NEET-PG 2015 Practice Questions

Q: Which of the following is not an extrinsic laryngeal membrane?

Quadrangular membrane. **Quadrangular membrane** - The quadrangular membrane is an **intrinsic laryngeal membrane**, originating and inserting within the larynx itself, forming the false vocal cords and epiglottic folds. - It does not connect the larynx to external structures like the hyoid bone or trachea. *Hyoepiglottic ligament* - This is an **extrinsic laryngeal ligament** that connects the anterior surface of the epiglottis to the body of the hyoid bone. - It helps anchor the epiglottis to a structure outside the larynx. *Cricotracheal membrane* - The cricotracheal membrane is an **extrinsic laryngeal membrane** connecting the inferior border of the cricoid cartilage of the larynx to the first tracheal ring. - It forms the connection between the larynx and the trachea, an external structure. *Thyrohyoid membrane* - This is an **extrinsic laryngeal membrane** that connects the superior border of the thyroid cartilage of the larynx to the first tracheal ring. - It provides a broad connection between the larynx and the hyoid bone, an external laryngeal structure.

Q: Under NTEP, what is the honorarium given to a DOTS provider after the completion of treatment?

500 INR. ***500 INR*** - Under the **National Tuberculosis Elimination Programme (NTEP)**, a **DOTS provider** receives an honorarium of **INR 500** upon the successful completion of tuberculosis treatment for a **new TB patient**. - This incentive, revised from the earlier amount of INR 250, aims to recognize the crucial role of DOTS providers in ensuring treatment adherence and successful outcomes. - The increased honorarium reflects the government's commitment to incentivizing community participation in TB elimination. *150 INR* - This amount is **significantly lower than the stipulated honorarium** for a DOTS provider upon treatment completion under current NTEP guidelines. - The correct incentive for successful completion of treatment is INR 500 for new TB cases. *250 INR* - This was the **earlier honorarium amount** under the previous NTEP guidelines, which has since been **revised upward**. - Under the current NTEP incentive structure, the honorarium for treatment completion has been increased to INR 500. *1000 INR* - This amount is **higher than the designated honorarium** for a DOTS provider upon treatment completion under NTEP. - While this figure may apply to other incentive schemes or different milestones, the standard honorarium for new TB case completion is INR 500.

Q: Which of the following is not typically incinerated?

Broken thermometers. ***Broken thermometers*** - **Broken thermometers** often contain **mercury**, which, when incinerated, releases **toxic mercury vapor** into the atmosphere. - This poses a severe environmental and health hazard, requiring them to be handled as **hazardous waste** and recycled or disposed of in specialized facilities to prevent mercury release. *Human anatomical waste* - **Human anatomical waste**, including body parts, tissues, and recognizable organs, is highly infectious and poses significant biohazard risks. - **Incineration** is the preferred method for its disposal to ensure complete destruction of pathogens and reduce environmental contamination. *Animal waste* - **Animal waste** from research or healthcare settings (e.g., infected animal carcasses, bedding with animal excreta) is considered **biohazardous**. - **Incineration** effectively neutralizes pathogens and reduces the volume of such waste, preventing disease transmission. *Infected solid waste* - **Infected solid waste**, such as bandages, swabs, and disposable medical devices contaminated with blood or bodily fluids, carries a high risk of spreading infectious diseases. - **Incineration** at high temperatures ensures sterilization and safe disposal of these materials, destroying pathogenic microorganisms.

Q: How often is Village Health and Nutrition Day (VHND) observed?

Once a month. ***Once a month*** - Village Health and Nutrition Day (VHND) is typically observed on a **fixed day each month** to provide essential health and nutrition services at the community level. - This regular schedule ensures consistent access to services like **immunization**, **antenatal care**, and **health education** for rural populations. *Every week* - Observing VHND every week would be a **logistical challenge** given the resources and personnel required for comprehensive service delivery. - Most community-level health programs are not designed for weekly, full-scale events due to the **intensive resource allocation** involved. *Every 6 months* - A frequency of every six months would be **insufficient** to address the ongoing health and nutrition needs of the community, especially for routine immunizations and growth monitoring. - Many public health interventions require more frequent contact to be effective in **preventing disease** and **promoting health**. *Every year* - An annual observation of VHND would be **highly inadequate** for managing public health programs, as it would miss critical windows for interventions like timely immunizations and growth assessments for infants and children. - Annual events are generally reserved for specific campaigns or assessments, not for broad, routine health service delivery.

Q: In evaluation of a case of immotile nasal cilia, which of the following investigations should prove useful?

Nitric oxide test. Nitric oxide test - A low nasal nitric oxide (nNO) concentration is a key diagnostic criterion for Primary Ciliary Dyskinesia (PCD), a genetic disorder characterized by immotile or dyskinetic cilia [1]. - Nasal NO is significantly reduced in PCD patients due to impaired ciliary function, making this test highly useful for screening. *Rhinogram* - A rhinogram is a radiographic imaging technique primarily used to visualize the nasal cavity and paranasal sinuses, often to detect structural abnormalities or foreign bodies. - It does not directly assess ciliary function or provide information about ciliary motility. *Sweat sodium levels* - Elevated sweat chloride or sodium levels are the diagnostic hallmark of cystic fibrosis, a genetic condition primarily affecting mucus production. - While cystic fibrosis can cause respiratory symptoms, it does not directly lead to immotile nasal cilia in the same manner as PCD. *Xray nasal and paranasal sinuses* - An X-ray of the nasal and paranasal sinuses can reveal structural issues, such as sinus opacification or polyps, which may accompany ciliary dysfunction. - However, it does not provide direct information about the motility or structural integrity of the cilia themselves.

Q: Which form of lead is considered the least toxic?

Lead sulphide. **Correct Option: Lead sulphide** - **Lead sulphide (galena)** has very low solubility in biological systems, meaning it is poorly absorbed by the body. - Due to its poor absorption and insolubility, it is considered the **least toxic** form of lead among the options listed. - It is essentially inert in the gastrointestinal tract and passes through without significant absorption. *Incorrect: Lead acetate* - **Lead acetate** is a highly soluble lead compound and is therefore readily absorbed by the body, making it significantly toxic. - It has been historically used in various applications (sugar of lead), increasing exposure risk and demonstrating its high bioavailability. - Soluble salts of lead are the most dangerous forms. *Incorrect: Lead oxide* - **Lead oxide** (like litharge or red lead) is moderately soluble and can be absorbed through ingestion or inhalation, contributing to lead toxicity. - It is used in paints and batteries, leading to industrial and environmental exposure risks. - Chronic exposure can lead to significant lead accumulation. *Incorrect: Lead carbonate* - **Lead carbonate** (white lead) is also a relatively soluble lead compound and is readily absorbed by the body, making it highly toxic. - It was historically used extensively in paints and cosmetics, contributing to significant lead poisoning cases. - The solubility in gastric acid makes this form particularly dangerous when ingested.

Q: Which of the following is a specific feature of acquired immunity?

Immunological memory. ***Immunological memory*** - A key characteristic of **acquired immunity** is the ability to "remember" previous encounters with specific pathogens. - This memory leads to a more rapid and robust immune response upon subsequent exposure to the same pathogen. - This is the **defining feature** that distinguishes acquired immunity from innate immunity. *Affected by genetic makeup* - While genetic makeup can influence the *efficiency* of the acquired immune system, it is not a **specific feature** that distinguishes it from innate immunity. - **Both innate and acquired immunity** are affected by genetic factors, determining baseline resistance and immune response capability. *No antigen exposure* - **Acquired immunity** is specifically characterized by its *dependence* on antigen exposure to develop specific responses. - The phrase "no antigen exposure" describes how the **innate immune system** functions, providing immediate, non-specific protection without prior contact with a pathogen. *Immediate response* - **Innate immunity** provides an immediate, non-specific response to pathogens. - **Acquired immunity** takes time to develop (days to weeks) after initial antigen exposure, but provides a faster response upon re-exposure due to immunological memory.

Q: A 44-year-old woman presents with sudden painless loss of vision with a history of previous similar episodes. Fundoscopy shows no glow. What could be the possible diagnosis?

Vitreous Hemorrhage. ***Vitreous Hemorrhage*** - **Painless vision loss** is a hallmark symptom, and **previous similar episodes** suggest a recurrent condition, characteristic of vitreous hemorrhage from fragile vessels. - The **"no glow"** on fundoscopy indicates that light from the ophthalmoscope is unable to reflect off the retina due to something obstructing the clear media, such as blood in the vitreous cavity. *Rhegmatogenous Retinal Detachment* - While it causes **painless vision loss**, patients often report **floaters** or **flashes of light** preceding the detachment, which are not mentioned here. - Fundoscopy in rhegmatogenous retinal detachment would typically show a **grayish, elevated retina**, often with folds, not a complete loss of red reflex or ''no glow.'' *Acute Angle-Closure Glaucoma* - Characterized by **sudden, severe eye pain**, blurred vision, and often a **red eye** with a fixed, mid-dilated pupil. - Fundoscopy would typically reveal a **cupped optic disc** in advanced stages, but the primary finding is elevated intraocular pressure, with a clear vitreous, thus allowing an initial glow. *Fungal Keratitis* - This is an **infection of the cornea** that typically presents with pain, redness, photophobia, and a visible corneal ulcer or infiltrate. - Vision loss is gradual, and fundoscopy would still show a **normal red reflex** unless the corneal opacity is extremely dense, which is not implied by "no glow."

Question 1

Which of the following is not an extrinsic laryngeal membrane?

Accepted Answer

Quadrangular membrane

Answer

Hyoepiglottic ligament

Answer

Cricotracheal membrane

Answer

Thyrohyoid membrane

Question 2

Under NTEP, what is the honorarium given to a DOTS provider after the completion of treatment?

Accepted Answer

500 INR

Answer

150 INR

Answer

1000 INR

Answer

250 INR

Question 3

Which of the following is not typically incinerated?

Accepted Answer

Broken thermometers

Answer

Animal waste

Answer

Infected solid waste

Answer

Human anatomical waste

Question 4

How often is Village Health and Nutrition Day (VHND) observed?

Accepted Answer

Once a month

Answer

Every 6 months

Answer

Every week

Answer

Every year

Question 5

In evaluation of a case of immotile nasal cilia, which of the following investigations should prove useful?

Accepted Answer

Nitric oxide test

Answer

Rhinogram

Answer

Sweat sodium levels

Answer

Xray nasal and paranasal sinuses

Question 6

What does the term 'Total Communication' refer to in the context of deaf education?

Accepted Answer

Using all available communication methods to educate a deaf child.

Answer

Utilizing various communication methods for advertising purposes.

Answer

Employing multiple communication methods for educational purposes in schools.

Answer

Engaging various communication methods for community involvement.

Question 7

Which form of lead is considered the least toxic?

Accepted Answer

Lead sulphide

Answer

Lead acetate

Answer

Lead oxide

Answer

Lead carbonate

Question 8

Which of the following is a specific feature of acquired immunity?

Accepted Answer

Immunological memory

Answer

Affected by genetic makeup

Answer

No antigen exposure

Answer

Immediate response

Question 9

Aniseikonia is ?

Accepted Answer

Projection of different sized images into visual cortex of two retinae

Answer

Projection of different colored images into the visual cortex of one eye

Answer

Change in the perception of object size due to distance

Answer

Temporary visual disturbances affecting one eye

Question 10

A 44-year-old woman presents with sudden painless loss of vision with a history of previous similar episodes. Fundoscopy shows no glow. What could be the possible diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Vitreous Hemorrhage

Answer

Rhegmatogenous Retinal Detachment

Answer

Acute Angle-Closure Glaucoma

Answer

Fungal Keratitis

NEET-PG 2015

Anatomy

Community Medicine

ENT

Forensic Medicine

Microbiology

Ophthalmology