Anatomy
1 questionsWhere is the auditory cortex primarily located in the brain?
NEET-PG 2015 - Anatomy NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 791: Where is the auditory cortex primarily located in the brain?
- A. Superior temporal gyrus (Correct Answer)
- B. Inferior temporal gyrus
- C. Area 3,1,2
- D. Cingulate gyrus
Explanation: ***Superior temporal gyrus*** - The **primary auditory cortex** (Brodmann areas 41 and 42) is located in the **superior temporal gyrus**, primarily within the **transverse temporal gyri of Heschl**. [1] - This region is responsible for processing **auditory information**, including pitch, loudness, and sound localization. [1] *Inferior temporal gyrus* - The **inferior temporal gyrus** is a part of the temporal lobe involved in higher-level **visual processing** and object recognition. - It plays a role in the "what" pathway of vision and **memory formation**, not primary auditory processing. *Area 3,1,2* - **Brodmann areas 3, 1, and 2** collectively form the **primary somatosensory cortex**. [2] - This area is located in the **postcentral gyrus** of the parietal lobe and is responsible for processing touch, pain, temperature, and proprioception. [2] *Cingulate gyrus* - The **cingulate gyrus** is a component of the **limbic system**, involved in emotion formation, learning, memory, and executive function. - It plays a role in processing emotional aspects of pain and fear, but not primary auditory perception.
Biochemistry
2 questionsWhat is the Net Protein Utilization (NPU) for eggs?
What is the limiting amino acid in cereals?
NEET-PG 2015 - Biochemistry NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 791: What is the Net Protein Utilization (NPU) for eggs?
- A. 70
- B. 80
- C. 94 (Correct Answer)
- D. 100
Explanation: ***94*** - **Eggs** are considered a **high-quality protein source** with a Net Protein Utilization (NPU) of approximately **94**, indicating very efficient protein absorption and utilization by the body. - This high NPU reflects the excellent balance of **essential amino acids** in eggs, making them a benchmark for protein quality. *70* - An NPU of 70 is generally considered good but is lower than that of **eggs**, which are among the most efficiently utilized proteins. - This value might be typical for some **plant-based proteins** or mixtures of proteins with slightly less optimal essential amino acid profiles. *80* - An NPU of 80 indicates good protein quality but is still significantly lower than the **NPU of eggs**. - This value is often seen in high-quality **meat proteins** or well-balanced **dairy products**. *100* - An NPU of 100 would mean that all ingested protein is perfectly absorbed and utilized by the body without any loss, which is **theoretically impossible** for biological systems. - While some protein quality metrics might approach 100, **NPU is a measure of actual utilization** and never reaches 100 due to metabolic losses.
Question 792: What is the limiting amino acid in cereals?
- A. Methionine
- B. Tryptophan
- C. Lysine (Correct Answer)
- D. Cysteine
Explanation: ***Lysine*** - **Lysine** is the **first limiting amino acid in cereals** (wheat, rice, corn), meaning it is present in the lowest proportion relative to the body's needs. - This deficiency can impact **protein synthesis** if cereals are the sole or primary protein source without supplementation. - Complementing cereals with **legumes** (rich in lysine but low in methionine) provides complete protein nutrition. *Methionine* - **Methionine** is typically the limiting amino acid in **legumes**, not cereals. - It works with cysteine to provide **sulfur-containing amino acids** essential for various metabolic processes. - This is why cereal-legume combinations (rice and lentils, corn and beans) are nutritionally complementary. *Tryptophan* - **Tryptophan** is an essential amino acid, but it is generally **not the primary limiting amino acid in cereals**. - While corn can be relatively low in tryptophan, **lysine deficiency is more significant** across cereal grains. - It is a precursor to **serotonin** and **niacin**. *Cysteine* - **Cysteine** is a non-essential amino acid, meaning the body can synthesize it from methionine. - While important for protein structure and function, it is **not considered a limiting amino acid** since it can be produced endogenously.
Community Medicine
4 questionsAt what fluoride concentration in drinking water does skeletal fluorosis typically occur?
What is the nutritional contribution of the Mid-Day Meal Scheme in terms of pulses?
Vanaspati Ghee is fortified with ?
How often is Village Health and Nutrition Day (VHND) observed?
NEET-PG 2015 - Community Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 791: At what fluoride concentration in drinking water does skeletal fluorosis typically occur?
- A. < 1.5 mg/L
- B. 1.5-3 mg/L
- C. 3-6 mg/L (Correct Answer)
- D. > 10 mg/L
Explanation: ***3-6 mg/L*** - Chronic exposure to drinking water with **fluoride concentrations of 3-6 mg/L** represents the **threshold range** where **early skeletal fluorosis** begins to manifest. - At concentrations **≥4 mg/L**, fluoride accumulation in bones exceeds the body's excretory capacity, leading to **increased bone density, osteosclerosis**, and early symptoms like **joint stiffness and bone pain**. - This range captures the **onset of skeletal manifestations**, though more severe changes occur at higher concentrations. *< 1.5 mg/L* - This range is **optimal for preventing dental caries** without causing adverse effects. - Fluoride concentrations below 1.5 mg/L are **safe** and do not cause skeletal or dental fluorosis. - Many water fluoridation programs target **0.5-1.0 mg/L** for dental health benefits. *1.5-3 mg/L* - This range primarily causes **dental fluorosis** (enamel mottling and discoloration) with chronic exposure, especially during tooth development. - **Skeletal fluorosis does not typically occur** at these concentrations, as the threshold for bone involvement is higher. - This is considered the range for cosmetic concerns rather than systemic skeletal disease. *> 10 mg/L* - Concentrations exceeding 10 mg/L lead to **severe, crippling skeletal fluorosis** with marked bone deformities, ligament calcification, and potential neurological complications. - This represents **advanced disease** rather than the typical onset of skeletal fluorosis. - Such high concentrations are found in endemic fluorosis regions with contaminated groundwater.
Question 792: What is the nutritional contribution of the Mid-Day Meal Scheme in terms of pulses?
- A. Provides 30% of daily protein needs
- B. Provides 30 gm of pulses per day (Correct Answer)
- C. Provides 50% of daily energy needs
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***Provides 30 gm of pulses per day*** - The Mid-Day Meal Scheme specifies the provision of **30 grams of pulses** daily for **upper primary classes (VI-VIII)**, and 20 grams for primary classes (I-V), contributing to protein intake. - This quantity ensures a consistent supply of **plant-based protein** as part of a balanced diet for schoolchildren. - The question refers to the commonly cited **30g standard for upper primary**, which is the most frequently referenced figure in examinations. *Provides 30% of daily protein needs* - While pulses contribute to protein intake, specifying a fixed **30% of daily protein needs** is not a direct nutritional guideline of the scheme for pulses alone. - The scheme focuses on providing a certain **quantity of pulses in grams**, from which the protein contribution is derived. *Provides 50% of daily energy needs* - The Mid-Day Meal Scheme aims to provide **300 kcal for primary** and **700 kcal for upper primary classes**, but this is derived from the entire meal composition (cereals, pulses, vegetables), not just pulses. - The scheme's **energy contribution** is holistic and represents approximately 33% of daily energy requirements, not 50%. *None of the options* - One of the provided options accurately reflects a specific guideline of the Mid-Day Meal Scheme regarding pulses. - The scheme has clear stipulations for the **quantity of pulses in grams** to be served.
Question 793: Vanaspati Ghee is fortified with ?
- A. Iodine
- B. Vitamin A (Correct Answer)
- C. Iron
- D. Calcium
Explanation: ***Vitamin A*** - **Vanaspati Ghee** is commonly fortified with **Vitamin A** to improve its nutritional value and address deficiencies. - Fortification helps to combat **Vitamin A deficiency disorders**, such as **night blindness**. *Iodine* - **Iodine** is typically used to fortify **table salt** to prevent **goiter** and **iodine deficiency disorders**. - It is not commonly added to Vanaspati Ghee. *Iron* - **Iron** is commonly used to fortify foods like **flour** and **cereals** to combat **anemia**. - Vanaspati Ghee is not a common vehicle for iron fortification. *Calcium* - **Calcium** is often added to dairy products or certain beverages to support **bone health**. - It is not a standard fortification for Vanaspati Ghee.
Question 794: How often is Village Health and Nutrition Day (VHND) observed?
- A. Every 6 months
- B. Every week
- C. Every year
- D. Once a month (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Once a month*** - Village Health and Nutrition Day (VHND) is typically observed on a **fixed day each month** to provide essential health and nutrition services at the community level. - This regular schedule ensures consistent access to services like **immunization**, **antenatal care**, and **health education** for rural populations. *Every week* - Observing VHND every week would be a **logistical challenge** given the resources and personnel required for comprehensive service delivery. - Most community-level health programs are not designed for weekly, full-scale events due to the **intensive resource allocation** involved. *Every 6 months* - A frequency of every six months would be **insufficient** to address the ongoing health and nutrition needs of the community, especially for routine immunizations and growth monitoring. - Many public health interventions require more frequent contact to be effective in **preventing disease** and **promoting health**. *Every year* - An annual observation of VHND would be **highly inadequate** for managing public health programs, as it would miss critical windows for interventions like timely immunizations and growth assessments for infants and children. - Annual events are generally reserved for specific campaigns or assessments, not for broad, routine health service delivery.
ENT
1 questionsAll of the following are features of Tubotympanic CSOM except which of the following?
NEET-PG 2015 - ENT NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 791: All of the following are features of Tubotympanic CSOM except which of the following?
- A. Profuse discharge
- B. Hearing loss
- C. Extreme pain (Correct Answer)
- D. Facial nerve paralysis
Explanation: ***Extreme pain*** - **Extreme pain** is NOT a characteristic feature of **tubotympanic CSOM**. This type is typically associated with a history of **painless otorrhea**. - Tubotympanic CSOM is considered the "safe" type with inflammation limited to the mucosa without bone erosion. - The presence of severe pain should raise suspicion for complications or the **atticoantral (unsafe) type** of CSOM. *Profuse discharge* - **Profuse, mucoid** or **mucopurulent discharge** is a hallmark feature of tubotympanic CSOM. - This discharge results from chronic inflammation of the **middle ear mucoperiosteum** through a central perforation in the **pars tensa**. - The discharge is typically non-foul smelling (unlike atticoantral CSOM). *Hearing loss* - **Conductive hearing loss** is a universal feature of tubotympanic CSOM. - Results from **tympanic membrane perforation**, middle ear effusion, and potential ossicular discontinuity. - The degree of hearing loss correlates with the size and location of the perforation. *Facial nerve paralysis* - Facial nerve paralysis is **NOT a typical feature** of tubotympanic (safe) CSOM. - This complication is characteristically associated with **atticoantral (unsafe) CSOM** with cholesteatoma causing bone erosion. - While theoretically possible in very advanced neglected tubotympanic disease, it would indicate transformation to unsafe disease or secondary complications. - **Note:** Some sources may list this as a rare complication, but it is not a characteristic feature distinguishing tubotympanic CSOM, making this option potentially ambiguous in an "EXCEPT" question format.
Pharmacology
2 questionsIn primary open-angle glaucoma, pilocarpine eye drops lower intraocular pressure primarily by acting on which of the following?
What is the recommended therapeutic supplementation of iron and folic acid for adults with deficiency?
NEET-PG 2015 - Pharmacology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 791: In primary open-angle glaucoma, pilocarpine eye drops lower intraocular pressure primarily by acting on which of the following?
- A. All of the options
- B. Trabecular meshwork
- C. Ciliary epithelium
- D. Longitudinal fibres of the ciliary muscle (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Longitudinal fibres of the ciliary muscle***- Pilocarpine is a **muscarinic agonist** that contracts the **longitudinal fibers of the ciliary muscle** [1, 3].- This contraction pulls on the **scleral spur**, separating the **trabecular meshwork** sheets, which increases conventional **aqueous humor outflow** [2, 3].*Trabecular meshwork*- While the **trabecular meshwork** is the site where aqueous humor exits the eye, pilocarpine primarily acts on the ciliary muscle to **indirectly affect** the meshwork's outflow facility [2, 3].- Pilocarpine does not directly alter the structure or function of the trabecular meshwork cells.*Ciliary epithelium*- The **ciliary epithelium** is responsible for **aqueous humor production** [1, 2].- Pilocarpine primarily affects **outflow**, not production, through its action on the ciliary muscle [1, 2].*All of the options*- Pilocarpine does not act on **all** these structures; its primary mechanism is through the ciliary muscle to enhance outflow.- It has no direct significant effect on **ciliary epithelium** or direct action on the **trabecular meshwork** itself.
Question 792: What is the recommended therapeutic supplementation of iron and folic acid for adults with deficiency?
- A. 20 mg iron, 500 mcg folic acid
- B. 40 mg iron, 250 mcg folic acid
- C. 100 mg iron, 500 mcg folic acid (Correct Answer)
- D. 100 mg iron, 100 mcg folic acid
Explanation: ***100 mg iron, 500 mcg folic acid*** - For adults with **iron deficiency anemia**, the therapeutic dose of elemental iron is typically **100-200 mg daily**, commonly given as ferrous sulfate 325 mg (containing ~65 mg elemental iron) 2-3 times daily. **100 mg is an appropriate therapeutic dose**. - For **folic acid deficiency**, the standard therapeutic dose is **1-5 mg (1000-5000 mcg) daily** for treating established deficiency. However, **500 mcg (0.5 mg)** represents a minimal therapeutic/high prophylactic dose that may be used in milder deficiencies or as initial supplementation. Among the given options, this is the most appropriate combination. *20 mg iron, 500 mcg folic acid* - **20 mg of iron** is grossly insufficient for therapeutic supplementation in iron deficiency anemia and would fail to correct the anemia adequately. - While 500 mcg folic acid has some therapeutic value, the **iron dose is far too low** for treatment. *40 mg iron, 250 mcg folic acid* - **40 mg of iron** is a prophylactic dose (used in pregnancy or prevention) but is **insufficient for therapeutic correction** of established iron deficiency anemia. - **250 mcg of folic acid** is also a prophylactic dose and inadequate for treating established deficiency. *100 mg iron, 100 mcg folic acid* - **100 mg of iron** is an appropriate therapeutic dose for treating **iron deficiency anemia**. - However, **100 mcg of folic acid** is purely a maintenance/prophylactic dose found in multivitamins and is **grossly insufficient** for treating established folic acid deficiency.