NEET-PG 2015 Practice Questions

Q: Which of the following is NOT a duty of an ASHA worker?

Administering zero dose of DPT and OPV. ***Correct: Administering zero dose of DPT and OPV*** - **ASHA workers do NOT administer vaccines** - this is strictly beyond their scope of practice - According to **NRHM guidelines**, ASHAs are **facilitators and mobilizers** for immunization, not vaccine administrators - Only **ANMs and trained health workers** are authorized to administer vaccines including DPT and OPV - ASHAs role is to **identify beneficiaries, create awareness, and escort mothers/children to immunization centers** - Vaccine administration requires technical training and cold chain management that ASHAs are not equipped for *Incorrect: Assessing the success of national programs under ANM* - While this is also not a primary ASHA duty, the question asks for what is NOT a duty - Program assessment is done at district/state levels through monitoring and evaluation teams - However, between administering vaccines (strictly prohibited) vs program assessment (not their role but may provide data), vaccine administration is more clearly NOT their duty *Incorrect: Primary screening for prevalence of non-communicable diseases* - This **IS a duty** of ASHA workers under **NPCDCS** (National Programme for Prevention and Control of Cancer, Diabetes, CVD and Stroke) - ASHAs conduct basic screening for hypertension, diabetes, and common cancers using simple tools - They refer suspected cases to appropriate health facilities for confirmation and management *Incorrect: All of the options* - This is incorrect because primary NCD screening IS part of ASHA duties, and administering vaccines is the most clearly defined non-duty among the options

Q: Which of the following statements about Anganwadi workers is incorrect?

Covers a population of 2000. ***Covers a population of 2000*** - An **Anganwadi center** typically covers a population of **1000** in rural and urban areas, and **700** in tribal areas, not 2000. - This statement is incorrect because the specified population coverage is double the standard norm for an Anganwadi center. *Mostly female* - The vast majority of **Anganwadi workers** are **women** from the local community. - This is a correct statement, reflecting the gender composition of the Anganwadi workforce. *Training for 40 days* - **Anganwadi workers** undergo an initial **training program of 40 days**. - This statement is correct, outlining the standard duration of their foundational training. *Under ICDS scheme* - **Anganwadi centers** are a crucial part of the **Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) scheme**. - This statement is correct, as the ICDS scheme established and oversees Anganwadi centers to provide health, nutrition, and early childhood education services.

Q: All of the following are causes of perforation of the cartilaginous part of the nasal septum except?

Syphilis. ***Syphilis*** - **Syphilis** typically causes perforation of the **bony part** of the nasal septum, particularly the vomer and perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone, due to chronic granulomatous inflammation. - The cartilaginous septum is generally less affected by syphilis in terms of perforation, although early mucosal involvement can occur. *Trauma* - **Trauma** (e.g., nose picking, septal surgery, foreign body insertion) is a common cause of **perforation of the cartilaginous nasal septum**. - Such injuries can lead to localized necrosis and subsequent perforation due to disruption of the blood supply to the septal cartilage. *Tuberculosis* - **Tuberculosis** can cause **granulomatous inflammation** and necrosis, leading to perforation of the **cartilaginous nasal septum**. - This is part of extrapulmonary tuberculosis and can present with chronic nasal obstruction and discharge. *Leprosy* - **Leprosy** (Hansen's disease) is known to cause severe destruction of nasal structures due to chronic inflammation, including perforation of the **cartilaginous nasal septum**. - The specific bacteria cause granulomatous lesions that erode the cartilage over time.

Q: Intrathecal fluorescein with endoscopic visualization is useful in diagnosis of?

Diagnosis of CSF Rhinorrhoea. ***Diagnosis of CSF Rhinorrhoea*** - **Intrathecal fluorescein** is instilled into the cerebrospinal fluid, and its presence in the nasal cavity via endoscopy confirms a **CSF leak**. - This method provides direct visualization of the leak site, which is crucial for surgical planning. *Rhinitis Medicamentosa* - This condition is caused by overuse of **topical decongestants** and characterized by nasal congestion, not a CSF leak. - Diagnosis is typically based on patient history and clinical examination rather than specialized imaging or dye studies. *Multiple ethmoidal polyps* - **Ethmoidal polyps** are benign growths in the ethmoid sinuses, causing nasal obstruction and anosmia. - Diagnosis is made via nasal endoscopy and CT scan, and fluorescein staining is not indicated. *Deviated nasal septum* - A **deviated nasal septum** is a structural abnormality causing unilateral or bilateral nasal obstruction. - Diagnosis is clinical and confirmed by anterior rhinoscopy or nasal endoscopy, with no role for intrathecal fluorescein.

Q: In a patient with hypoglycemia, what is the appropriate dose adjustment of insulin?

Decrease insulin dosage. ***Decrease insulin dosage*** - Hypoglycemia indicates that the current insulin dose is too high, causing blood glucose levels to drop excessively [1]. - Reducing the insulin dosage helps prevent future episodes of low blood sugar by allowing blood glucose to remain within a healthier range [1]. *Increase insulin dosage* - Increasing insulin would further lower blood glucose, exacerbating the **hypoglycemia** and potentially leading to a more severe and dangerous state. - This action is appropriate for **hyperglycemia**, not hypoglycemia. *Maintain current insulin dosage* - Maintaining the current dose would not address the problem, as it has already proven to be too much for the patient, causing the **hypoglycemic episodes** [1]. - This approach would leave the patient at continued risk for recurrent hypoglycemia. *Add a different medication* - While other medications might be used in diabetes management, adding a new one without adjusting the existing insulin dose could further complicate blood glucose control. - The immediate and most direct action for **hypoglycemia** caused by insulin is to adjust the insulin itself [1].

Q: Which of the following statements about the Widal test is true?

The O antigen used in the Widal test is from S. typhi.. ***Correct: The O antigen used in the Widal test is from S. typhi.*** - The Widal test uses **O (somatic) antigens from S. Typhi** to detect anti-O antibodies - It also uses **H (flagellar) antigens from S. Typhi** to detect anti-H antibodies - Additionally, antigens from **S. Paratyphi A and B** are included for comprehensive detection of enteric fever - The statement is correct that O antigen from S. typhi is used (along with antigens from other organisms) *Incorrect: The H-antigen is the most immunogenic.* - The **O antigen** is generally considered more immunogenic than the H antigen in enteric fever - Anti-O antibodies appear earlier and are more specific for acute infection - However, O antibodies disappear faster after recovery *Incorrect: Felix tubes are not used in the Widal test.* - **Dreyer's tubes** (also known as Felix tubes) are traditionally used in the Widal test - These special tubes allow for quantitative antibody titration - They enable observation of agglutination patterns at different serum dilutions *Incorrect: Anti-O antibody persists longer than anti-H antibody.* - This is **backwards** - Anti-H antibodies actually persist longer (can last for years) - **Anti-O antibodies** appear later and disappear relatively quickly after infection resolves - Anti-O antibodies are more indicative of acute/recent infection - Anti-H antibodies are less specific due to their prolonged persistence and possible cross-reactions

Q: Which statement is true regarding the influenza vaccine?

All statements are correct.. ***All statements are correct.*** - Each of the preceding statements is factually accurate regarding influenza vaccines. - The **inactivated vaccine** is widely used, the **live attenuated vaccine** is administered via nasal spray, and the **inactivated vaccine** is given intramuscularly [1]. *The inactivated vaccine is used most commonly.* - The **inactivated influenza vaccine (IIV)**, given by injection, is the most frequently administered type of influenza vaccine. - It is recommended for most age groups and is safe for individuals with chronic medical conditions, pregnant women, and the elderly. *The live attenuated vaccine is given by nasal spray.* - The **live attenuated influenza vaccine (LAIV)**, also known as FluMist, is administered as a **nasal spray** [1]. - This vaccine is suitable for healthy individuals aged 2-49 years and is not recommended for pregnant women or individuals with certain immune compromising conditions. *The inactivated vaccine is given intramuscularly in the deltoid.* - The standard route of administration for the **inactivated influenza vaccine (IIV)** is via **intramuscular injection**, most commonly into the **deltoid muscle** in adults and older children [1]. - This method ensures proper absorption and an effective immune response, a common practice for many vaccines.

Q: Which medium is most commonly used for antibiotic sensitivity testing?

Mueller-Hinton agar. ***Mueller-Hinton agar*** - It is specifically formulated to provide optimal conditions for bacterial growth and **diffusion of antibiotics**, ensuring accurate and reproducible results for sensitivity testing. - Its **low concentration of sulfonamide inhibitors (thymidine and thymine)** and proper calcium and magnesium levels are crucial for accurate results for particular antibiotics. - It is the **gold standard medium** recommended by CLSI (Clinical and Laboratory Standards Institute) for the Kirby-Bauer disk diffusion method. *Blood agar* - Blood agar is a **general-purpose enrichment medium** that supports the growth of a wide range of fastidious microorganisms and is used to detect hemolytic reactions. - While many bacteria grow on blood agar, its composition and opacity can **interfere with precise zone of inhibition measurements** in antibiotic susceptibility testing. *MacConkey agar* - MacConkey agar is a **selective and differential medium** used for the isolation of Gram-negative enteric bacteria and differentiation based on lactose fermentation. - Its selective agents (bile salts and crystal violet) and pH indicators would **interfere with the standardized conditions** required for accurate antibiotic sensitivity testing. *CLED agar* - **Cystine-Lactose-Electrolyte-Deficient (CLED) agar** is primarily used for the isolation and enumeration of urinary tract pathogens, as it prevents the swarming of *Proteus* species and differentiates lactose fermenters from non-fermenters. - It is **not optimized** for antibiotic diffusion or inhibition of bacterial growth in the same way Mueller-Hinton is.

Q: Which mode of ultrasonography is used to measure the axial length of the eyeball?

A-mode Ultrasonography. ***A-mode Ultrasonography*** - **A-mode** (amplitude modulation) ultrasonography is a **one-dimensional** display that measures the distance between structures based on the time it takes for sound waves to reflect. - It is specifically used for **biometry**, such as measuring the axial length of the eyeball for **intraocular lens (IOL) power calculation** prior to cataract surgery. *B-mode Ultrasonography* - **B-mode** (brightness modulation) ultrasonography provides a **two-dimensional** image, displaying the cross-sectional anatomy of organs. - While useful for visualizing ocular structures, it is not primarily used for precise **axial length measurements**. *M-mode Ultrasonography* - **M-mode** (motion mode) ultrasonography displays the **movement** of structures over time in a one-dimensional format. - This mode is typically used in **cardiac imaging** to assess heart valve motion and chamber dimensions, not for static length measurements of the eye. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because **A-mode ultrasonography** is indeed the gold standard for measuring the axial length of the eyeball. - The other modes (B-mode and M-mode) serve different diagnostic purposes in ultrasonography.

Q: In areas with chloroquine-sensitive P. vivax, what is the preferred drug for treating the blood stages?

Chloroquine. ***Correct Option: Chloroquine***- **Chloroquine** remains the **first-line treatment** for **chloroquine-sensitive P. vivax** infections due to its high efficacy and safety profile [1, 2].- It rapidly clears **blood-stage parasites**, alleviating acute symptoms of malaria [3].- In areas where P. vivax remains sensitive, chloroquine is preferred due to low cost, good tolerability, and proven effectiveness [1, 2].*Incorrect Option: Mefloquine*- **Mefloquine** is typically reserved for areas with **chloroquine-resistant P. falciparum** or for prophylaxis in such regions.- Its use is generally avoided when less toxic and equally effective options like chloroquine are available for sensitive strains.- Associated with more neuropsychiatric side effects.*Incorrect Option: Artesunate*- **Artesunate** is an **artemisinin derivative**, primarily used for severe malaria or in areas with **multi-drug resistant P. falciparum**.- While effective, it is not the preferred first-line agent for chloroquine-sensitive P. vivax due to the availability of simpler, equally effective treatments.- Typically used in combination therapy (ACT) for resistant strains.*Incorrect Option: Quinine*- **Quinine** is an older antimalarial, often used for **severe malaria** or in cases of **chloroquine-resistant P. falciparum**.- It has a higher incidence of side effects compared to chloroquine (cinchonism, hypoglycemia) and is not the preferred choice for chloroquine-sensitive P. vivax.- Requires longer treatment duration with more monitoring.

Question 1

Which of the following is NOT a duty of an ASHA worker?

Accepted Answer

Administering zero dose of DPT and OPV

Answer

Assessing the success of national programs under ANM

Answer

Primary screening for prevalence of non-communica​ble diseases

Answer

All of the options

Question 2

Which of the following statements about Anganwadi workers is incorrect?

Accepted Answer

Covers a population of 2000

Answer

Training for 40 days

Answer

Under ICDS scheme

Answer

Mostly female

Question 3

All of the following are causes of perforation of the cartilaginous part of the nasal septum except?

Accepted Answer

Syphilis

Answer

Tuberculosis

Answer

Leprosy

Answer

Trauma

Question 4

Intrathecal fluorescein with endoscopic visualization is useful in diagnosis of?

Accepted Answer

Diagnosis of CSF Rhinorrhoea

Answer

Rhinitis Medicamentosa

Answer

Multiple ethmoidal polyps

Answer

Deviated nasal septum

Question 5

In a patient with hypoglycemia, what is the appropriate dose adjustment of insulin?

Accepted Answer

Decrease insulin dosage

Answer

Increase insulin dosage

Answer

Maintain current insulin dosage

Answer

Add a different medication

Question 6

Which of the following statements about the Widal test is true?

Accepted Answer

The O antigen used in the Widal test is from S. typhi.

Answer

The H-antigen is the most immunogenic.

Answer

Felix tubes are not used in the Widal test.

Answer

Anti-O antibody persists longer than anti-H antibody.

Question 7

Which statement is true regarding the influenza vaccine?

Accepted Answer

All statements are correct.

Answer

The live attenuated vaccine is given by nasal spray.

Answer

The inactivated vaccine is used most commonly.

Answer

The inactivated vaccine is given intramuscularly in the deltoid.

Question 8

Which medium is most commonly used for antibiotic sensitivity testing?

Accepted Answer

Mueller-Hinton agar

Answer

CLED agar

Answer

Blood agar

Answer

MacConkey agar

Question 9

Which mode of ultrasonography is used to measure the axial length of the eyeball?

Accepted Answer

A-mode Ultrasonography

Answer

B-mode Ultrasonography

Answer

M-mode Ultrasonography

Answer

None of the options

Question 10

In areas with chloroquine-sensitive P. vivax, what is the preferred drug for treating the blood stages?

Accepted Answer

Chloroquine

Answer

Mefloquine

Answer

Artesunate

Answer

Quinine

NEET-PG 2015

Community Medicine

ENT

Internal Medicine

Microbiology

Ophthalmology

Pharmacology