NEET-PG 2015 Practice Questions

Q: Which of the following statements about Anganwadi workers is incorrect?

Covers a population of 2000. ***Covers a population of 2000*** - An **Anganwadi center** typically covers a population of **1000** in rural and urban areas, and **700** in tribal areas, not 2000. - This statement is incorrect because the specified population coverage is double the standard norm for an Anganwadi center. *Mostly female* - The vast majority of **Anganwadi workers** are **women** from the local community. - This is a correct statement, reflecting the gender composition of the Anganwadi workforce. *Training for 40 days* - **Anganwadi workers** undergo an initial **training program of 40 days**. - This statement is correct, outlining the standard duration of their foundational training. *Under ICDS scheme* - **Anganwadi centers** are a crucial part of the **Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) scheme**. - This statement is correct, as the ICDS scheme established and oversees Anganwadi centers to provide health, nutrition, and early childhood education services.

Q: In a town there are 2500 live births within six months. During the same period 5 women died due to peripartum infection, 5 died due to electrocution, 2 died due to obstructed labor and 3 died due to PPH. What is the MMR?

4 per 1000 live births. ***4 per 1000 live births*** - The **Maternal Mortality Ratio (MMR)** is calculated as the number of maternal deaths per 100,000 live births. In this scenario, only deaths directly related to pregnancy or within 42 days postpartum from obstetric causes are considered maternal deaths. - Total maternal deaths = 5 (peripartum infection) + 2 (obstructed labor) + 3 (PPH) = 10. MMR = (10 maternal deaths / 2500 live births) * 1000 = 4. *6 per 1000 live births* - This calculation would incorrectly include deaths from non-obstetric causes, such as the 5 deaths due to electrocution, which are not considered maternal deaths. - Including non-maternal deaths inflates the ratio, leading to an inaccurate representation of obstetric risk. *40 per 1000 live births* - This value is significantly higher, suggesting a miscalculation in either the number of maternal deaths or the live births, potentially by using a multiplier of 100,000 live births instead of 1,000 for this question, or an arithmetic error. - A common error might be to multiply the total number of maternal deaths by 1000 and divide by the number of live births, leading to an incorrect large number if the base is not handled correctly. *60 per 1000 live births* - This result is far too high and indicates a significant overestimation of maternal deaths or a severe miscalculation. - It likely arises from a compounding of errors, possibly including non-maternal deaths and incorrect scaling of the denominator.

Q: Which of the following is not typically associated with enlarged adenoids?

Esophagitis. ***Esophagitis*** - **Enlarged adenoids** are localized to the **nasopharynx** and do not directly impact the esophagus, making esophagitis an unlikely direct complication. - While chronic mouth breathing from enlarged adenoids can lead to **dry mouth**, it is not a direct cause of esophageal inflammation. *Otitis media* - Enlarged adenoids can obstruct the **eustachian tubes**, which connect the middle ear to the nasopharynx, predisposing to **recurrent acute otitis media** or **otitis media with effusion**. - This obstruction impairs middle ear ventilation and drainage, facilitating bacterial growth and inflammation. *Nasal obstruction* - Enlarged adenoids directly block the **nasopharyngeal airway**, leading to chronic **nasal obstruction** and obligate mouth breathing. - This can cause symptoms like snoring, sleep-disordered breathing, and a characteristic "adenoid facies." *Failure to thrive of child* - **Severe nasal obstruction** from enlarged adenoids can disrupt feeding, particularly in infants, as they must breathe through their mouths while attempting to feed. - This compromised feeding, along with **sleep apnea**, increases energy expenditure and can collectively contribute to **failure to thrive**.

Q: Which of the following is the MOST common condition caused by hypernatremia?

Seizure. ***Seizure*** - While not the *most* common initial symptom, **seizure** can be a severe manifestation of hypernatremia, particularly when the serum sodium levels rise rapidly or to very high concentrations leading to significant neuronal dehydration. - **Rapid correction of severe hypernatremia** can also induce seizures if the brain cells swell too quickly. *Altered mental status* - **Altered mental status** such as lethargy, confusion, or irritability, is a very common and often an earlier symptom of hypernatremia due to neuronal dehydration and intracellular water shifts, but it generally precedes more severe neurological complications like seizures.[1] - It is a broad term that encompasses a range of neurological dysfunctions, and while frequent, it is not as specific a severe endpoint as a seizure. *Brain hemorrhage* - **Brain hemorrhage** is a rare and severe complication of hypernatremia, primarily seen when extreme osmotic shifts cause significant brain shrinkage, leading to tension on bridging veins and potential rupture. - This is not a common presentation and typically occurs only in very severe cases of hypernatremia or during overly rapid correction. *Central pontine myelinosis* - **Central pontine myelinolysis (CPM)** is a neurological disorder caused by too rapid correction of *chronic hyponatremia*, not hypernatremia.[1] - It results from osmotic damage to myelin sheaths in the pons, leading to severe neurological deficits such as dysphagia, dysarthria, and even locked-in syndrome.[1]

Q: Clicking noise in Pneumomediastinum is known as

Hamman's sign. Hamman's sign - Hamman's sign is a crunching, bubbling, or clicking sound synchronous with the heartbeat, audible on auscultation over the precordium. - It is pathognomonic for pneumomediastinum, caused by the heart beating against air-filled tissues. Traube's sign - Traube's sign refers to a pistol-shot sound heard over the femoral artery in severe aortic regurgitation [1]. - It is a vascular sign and not related to pneumomediastinum. Kussmaul's sign - Kussmaul's sign is a paradoxical rise in jugular venous pressure (JVP) during inspiration. - It is typically seen in conditions like constrictive pericarditis or right ventricular infarction, not pneumomediastinum. None of the options - This option is incorrect because Hamman's sign accurately describes the clicking noise associated with pneumomediastinum. - The other options refer to different clinical phenomena unrelated to pneumomediastinum.

Q: Which of the following statements about the Widal test is true?

The O antigen used in the Widal test is from S. typhi.. ***Correct: The O antigen used in the Widal test is from S. typhi.*** - The Widal test uses **O (somatic) antigens from S. Typhi** to detect anti-O antibodies - It also uses **H (flagellar) antigens from S. Typhi** to detect anti-H antibodies - Additionally, antigens from **S. Paratyphi A and B** are included for comprehensive detection of enteric fever - The statement is correct that O antigen from S. typhi is used (along with antigens from other organisms) *Incorrect: The H-antigen is the most immunogenic.* - The **O antigen** is generally considered more immunogenic than the H antigen in enteric fever - Anti-O antibodies appear earlier and are more specific for acute infection - However, O antibodies disappear faster after recovery *Incorrect: Felix tubes are not used in the Widal test.* - **Dreyer's tubes** (also known as Felix tubes) are traditionally used in the Widal test - These special tubes allow for quantitative antibody titration - They enable observation of agglutination patterns at different serum dilutions *Incorrect: Anti-O antibody persists longer than anti-H antibody.* - This is **backwards** - Anti-H antibodies actually persist longer (can last for years) - **Anti-O antibodies** appear later and disappear relatively quickly after infection resolves - Anti-O antibodies are more indicative of acute/recent infection - Anti-H antibodies are less specific due to their prolonged persistence and possible cross-reactions

Q: Which of the following is non-motile:

Burkholderia mallei. ***Burkholderia mallei*** - This bacterium is notably **non-motile**, lacking flagella, which is a key characteristic differentiating it from other members of its genus. - It is a **facultative intracellular pathogen** capable of surviving within host cells, primarily causing **glanders** in equids and occasional human infections. - Its immobility is a significant feature in its identification and pathogenesis. *Pseudomonas aeruginosa* - This bacterium is highly **motile** due to the presence of **polar flagella**. - Its motility contributes to its ability to colonize and invade host tissues, common in opportunistic infections. *Burkholderia pseudomallei* - This species is known to be **motile** by means of flagella, which aids its survival and dissemination in diverse environments and within a host. - It is the causative agent of **melioidosis**, a severe infectious disease. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because **Burkholderia mallei** is indeed non-motile, making it a correct choice among the provided options. - The other specified bacteria, *Pseudomonas aeruginosa* and *Burkholderia pseudomallei*, are motile.

Q: Which of the following is NOT true about Corynebacterium hofmannii?

Toxigenic. ***Toxigenic*** - *Corynebacterium hofmannii* is a **non-toxigenic** species and does not produce **diphtheria toxin**, unlike *C. diphtheriae*. - Its clinical significance primarily relates to its potential role in opportunistic infections, not toxin-mediated diseases. - This is the **correct answer** as C. hofmannii being toxigenic is NOT true. *A diphtheroid* - **Diphtheroid** refers to gram-positive, rod-shaped bacteria morphologically similar to *Corynebacterium diphtheriae*. - *C. hofmannii* fits this description due to its characteristic morphology and belongs to the Corynebacterium genus. - This statement is TRUE. *Non-pathogenic saprophyte* - *C. hofmannii* is commonly found as a **commensal organism** on human skin and mucous membranes as part of normal flora. - While generally non-pathogenic, it can cause opportunistic infections in immunocompromised individuals. - This statement is TRUE. *Commonly found in the normal flora of the throat* - *C. hofmannii* is indeed found as part of the **normal respiratory tract flora**, including the throat and upper respiratory passages. - It is a common colonizer and generally harmless commensal. - This statement is TRUE.

Q: Which mode of ultrasonography is used to measure the axial length of the eyeball?

A-mode Ultrasonography. ***A-mode Ultrasonography*** - **A-mode** (amplitude modulation) ultrasonography is a **one-dimensional** display that measures the distance between structures based on the time it takes for sound waves to reflect. - It is specifically used for **biometry**, such as measuring the axial length of the eyeball for **intraocular lens (IOL) power calculation** prior to cataract surgery. *B-mode Ultrasonography* - **B-mode** (brightness modulation) ultrasonography provides a **two-dimensional** image, displaying the cross-sectional anatomy of organs. - While useful for visualizing ocular structures, it is not primarily used for precise **axial length measurements**. *M-mode Ultrasonography* - **M-mode** (motion mode) ultrasonography displays the **movement** of structures over time in a one-dimensional format. - This mode is typically used in **cardiac imaging** to assess heart valve motion and chamber dimensions, not for static length measurements of the eye. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because **A-mode ultrasonography** is indeed the gold standard for measuring the axial length of the eyeball. - The other modes (B-mode and M-mode) serve different diagnostic purposes in ultrasonography.

Q: What is the most common mechanism responsible for causing arrhythmias in the heart?

Re-entry. ***Re-entry*** - **Re-entry** is the most common mechanism for arrhythmias and involves a re-excitation of cardiac tissue due to a circulating electrical impulse. - This requires at least two pathways with differing conduction velocities and refractory periods, creating a path for the impulse to re-excite an area after its normal refractory period has ended. *Early after depolarization* - **Early afterdepolarizations (EADs)** occur during phase 2 or 3 of the action potential when repolarization is incomplete, often due to prolonged action potential duration. - They are typically associated with conditions like **long QT syndrome** and can trigger polymorphic ventricular tachycardia, but are less common than re-entry. *Late after depolarization* - **Late afterdepolarizations (DADs)** occur during phase 4 of the action potential, after repolarization is complete, due to excessive intracellular calcium. - They are often seen in conditions like **digoxin toxicity** or **catecholaminergic polymorphic ventricular tachycardia**, but are not the most prevalent mechanism. *Automaticity* - **Abnormal automaticity** refers to pacemaker activity arising in non-pacemaker cells or an acceleration of normal pacemaker activity. - While it can cause arrhythmias such as accelerated idioventricular rhythm, re-entry is far more frequently implicated in the etiology of clinical arrhythmias.

Question 1

Which of the following statements about Anganwadi workers is incorrect?

Accepted Answer

Covers a population of 2000

Answer

Training for 40 days

Answer

Under ICDS scheme

Answer

Mostly female

Question 2

In a town there are 2500 live births within six months. During the same period 5 women died due to peripartum infection, 5 died due to electrocution, 2 died due to obstructed labor and 3 died due to PPH. What is the MMR?

Accepted Answer

4 per 1000 live births

Answer

6 per 1000 live births

Answer

40 per 1000 live births

Answer

60 per 1000 live births

Question 3

Which of the following is not typically associated with enlarged adenoids?

Accepted Answer

Esophagitis

Answer

Otitis media

Answer

Nasal obstruction

Answer

Failure to thrive of child

Question 4

Which of the following is the MOST common condition caused by hypernatremia?

Accepted Answer

Seizure

Answer

Altered mental status

Answer

Brain hemorrhage

Answer

Central pontine myelinosis

Question 5

Clicking noise in Pneumomediastinum is known as

Accepted Answer

Hamman's sign

Answer

Traube's sign

Answer

Kussmaul's sign

Answer

None of the options

Question 6

Which of the following statements about the Widal test is true?

Accepted Answer

The O antigen used in the Widal test is from S. typhi.

Answer

The H-antigen is the most immunogenic.

Answer

Felix tubes are not used in the Widal test.

Answer

Anti-O antibody persists longer than anti-H antibody.

Question 7

Which of the following is non-motile:

Accepted Answer

Burkholderia mallei

Answer

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Answer

Burkholderia pseudomallei

Answer

None of the options

Question 8

Which of the following is NOT true about Corynebacterium hofmannii?

Accepted Answer

Toxigenic

Answer

Commonly found in the normal flora of the throat

Answer

A diphtheroid

Answer

Non-pathogenic saprophyte

Question 9

Which mode of ultrasonography is used to measure the axial length of the eyeball?

Accepted Answer

A-mode Ultrasonography

Answer

B-mode Ultrasonography

Answer

M-mode Ultrasonography

Answer

None of the options

Question 10

What is the most common mechanism responsible for causing arrhythmias in the heart?

Accepted Answer

Re-entry

Answer

Early after depolarization

Answer

Late after depolarization

Answer

Automaticity

NEET-PG 2015

Community Medicine

ENT

Internal Medicine

Microbiology

Ophthalmology

Physiology