Biochemistry
2 questionsIn which type of hemoglobin are zeta 2 and gamma 2 chains present?
Which of the following is required for proper effects of Insulin?
NEET-PG 2015 - Biochemistry NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 861: In which type of hemoglobin are zeta 2 and gamma 2 chains present?
- A. Gower I
- B. Gower II
- C. Portland (Correct Answer)
- D. Fetal hemoglobin
Explanation: ***Portland*** - **Portland hemoglobin** is a primitive embryonic hemoglobin composed of **zeta (ζ) 2 and gamma (γ) 2 chains** (ζ2γ2). - It plays a role in early fetal oxygen transport, particularly in the yolk sac stage. *Gower I* - **Gower I hemoglobin** is another embryonic hemoglobin, but it consists of **zeta (ζ) 2 and epsilon (ε) 2 chains** (ζ2ε2). - This composition is crucial for oxygen delivery during the very initial stages of embryonic development. *Gower II* - **Gower II hemoglobin** is an embryonic hemoglobin made up of **alpha (α) 2 and epsilon (ε) 2 chains** (α2ε2). - It represents a transitional form as the embryo develops and starts producing alpha globin chains. *Fetal hemoglobin* - **Fetal hemoglobin (HbF)** consists of **alpha (α) 2 and gamma (γ) 2 chains** (α2γ2). - It is the predominant hemoglobin during the second and third trimesters of pregnancy and has a higher affinity for oxygen than adult hemoglobin.
Question 862: Which of the following is required for proper effects of Insulin?
- A. Chromium (Correct Answer)
- B. Selenium
- C. Copper
- D. Iron
Explanation: ***Chromium*** - **Chromium** is an essential trace mineral that plays a crucial role in enhancing the action of **insulin** by promoting its binding to cell receptors. - It is a key component of **glucose tolerance factor (GTF)**, which helps cells absorb glucose more efficiently. *Selenium* - **Selenium** is an antioxidant and is involved in thyroid hormone metabolism and immune function, but it does not directly facilitate insulin action. - While important for overall health, it has no known direct requirement for the proper effects of insulin. *Copper* - **Copper** is involved in various enzymatic reactions, iron metabolism, and connective tissue formation, but it is not directly required for insulin's proper function. - High levels of **copper** can even negatively impact glucose metabolism in some contexts. *Iron* - **Iron** is essential for oxygen transport in hemoglobin and myoglobin, as well as for many enzymatic processes, but it does not directly enhance insulin sensitivity or action [1]. - Both **iron deficiency** and **iron overload** can indirectly affect metabolic health but do not directly influence insulin's effects in the same way chromium does [2].
Internal Medicine
5 questionsWhich of the following statements is true regarding amoebic liver abscess?
Which of the following is not a characteristic of Zieve syndrome?
Which of the following statements about CNS leukemia is false?
Thrombocythemia is characterized by an elevated platelet count.
In a patient with hypoglycemia, what is the appropriate dose adjustment of insulin?
NEET-PG 2015 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 861: Which of the following statements is true regarding amoebic liver abscess?
- A. May rupture into the pleural cavity.
- B. Mostly involving the right lobe of the liver. (Correct Answer)
- C. For asymptomatic luminal carriers, metronidazole is the drug of choice.
- D. Multiple abscesses is less common than a single abscess.
Explanation: ***Mostly involving the right lobe of the liver*** - The **right lobe** of the liver is the most common site for an amoebic liver abscess due to its larger size and preferential blood flow from the portal venous system, which drains the intestines where *Entamoeba histolytica* resides. - The **superior mesenteric vein**, draining the cecum and ascending colon (common sites for amebiasis), primarily feeds the right hepatic lobe. *May rupture into the pleural cavity* - While rupture can occur, the **peritoneal cavity** is a more common site of rupture for amoebic liver abscesses. - Rupture into the pleural cavity or lung is less frequent but can lead to **empyema** or **bronchopleural fistula** [1]. *For asymptomatic luminal carriers, metronidazole is the drug of choice* - **Metronidazole** is effective against invasive amoebiasis (like liver abscess or dysentery) but is not the drug of choice for asymptomatic luminal carriers. - For **asymptomatic luminal carriers**, **luminal amebicides** such as **paromomycin** or **diloxanide furoate** are used to eradicate cysts from the intestine [1]. *Multiple abscesses is less common than a single abscess* - **A single amoebic liver abscess** is more common than multiple abscesses [1]. - Multiple abscesses are typically seen in disseminated disease or immunocompromised individuals, though even then a solitary lesion is more frequent.
Question 862: Which of the following is not a characteristic of Zieve syndrome?
- A. Alcohol abuse
- B. Chronic pancreatitis (Correct Answer)
- C. Hemolysis
- D. Hypertriglyceridemia
Explanation: ***Chronic pancreatitis*** - **Zieve syndrome** is an acute, not chronic, condition, and its primary feature is not chronic pancreatic inflammation, though severe alcohol use can cause both. - While **alcohol abuse** is a risk factor for both Zieve syndrome and chronic pancreatitis, **chronic pancreatitis** itself is not considered a characteristic component of Zieve syndrome [1]. *Alcohol abuse* - **Alcohol abuse** is the underlying cause for the development of Zieve syndrome, leading to the characteristic triad of hemolytic anemia, hyperlipidemia, and jaundice. - It triggers the **liver damage** and metabolic disturbances that define the syndrome. *Hemolysis* - **Hemolysis** (destruction of red blood cells) is a key feature of Zieve syndrome, leading to **hemolytic anemia** and jaundice. - It results from increased red blood cell fragility and splenic sequestration exacerbated by altered lipid metabolism. *Hypertriglyceridemia* - **Hypertriglyceridemia** is a hallmark of Zieve syndrome, arising from impaired lipid metabolism secondary to alcohol-induced liver damage. - Elevated **triglyceride levels** contribute to red blood cell membrane abnormalities, thereby promoting hemolysis.
Question 863: Which of the following statements about CNS leukemia is false?
- A. Intrathecal methotrexate is given
- B. Seen with acute myeloid leukemia
- C. CNS irradiation is given
- D. Single blast in CSF is sufficient for diagnosis (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Seen with acute myeloid leukemia*** - CNS involvement is typically not a common feature of **acute myeloid leukemia (AML)**; it's more associated with acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) [1]. - While leukemia can affect the CNS, **AML is not predominantly known** for this complication compared to ALL . *Single blast in CSF is sufficient for diagnosis* - A **single blast** in the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) does **not establish a definitive diagnosis** of CNS leukemia; multiple blasts are typically required. - Diagnosis involves considering clinical symptoms, laboratory findings, and often requires **a combination of findings** to confirm CNS involvement. *Intrathecal methotrexate is given* - **Intrathecal methotrexate** is used for treatment of CNS leukemia; however, this statement is true and does not meet the 'except' criteria. - It is a common practice to deliver chemotherapy directly to the CNS to combat leukemia effectively. *CNS irradiation is given* - CNS irradiation can be used as a treatment modality in certain instances of leukemia; thus, this statement is also true. - It is part of the therapeutic strategies for managing CNS involvement but is not universally applied for all cases.
Question 864: Thrombocythemia is characterized by an elevated platelet count.
- A. Low platelets
- B. Neutrophilia
- C. Monocytosis
- D. Elevated platelet count (Correct Answer)
Explanation: Elevated platelet count - Thrombocythemia is a condition specifically defined by an abnormally high number of platelets (thrombocytes) in the blood [2]. - This elevated count can lead to issues with both bleeding and clotting [2]. Low platelets - Low platelets, also known as thrombocytopenia, is the opposite of thrombocythemia [1]. - This condition is associated with an increased risk of bleeding [1]. Neutrophilia - Neutrophilia refers to an elevated count of neutrophils, a type of white blood cell, which is typically seen in bacterial infections. - It does not directly describe the platelet count. Monocytosis - Monocytosis indicates an increase in monocytes, another type of white blood cell, often seen in chronic infections or inflammatory conditions. - This term is unrelated to platelet levels.
Question 865: In a patient with hypoglycemia, what is the appropriate dose adjustment of insulin?
- A. Increase insulin dosage
- B. Decrease insulin dosage (Correct Answer)
- C. Maintain current insulin dosage
- D. Add a different medication
Explanation: ***Decrease insulin dosage*** - Hypoglycemia indicates that the current insulin dose is too high, causing blood glucose levels to drop excessively [1]. - Reducing the insulin dosage helps prevent future episodes of low blood sugar by allowing blood glucose to remain within a healthier range [1]. *Increase insulin dosage* - Increasing insulin would further lower blood glucose, exacerbating the **hypoglycemia** and potentially leading to a more severe and dangerous state. - This action is appropriate for **hyperglycemia**, not hypoglycemia. *Maintain current insulin dosage* - Maintaining the current dose would not address the problem, as it has already proven to be too much for the patient, causing the **hypoglycemic episodes** [1]. - This approach would leave the patient at continued risk for recurrent hypoglycemia. *Add a different medication* - While other medications might be used in diabetes management, adding a new one without adjusting the existing insulin dose could further complicate blood glucose control. - The immediate and most direct action for **hypoglycemia** caused by insulin is to adjust the insulin itself [1].
Pathology
2 questionsWhich type of anemia is most commonly characterized by marked poikilocytosis and anisocytosis on peripheral blood smear?
The tissue of origin of the Kaposi's sarcoma is
NEET-PG 2015 - Pathology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 861: Which type of anemia is most commonly characterized by marked poikilocytosis and anisocytosis on peripheral blood smear?
- A. Megaloblastic anemia
- B. Iron deficiency anemia (Correct Answer)
- C. Nutritional anemia
- D. Thalassemia
Explanation: ***Iron deficiency anaemia*** - Characterized by **poikilocytosis** (abnormal shapes) and **anisocytosis** (variation in red blood cell sizes), which are common findings in iron deficiency [1]. - Typically results in **microcytic hypochromic anemia** [1], distinguishing it from other types of anemia. *Nutritional deficiency anaemia* - May present with various blood cell morphology but does not specifically exhibit **poikilocytosis** and **anisocytosis** characteristic of iron deficiency anemia. - Usually includes deficiencies like **vitamin B12** or **folate**, which result in **macrocytic anemia** instead. *Megaloblastic anaemia* - Primarily caused by deficiency of **vitamin B12** or **folate**, leading to large, immature red blood cells (megaloblasts) rather than varied shapes and sizes. - Associated with **hypersegmented neutrophils** in the blood smear, which differentiates it from iron deficiency anemia. *Thalassemia* - Characterized by **microcytic hypochromic red blood cells** and often involves **target cells** rather than generalized poikilocytosis and anisocytosis. - Typically presents with **hemolytic anemia** but does not show the same variability in cell shapes and sizes as seen in iron deficiency anemia. **References:** [1] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Blood And Bone Marrow Disease, pp. 590-591.
Question 862: The tissue of origin of the Kaposi's sarcoma is
- A. Lymphoid
- B. Vascular (Correct Answer)
- C. Neural
- D. Muscular
Explanation: ***Vascular*** - Kaposi's sarcoma originates from the **vascular tissue**, specifically from endothelial cells lining blood vessels [2]. - The lesions are characterized by **angiogenesis**, leading to the formation of vascular tumors with dilated endothelial cell-lined vascular spaces [1]. *Muscular* - Muscular tissue is involved in **voluntary** and **involuntary movements** but is not related to the etiology of Kaposi's sarcoma. - This condition does not arise from **muscle cells** or any muscular components. *Neural* - Neural tissue consists of **neurons** and **glial cells**, which are not implicated in Kaposi's sarcoma. - Kaposi's sarcoma does not originate from any **neural structures** or pathologies. *Lymphoid* - Lymphoid tissue primarily concerns the immune system, particularly the **lymphatic system**, and does not give rise to Kaposi's sarcoma. - This malignancy does not derive from **lymphoid components** like lymphocytes or lymph nodes. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Diseases of Infancy and Childhood, pp. 526-527. [2] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Cardiovascular Disease, pp. 282-283.
Pharmacology
1 questionsAll of the following are characteristic features of treatment of iron deficiency anemia with oral iron supplements, except which of the following?
NEET-PG 2015 - Pharmacology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 861: All of the following are characteristic features of treatment of iron deficiency anemia with oral iron supplements, except which of the following?
- A. Bioavailability is enhanced with vitamin C
- B. The proportion of iron absorbed reduces as hemoglobin improves
- C. The reticulocyte count should begin to increase within 7-10 days and peak at 2-4 weeks; this suggests good response to treatment
- D. The treatment should be discontinued immediately once hemoglobin normalizes to prevent side effects of iron (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***The treatment should be discontinued immediately once hemoglobin normalizes to prevent side effects of iron*** - Treatment of **iron deficiency anemia** with oral iron supplements should continue for at least **3-6 months** after hemoglobin normalizes to replenish **iron stores**. - Premature cessation can lead to a rapid **recurrence of anemia** due to depleted iron reserves, despite normal hemoglobin levels. *Bioavailability is enhanced with vitamin C* - **Ascorbic acid (vitamin C)** creates an acidic environment in the stomach and reduces ferric iron (Fe3+) to ferrous iron (Fe2+), which is more readily absorbed. - This enhancement of **ferrous iron absorption** is a common practice to improve the efficacy of oral iron supplements. *The proportion of iron absorbed reduces as hemoglobin improves* - The body's **iron absorption mechanism** is tightly regulated by **hepcidin**, a hormone that increases when iron stores are sufficient. - As hemoglobin levels improve and iron stores are replenished, hepcidin levels rise, leading to a **decrease in iron absorption** to prevent iron overload. *The reticulocyte count should begin to increase in two weeks and peak in 4 weeks this suggests good response to treatment* - An increase in **reticulocyte count** by approximately **7-10 days** and peaking around **2-4 weeks** after starting iron therapy indicates that the bone marrow is effectively responding to the increased iron availability by producing new red blood cells. - This **reticulocytosis** is an early and reliable sign of a positive treatment response before a significant rise in hemoglobin is observed.