pneumoniae*. - **Meningococcal meningitis** often presents with a **petechial rash**, which is not mentioned in the clinical scenario. *Escherichia coli* - **E. coli meningitis** primarily affects **neonates** and **elderly** or immunocompromised individuals, usually associated with healthcare-acquired infections. - It is not a typical cause of community-acquired meningitis in an otherwise healthy adult alcoholic. *Listeria monocytogenes* - **Listeria monocytogenes** is a known cause of meningitis in **immunocompromised individuals**, **neonates**, and **elderly** people, often linked to contaminated food. - While chronic alcoholism does impair immunity, *S. pneumoniae* is a more frequently encountered pathogen in this specific population for meningitis.

Q: Which of the following statements is MOST likely false regarding optic neuritis?

Abnormal electroretinogram. ***Abnormal electroretinogram*** - Optic neuritis primarily affects the **optic nerve**, which is responsible for transmitting visual information from the retina to the brain. - The **electroretinogram (ERG)** measures the electrical activity of the **retina** in response to light, which is usually normal in optic neuritis as the retina itself is not the primary site of pathology. *Decreased pupillary reflex* - Optic neuritis often causes a **relative afferent pupillary defect (RAPD)**, where the affected eye's pupil dilates instead of constricting when light is swung from the unaffected to the affected eye. - This indicates a decrease in the afferent nerve signal transmission due to damage to the optic nerve. *Decreased visual acuity* - A hallmark symptom of optic neuritis is **acute vision loss**, which can range from mild blurring to severe vision impairment. - This vision loss is typically unilateral and can progress over several days. *Abnormal visual evoked potentials (VEP)* - **VEPs** measure the electrical activity of the brain in response to visual stimuli, assessing the integrity of the optic nerve and visual pathways. - In optic neuritis, the demyelination and damage to the optic nerve cause a **slowing of nerve conduction**, leading to increased latency and reduced amplitude in VEPs.

Q: The tissue of origin of the Kaposi's sarcoma is

Vascular. ***Vascular*** - Kaposi's sarcoma originates from the **vascular tissue**, specifically from endothelial cells lining blood vessels [2]. - The lesions are characterized by **angiogenesis**, leading to the formation of vascular tumors with dilated endothelial cell-lined vascular spaces [1]. *Muscular* - Muscular tissue is involved in **voluntary** and **involuntary movements** but is not related to the etiology of Kaposi's sarcoma. - This condition does not arise from **muscle cells** or any muscular components. *Neural* - Neural tissue consists of **neurons** and **glial cells**, which are not implicated in Kaposi's sarcoma. - Kaposi's sarcoma does not originate from any **neural structures** or pathologies. *Lymphoid* - Lymphoid tissue primarily concerns the immune system, particularly the **lymphatic system**, and does not give rise to Kaposi's sarcoma. - This malignancy does not derive from **lymphoid components** like lymphocytes or lymph nodes. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Diseases of Infancy and Childhood, pp. 526-527. [2] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Cardiovascular Disease, pp. 282-283.

Q: Which of the following statements about the differences between human milk and cow milk is NOT true?

Cow milk has comparatively more fat than human milk.. ***Cow milk has comparatively more fat than human milk.*** - This statement is **incorrect** and is the answer to this "NOT true" question. Human milk generally has a **higher fat content** (3.5-4.5 g/100mL) than cow milk (~3.5 g/100mL), which is crucial for the rapid neurological development of infants. - The fat in human milk is also more **bioavailable** due to the presence of lipases, aiding digestion and absorption. - Human milk contains essential **long-chain polyunsaturated fatty acids (LCPUFAs)** like DHA and ARA that support brain and retinal development. *Cow milk has comparatively more protein than human milk.* - This statement is **true**. Cow milk contains significantly **more protein** (~3.3 g/100mL) compared to human milk (~1.0 g/100mL), particularly **casein protein**. - While more protein might seem beneficial, the higher protein load in cow milk is harder for an **infant's immature kidneys** to process and increases renal solute load. *Cow milk has comparatively more calcium than human milk.* - This statement is **true**. Cow milk contains approximately **120 mg/100mL calcium** compared to human milk which has about **30 mg/100mL**. - However, the **bioavailability** of calcium and the optimal calcium-to-phosphorus ratio in human milk favor better absorption despite the lower absolute amount. *Cow milk has comparatively more casein than human milk.* - This statement is **true**. Cow milk has a **casein-to-whey ratio of 80:20**, while human milk has a ratio of approximately **40:60** (more whey). - The predominance of whey proteins in human milk makes it easier to digest, forming softer curds in the infant's stomach.

Q: Best method of treatment for methyl alcohol poisoning is:

Ethyl alcohol. ***Ethyl alcohol*** - **Ethanol** (ethyl alcohol) acts as a competitive substrate for **alcohol dehydrogenase**, the enzyme responsible for metabolizing **methanol** into toxic metabolites like formaldehyde and formic acid. - By saturating alcohol dehydrogenase, ethanol prevents the formation of these toxic metabolites, allowing methanol to be excreted unchanged. - **Clinical note**: While **fomepizole** (4-methylpyrazole) is now the preferred first-line antidote when available, **ethanol** remains an effective and widely used alternative, especially in resource-limited settings. - **Administration**: IV ethanol is given to maintain blood ethanol concentration of 100-150 mg/dL. *Calcium gluconate* - **Calcium gluconate** is primarily used to treat **hypocalcemia**, ethylene glycol poisoning (for hypocalcemia), or hydrofluoric acid burns. - It has no role in the management of methyl alcohol poisoning as it does not interfere with the metabolism of methanol or its toxic byproducts. *Amphetamines* - **Amphetamines** are central nervous system stimulants used for conditions like ADHD and narcolepsy. - They have no therapeutic benefit or antidotal properties in the context of methanol poisoning. *1% Ammonia* - **Ammonia** is a strong base and is highly corrosive; it has no medical application as an antidote for methanol poisoning. - Administering ammonia would cause direct tissue damage and exacerbate patient harm due to its toxic and caustic properties.

Q: Which of the following cancers do not present with cervical lymph node involvement?

Glottic Cancer. ***Glottic Cancer*** - **Glottic cancers** rarely present with cervical lymph node involvement because the **vocal cords** have a sparse lymphatic drainage system. - This anatomical feature limits the early spread of cancer cells to regional lymph nodes, distinguishing it from other head and neck cancers. *Subglottic Cancer* - **Subglottic cancers** frequently metastasize to cervical lymph nodes, specifically the **paratracheal** and **prelaryngeal nodes**, due to a richer lymphatic network. - The disease often presents at a more advanced stage because symptoms may be subtle until significant tumor burden or nodal involvement occurs. *Papillary thyroid cancer* - **Papillary thyroid cancer** commonly metastasizes to the cervical lymph nodes, often presenting with palpable **lymphadenopathy** even with small primary tumors. - Lymphatic spread is a hallmark feature, and **central neck dissection** is frequently performed as part of the surgical treatment. *Oral cancer* - **Oral cancers** (e.g., squamous cell carcinoma of the tongue, buccal mucosa) have a high propensity for early metastasis to **cervical lymph nodes**. - The rich lymphatic drainage of the oral cavity means that cervical lymph node involvement is a significant prognostic factor and is routinely assessed during staging.

Question 1

Which of the following statements is true regarding a combined prospective-retrospective study?

Accepted Answer

Retrospective identification of cohort followed by prospective follow-up

Answer

Only prospective follow-up from current time point

Answer

Cross-sectional assessment at a single time point

Answer

Only retrospective data collection from past records

Question 2

Swajaldhara programme is associated with:

Accepted Answer

Provision of safe drinking water

Answer

Provision of food supplements for destitute women

Answer

Provision of relief for victim of sexual abuse

Answer

Provision of health care for sick tribals

Question 3

What term is used for a patient who is kept under observation in a hospital for a short period (typically less than 48 hours) to determine if formal admission is necessary?

Accepted Answer

Observation status

Answer

Inpatient

Answer

Outpatient

Answer

Urgent care patient

Question 4

Granuloma inguinale is caused by:

Accepted Answer

Calymmatobacterium granulomatis

Answer

Haemophilus ducreyi

Answer

Chlamydia trachomatis

Answer

Treponema pallidum

Question 5

A chronic alcoholic is presenting with clinical features of meningitis. Most likely organism to grow on CSF culture:

Accepted Answer

Streptococcus pneumoniae

Answer

Neisseria meningitidis

Answer

Escherichia coli

Answer

Listeria monocytogenes

Question 6

Which of the following statements is MOST likely false regarding optic neuritis?

Accepted Answer

Abnormal electroretinogram

Answer

Decreased pupillary reflex

Answer

Decreased visual acuity

Answer

Abnormal visual evoked potentials (VEP)

Question 7

The tissue of origin of the Kaposi's sarcoma is

Accepted Answer

Vascular

Answer

Lymphoid

Answer

Neural

Answer

Muscular

Question 8

Which of the following statements about the differences between human milk and cow milk is NOT true?

Accepted Answer

Cow milk has comparatively more fat than human milk.

Answer

Cow milk has comparatively more protein than human milk.

Answer

Cow milk has comparatively more calcium than human milk.

Answer

Cow milk has comparatively more casein than human milk.

Question 9

Best method of treatment for methyl alcohol poisoning is:

Accepted Answer

Ethyl alcohol

Answer

Calcium gluconate

Answer

Amphetamines

Answer

1% Ammonia

Question 10

Which of the following cancers do not present with cervical lymph node involvement?

Accepted Answer

Glottic Cancer

Answer

Papillary thyroid cancer

Answer

Oral cancer

Answer

Subglottic Cancer

NEET-PG 2015

Community Medicine

Microbiology

Ophthalmology

Pathology

Pediatrics

Pharmacology

Surgery