NEET-PG 2015 Practice Questions

Q: How often is Village Health and Nutrition Day (VHND) observed?

Once a month. ***Once a month*** - Village Health and Nutrition Day (VHND) is typically observed on a **fixed day each month** to provide essential health and nutrition services at the community level. - This regular schedule ensures consistent access to services like **immunization**, **antenatal care**, and **health education** for rural populations. *Every week* - Observing VHND every week would be a **logistical challenge** given the resources and personnel required for comprehensive service delivery. - Most community-level health programs are not designed for weekly, full-scale events due to the **intensive resource allocation** involved. *Every 6 months* - A frequency of every six months would be **insufficient** to address the ongoing health and nutrition needs of the community, especially for routine immunizations and growth monitoring. - Many public health interventions require more frequent contact to be effective in **preventing disease** and **promoting health**. *Every year* - An annual observation of VHND would be **highly inadequate** for managing public health programs, as it would miss critical windows for interventions like timely immunizations and growth assessments for infants and children. - Annual events are generally reserved for specific campaigns or assessments, not for broad, routine health service delivery.

Q: Which of the following statements about the Pneumococcal Polysaccharide Vaccine (PPV) is correct?

Recommended for individuals with sickle cell disease. ***Recommended for individuals with sickle cell disease*** - Individuals with **sickle cell disease** are at significantly increased risk of severe and invasive **pneumococcal infections** due to **functional asplenia**. - The PPV is crucial for providing **prophylactic protection** against these life-threatening infections in this vulnerable population. *Administered at birth* - The **Pneumococcal Conjugate Vaccine (PCV)** is part of routine childhood immunizations and is administered at specific ages, but neither PCV nor PPV is given **at birth**. - **PCV** is typically given starting at **2 months of age**, while **PPV** is generally recommended for older children and adults at high risk. *Widely used in the general population* - The **Pneumococcal Conjugate Vaccine (PCV)** is widely used in the general *pediatric* population as part of routine immunization schedules. - The **Pneumococcal Polysaccharide Vaccine (PPV)** is primarily recommended for **adults 65 years and older** and individuals with certain **underlying medical conditions** or compromised immune systems, not the general population. *Derived from live attenuated pneumococcal bacteria* - The **PPV** is a **polysaccharide vaccine**, meaning it is composed of purified capsular polysaccharides from various serotypes of *Streptococcus pneumoniae*. - It is an **inactivated vaccine** and does not contain live attenuated bacteria; such a vaccine would be contraindicated in immunocompromised individuals.

Q: Horrock's apparatus is used to measure?

Chlorine demand. ***Chlorine demand*** - Horrock's apparatus is specifically designed for determining the **chlorine demand** of water, which is the amount of **chlorine** consumed by impurities before a **free chlorine residual** is established. - This apparatus is crucial in **water treatment processes** to ensure effective **disinfection** by adjusting chlorine dosages. *Wind velocity* - **Wind velocity** is typically measured using an **anemometer**, a device with rotating cups or a propeller that spins in response to wind. - Horrock's apparatus has no components or mechanisms for detecting or quantifying wind movement. *Humidity* - **Humidity** is measured by instruments such as **hygrometers** or **psychrometers**, which assess the amount of water vapor in the air. - These devices utilize properties like **condensation** or changes in **electrical resistance**, which are unrelated to the function of Horrock's apparatus. *Cooling power* - **Cooling power** refers to the rate at which heat can be removed from a system and is measured using devices like **catathermometers** or specialized **calorimeters**. - Horrock's apparatus is a **chemical testing device** and does not have the capability to measure thermal properties or cooling rates.

Q: According to the 2014 guidelines for female sterilization, which of the following is NOT an eligibility criterion for female sterilization?

Should have at least 1 child. ***Should have at least 1 child*** - The 2014 guidelines **removed the previous requirement** for a specific number of children, focusing instead on **informed consent** and **voluntary decision-making**. - The emphasis is now on the client's **autonomous choice**, regardless of their parity. - Having at least one child is **NOT an eligibility criterion** under the revised guidelines. *Age of at least 22 years* - While there is a minimum age requirement (legally 21 years, though some guidelines mention 22 years), this IS a valid eligibility criterion. - The age criterion ensures that individuals are mature enough to make an **informed and irreversible decision** about permanent contraception. - Younger individuals may be at higher risk of **regret** following sterilization. *Being unmarried* - Marital status is **NOT a barrier** to female sterilization under the 2014 guidelines. - Unmarried individuals have the same right to choose this method of contraception based on **informed consent**. - The decision for sterilization rests solely with the individual, irrespective of their **relationship status**. *Partner is not sterilized* - Partner's sterilization status is **NOT a determining factor** for female sterilization eligibility. - The decision is based on the **individual's choice**, health status, and desire for permanent contraception. - The eligibility criteria focus on the client's **informed consent** and understanding of the procedure, not on the partner's reproductive history.

Q: Which of the following statements about Anganwadi workers is incorrect?

Covers a population of 2000. ***Covers a population of 2000*** - An **Anganwadi center** typically covers a population of **1000** in rural and urban areas, and **700** in tribal areas, not 2000. - This statement is incorrect because the specified population coverage is double the standard norm for an Anganwadi center. *Mostly female* - The vast majority of **Anganwadi workers** are **women** from the local community. - This is a correct statement, reflecting the gender composition of the Anganwadi workforce. *Training for 40 days* - **Anganwadi workers** undergo an initial **training program of 40 days**. - This statement is correct, outlining the standard duration of their foundational training. *Under ICDS scheme* - **Anganwadi centers** are a crucial part of the **Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) scheme**. - This statement is correct, as the ICDS scheme established and oversees Anganwadi centers to provide health, nutrition, and early childhood education services.

Q: Which of the following is NOT a feature of a nasal foreign body?

Deviated septum. ***Deviated septum*** - A **deviated septum** is an anatomical variation of the nasal septum which causes **nasal obstruction** but is not a symptom or complication resulting from a **nasal foreign body**. - It is a structural abnormality that is usually congenital or due to trauma, unrelated to the presence of an object. *Vestibulitis* - **Nasal vestibulitis** can develop as a secondary infection or inflammation around a foreign body due to irritation or bacterial growth. - The constant presence and irritation from the foreign object in the nasal cavity can lead to inflammation and infection of the nasal vestibule. *Epistaxis* - **Epistaxis** (nosebleed) is a common symptom of a nasal foreign body, especially if the object is sharp, causes trauma, or leads to significant irritation of the nasal mucosa. - The foreign body can directly traumatize the blood vessels in the nasal lining, leading to bleeding. *Nasal obstruction* - A **nasal foreign body** will physically block the nasal passage, leading to symptoms of **nasal obstruction**, often unilateral, depending on the size and location of the object. - This is one of the most direct and immediate symptoms caused by the presence of an object within the nasal cavity.

Q: Which of the following statements about CNS leukemia is false?

Single blast in CSF is sufficient for diagnosis. ***Seen with acute myeloid leukemia*** - CNS involvement is typically not a common feature of **acute myeloid leukemia (AML)**; it's more associated with acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) [1]. - While leukemia can affect the CNS, **AML is not predominantly known** for this complication compared to ALL . *Single blast in CSF is sufficient for diagnosis* - A **single blast** in the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) does **not establish a definitive diagnosis** of CNS leukemia; multiple blasts are typically required. - Diagnosis involves considering clinical symptoms, laboratory findings, and often requires **a combination of findings** to confirm CNS involvement. *Intrathecal methotrexate is given* - **Intrathecal methotrexate** is used for treatment of CNS leukemia; however, this statement is true and does not meet the 'except' criteria. - It is a common practice to deliver chemotherapy directly to the CNS to combat leukemia effectively. *CNS irradiation is given* - CNS irradiation can be used as a treatment modality in certain instances of leukemia; thus, this statement is also true. - It is part of the therapeutic strategies for managing CNS involvement but is not universally applied for all cases.

Q: Which of the following is the MOST common condition caused by hypernatremia?

Seizure. ***Seizure*** - While not the *most* common initial symptom, **seizure** can be a severe manifestation of hypernatremia, particularly when the serum sodium levels rise rapidly or to very high concentrations leading to significant neuronal dehydration. - **Rapid correction of severe hypernatremia** can also induce seizures if the brain cells swell too quickly. *Altered mental status* - **Altered mental status** such as lethargy, confusion, or irritability, is a very common and often an earlier symptom of hypernatremia due to neuronal dehydration and intracellular water shifts, but it generally precedes more severe neurological complications like seizures.[1] - It is a broad term that encompasses a range of neurological dysfunctions, and while frequent, it is not as specific a severe endpoint as a seizure. *Brain hemorrhage* - **Brain hemorrhage** is a rare and severe complication of hypernatremia, primarily seen when extreme osmotic shifts cause significant brain shrinkage, leading to tension on bridging veins and potential rupture. - This is not a common presentation and typically occurs only in very severe cases of hypernatremia or during overly rapid correction. *Central pontine myelinosis* - **Central pontine myelinolysis (CPM)** is a neurological disorder caused by too rapid correction of *chronic hyponatremia*, not hypernatremia.[1] - It results from osmotic damage to myelin sheaths in the pons, leading to severe neurological deficits such as dysphagia, dysarthria, and even locked-in syndrome.[1]

Q: A woman traveling from Bihar to Delhi is suspected to have Kala-azar. Suitable investigation is?

Rk-39 test. ***Rk-39 test*** - The **Rk-39 test** is a rapid diagnostic test highly sensitive and specific for detecting antibodies against the **kinesin-related protein K39** of *Leishmania donovani*, the causative agent of **Kala-azar (visceral leishmaniasis)**. - It is particularly useful in **endemic regions** like Bihar for quick and accurate diagnosis, especially in patients with suspected Kala-azar presenting with fever, splenomegaly, and pancytopenia. *P24 antigen* - **P24 antigen** testing is primarily used for the diagnosis of **HIV infection**. - It detects the **core protein p24** of the HIV virus, which is not relevant for the diagnosis of Kala-azar. *Combo RDT* - A **Combo RDT** (Rapid Diagnostic Test), without further specification, typically refers to tests for **malaria**, which detect antigens like **HRP-2** and **aldolase**. - While RDTs are used for parasitic diseases, this general term does not specifically refer to a test for **Kala-azar**. *HRP-2 antigen* - **HRP-2 (Histidine-rich protein 2) antigen** is a specific marker for **Plasmodium falciparum**, used in the diagnosis of **malaria**. - It is not associated with the diagnosis of **Kala-azar**, which is caused by *Leishmania donovani*.

Q: In a patient presenting with fever and suspected systemic infection, which of the following specimens is the most appropriate for the isolation of microorganisms in laboratory diagnosis?

Blood culture for isolation of bacteria. ***Blood culture for isolation of bacteria*** - For **systemic infection** and **fever**, **blood culture** is the most direct method to isolate and identify the causative microorganism disseminated throughout the body. - It helps guide **appropriate antibiotic therapy** by determining the pathogen's **susceptibility profile**. *Stool sample in cases of gastroenteritis* - This specimen is appropriate for diagnosing **gastrointestinal infections** where the pathogen primarily affects the digestive tract. - It is not the primary choice for suspected **systemic infection** unless GI symptoms are prominent and dissemination is suspected. *Throat swab for suspected pharyngitis* - A throat swab is specific for diagnosing **pharyngitis** or upper **respiratory tract infections**, localizing the infection to the pharynx. - It would not sufficiently identify a **systemic infection**, as the pathogen may not be present in the throat in such cases. *Urine sample for urinary tract infection* - A urine sample is indicated for diagnosing **urinary tract infections (UTIs)**, where the pathogen is concentrated in the urinary system. - While a UTI can lead to systemic symptoms, a urine sample alone is insufficient to confirm a generalized systemic infection unless the infection has specifically localized there.

Question 1

How often is Village Health and Nutrition Day (VHND) observed?

Accepted Answer

Once a month

Answer

Every 6 months

Answer

Every week

Answer

Every year

Question 2

Which of the following statements about the Pneumococcal Polysaccharide Vaccine (PPV) is correct?

Accepted Answer

Recommended for individuals with sickle cell disease

Answer

Administered at birth

Answer

Widely used in the general population

Answer

Derived from live attenuated pneumococcal bacteria

Question 3

Horrock's apparatus is used to measure?

Accepted Answer

Chlorine demand

Answer

Wind velocity

Answer

Humidity

Answer

Cooling power

Question 4

According to the 2014 guidelines for female sterilization, which of the following is NOT an eligibility criterion for female sterilization?

Accepted Answer

Should have at least 1 child

Answer

Partner is not sterilized

Answer

Being unmarried

Answer

Age of at least 22 years

Question 5

Which of the following statements about Anganwadi workers is incorrect?

Accepted Answer

Covers a population of 2000

Answer

Training for 40 days

Answer

Under ICDS scheme

Answer

Mostly female

Question 6

Which of the following is NOT a feature of a nasal foreign body?

Accepted Answer

Deviated septum

Answer

Epistaxis

Answer

Nasal obstruction

Answer

Vestibulitis

Question 7

Which of the following statements about CNS leukemia is false?

Accepted Answer

Single blast in CSF is sufficient for diagnosis

Answer

Intrathecal methotrexate is given

Answer

Seen with acute myeloid leukemia

Answer

CNS irradiation is given

Question 8

Which of the following is the MOST common condition caused by hypernatremia?

Accepted Answer

Seizure

Answer

Altered mental status

Answer

Brain hemorrhage

Answer

Central pontine myelinosis

Question 9

A woman traveling from Bihar to Delhi is suspected to have Kala-azar. Suitable investigation is?

Accepted Answer

Rk-39 test

Answer

P24 antigen

Answer

Combo RDT

Answer

HRP-2 antigen

Question 10

In a patient presenting with fever and suspected systemic infection, which of the following specimens is the most appropriate for the isolation of microorganisms in laboratory diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Blood culture for isolation of bacteria

Answer

Stool sample in cases of gastroenteritis

Answer

Throat swab for suspected pharyngitis

Answer

Urine sample for urinary tract infection

NEET-PG 2015

Community Medicine

ENT

Internal Medicine

Microbiology