Anatomy
1 questionsWhich area in the spleen is considered *primarily* thymus-dependent?
NEET-PG 2015 - Anatomy NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 671: Which area in the spleen is considered *primarily* thymus-dependent?
- A. Mantle layer
- B. Malpighian corpuscle
- C. Periarteriolar lymphoid sheath (PALS) (Correct Answer)
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***Periarteriolar lymphoid sheath (PALS)*** - PALS is the **T-cell zone** of splenic white pulp, containing predominantly **T-lymphocytes** arranged around central arterioles. [2] - This area is **thymus-dependent** as it houses mature T cells that have undergone thymic selection and education, making it the primary thymus-dependent area of the spleen. [1] *Mantle layer* - The mantle layer consists of **naïve B lymphocytes** that surround the germinal center within splenic follicles. - This area is **thymus-independent** and primarily involved in **B-cell responses** to antigens. *Malpighian corpuscle* - Also known as **splenic follicles** or white pulp, this area primarily functions as **B-cell aggregation zones**. - While containing both B and T cell areas, it's predominantly **thymus-independent** with its main role being B-cell activation and antibody production. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because PALS clearly represents the primary **thymus-dependent area** in the spleen. - The spleen definitively contains thymus-dependent zones where **T-cell activation** and proliferation occur, specifically the PALS. [1]
Biochemistry
1 questionsWhat is the molecular mass of Immunoglobulin G (IgG) in kilodaltons (kDa)?
NEET-PG 2015 - Biochemistry NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 671: What is the molecular mass of Immunoglobulin G (IgG) in kilodaltons (kDa)?
- A. 150 (Correct Answer)
- B. 400
- C. 1000
- D. 1500
Explanation: **\*Correct Option: 150 kDa\*** - **Immunoglobulin G (IgG)** is the most abundant antibody in human serum and has a characteristic molecular mass of approximately **150 kDa**. - This mass is attributed to its structure, comprising two identical **heavy chains** (~50 kDa each) and two identical **light chains** (~25 kDa each). - IgG represents about **75-80% of total serum immunoglobulins** and is the main antibody involved in secondary immune responses. *Incorrect Option: 400 kDa* - A molecular mass of **400 kDa** is significantly higher than that of a monomeric IgG molecule. - This mass is closer to **IgM pentamers** (~900 kDa) or large protein complexes, but still does not match any standard immunoglobulin structure. *Incorrect Option: 1000 kDa* - A molecular mass of **1000 kDa (1 MDa)** is far too large for a single IgG molecule. - This weight typically corresponds to very large macromolecular structures or aggregates, such as **ribosomes** or large enzyme complexes. *Incorrect Option: 1500 kDa* - A molecular mass of **1500 kDa (1.5 MDa)** is extremely large for an individual antibody. - Such a mass would be characteristic of very large protein assemblies, viral capsids, or cellular components, not a soluble antibody.
Microbiology
6 questionsRiver blindness is caused by?
What is required for precipitation in comparison to agglutination?
Which of the following statements about the VDRL test is LEAST accurate?
In the context of diagnosing syphilis, which of the following is an example of a precipitation test?
Haptens are immunogenic when they covalently bind to which type of carrier?
Which human IgG subclass has the highest serum concentration?
NEET-PG 2015 - Microbiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 671: River blindness is caused by?
- A. Loa loa
- B. Ascaris
- C. B. malayi
- D. Onchocerca volvulus (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Onchocerca volvulus*** - **River blindness**, or **onchocerciasis**, is caused by the parasitic nematode *Onchocerca volvulus*. - This parasite is transmitted by the bite of infected **blackflies** (genus *Simulium*), which breed in fast-flowing rivers. *Loa loa* - *Loa loa* causes **Loiasis**, also known as African eye worm disease. - While it can manifest as an eye worm and cause itching and swelling, it does not typically lead to permanent blindness or the widespread skin lesions associated with river blindness. *Ascaris* - *Ascaris lumbricoides* causes **ascariasis**, an intestinal infection. - Symptoms are primarily gastrointestinal, such as abdominal pain, malnutrition, and, in severe cases, intestinal obstruction; it does not affect the eyes or cause blindness. *B. malayi* - *Brugia malayi* is one of the causes of **lymphatic filariasis**, also known as **elephantiasis**. - This disease primarily affects the lymphatic system, causing severe swelling in the limbs and genitals, but it does not cause blindness.
Question 672: What is required for precipitation in comparison to agglutination?
- A. Soluble antigen (Correct Answer)
- B. Increased temperature
- C. Specific cofactor
- D. Lower pH
Explanation: ***Soluble antigen*** - **Precipitation reactions** involve the interaction of antibodies with **soluble antigens** to form a detectable precipitate. - Unlike **agglutination**, which involves particulate antigens (e.g., cells), precipitation requires the antigen to be dissolved in a solution. *Increased temperature* - Most immunologic reactions, including precipitation and agglutination, are typically performed at **physiological temperatures** (e.g., 37°C) or room temperature. - An **increased temperature** is not a specific requirement that differentiates precipitation from agglutination. *Specific cofactor* - While some complex immunologic reactions might require **cofactors**, neither precipitation nor agglutination inherently requires a specific cofactor to occur. - The primary components are **antigen** and **antibody**. *Lower pH* - Both precipitation and agglutination reactions are sensitive to pH and typically occur within a **narrow pH range** close to neutral (e.g., pH 7.0-7.4). - A **lower pH** (acidic environment) could lead to antibody denaturation or non-specific aggregation, ultimately hindering the reaction rather than being a requirement.
Question 673: Which of the following statements about the VDRL test is LEAST accurate?
- A. VDRL is a treponemal-specific test with high specificity (Correct Answer)
- B. RPR is better than VDRL for monitoring drug therapy
- C. VDRL is a non-treponemal test and can give false positive results
- D. VDRL is a slide flocculation test for syphilis
Explanation: ***VDRL is a treponemal-specific test with high specificity*** - This statement is inaccurate because the **VDRL test** is a **non-treponemal** test, meaning it detects antibodies to cardiolipin, a lipid released from damaged host cells, rather than directly detecting antibodies to *Treponema pallidum*. - Non-treponemal tests like VDRL are known for their potential to produce **false-positive results** due to various conditions. *VDRL is a non-treponemal test and can give false positive results* - The **VDRL test** is indeed a **non-treponemal** test, detecting antibodies against cardiolipin, cholesterol, and lecithin. - Since it detects host-derived antibodies rather than specific *Treponema pallidum* antibodies, it is prone to **false-positive results** in conditions like autoimmune diseases, infections, and pregnancy. *RPR is better than VDRL for monitoring drug therapy* - Both **RPR (Rapid Plasma Reagin)** and VDRL are used to monitor response to therapy in syphilis, but **RPR is sometimes preferred** due to its ease of use (no need for a microscope), stability of reagents, and clearer macroscopic end-point. - The **titers of both VDRL and RPR typically decrease** after successful treatment, indicating a good response to therapy. *VDRL is a slide flocculation test for syphilis* - The **VDRL test** is a **flocculation test** where cardiolipin antigen mixed with a patient's serum (containing reagin antibodies) results in visible clumping or flocculation under a microscope. - It is used as a screening test for **syphilis**, caused by *Treponema pallidum*.
Question 674: In the context of diagnosing syphilis, which of the following is an example of a precipitation test?
- A. Rose waaler test
- B. Widal test
- C. Latex agglutination
- D. Kahn test (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Kahn test*** - The Kahn test is a **flocculation** or **precipitation** test used for diagnosing syphilis. - It detects **reagin antibodies** in the patient's serum that react with a non-treponemal antigen (cardiolipin antigen). *Rose waaler test* - The Rose Waaler test is an **agglutination test** used to detect **rheumatoid factor** in patients with rheumatoid arthritis, not syphilis. - It involves sheep red blood cells sensitized with rabbit anti-sheep erythrocyte antibody. *Widal test* - The Widal test is an **agglutination test** used for the diagnosis of **typhoid fever**, detecting antibodies against *Salmonella* O and H antigens. - It is not used for the diagnosis of syphilis. *Latex agglutination* - Latex agglutination is a general type of **agglutination test** where antigen or antibody is coated onto latex particles. - While used in various diagnoses, it is not a specific precipitation test for syphilis in the context of classic methods like the Kahn test.
Question 675: Haptens are immunogenic when they covalently bind to which type of carrier?
- A. Lipid carrier
- B. Polysaccharide carrier
- C. Protein carrier (Correct Answer)
- D. None of the above carrier
Explanation: ***Protein carrier*** - Haptens are small molecules that are **antigenic** but not **immunogenic** on their own; they acquire immunogenicity when covalently bound to a larger carrier molecule. - **Proteins** are highly effective carriers because their complex structures and multiple epitopes can induce strong T-cell help, which is crucial for a robust antibody response against the hapten. *Lipid carrier* - While some lipids can be antigenic (e.g., glycolipids), they generally do not serve as effective carriers for haptens to induce a strong adaptive immune response, especially T-cell-dependent responses. - **Lipids** are less likely to be processed and presented by MHC molecules in a way that generates potent helper T-cell activation. *Polysaccharide carrier* - Some polysaccharides can be immunogenic themselves (e.g., bacterial capsular polysaccharides) and can induce T-cell-independent antibody responses. - However, for haptens to become immunogenic and induce a **T-cell-dependent antibody response**, a protein carrier is typically required. *None of the above carrier* - This option is incorrect because haptens do require a carrier to become immunogenic, and specific types of carriers are more effective than others. - The type of carrier chosen significantly impacts the **strength and nature of the immune response** to the hapten.
Question 676: Which human IgG subclass has the highest serum concentration?
- A. IgG1 (Correct Answer)
- B. IgG2
- C. IgG3
- D. IgG4
Explanation: ***IgG1*** - **IgG1** constitutes approximately **60-70%** of the total IgG in human serum, making it the most abundant subclass. - Its high concentration reflects its crucial role in **neutralizing toxins**, agglutinating viruses, and opsonizing bacteria for phagocytosis. *IgG2* - **IgG2** makes up about **20-30%** of total IgG and is primarily important in protecting against **polysaccharide-encapsulated bacteria**. - While significant, its serum concentration is notably lower than that of IgG1. *IgG3* - **IgG3** is the least abundant IgG subclass, accounting for only **5-8%** of total IgG, and is characterized by a shorter half-life. - Despite its low concentration, it is highly efficient in activating the **complement system** due to its flexible hinge region. *IgG4* - **IgG4** comprises approximately **3-6%** of total IgG and is unique for its ability to undergo **Fab arm exchange**, leading to bispecific antibodies. - It does not activate complement and is often associated with allergy and protection against parasitic infections, but its concentration is significantly less than IgG1.
Obstetrics and Gynecology
1 questionsIgM appears in fetus at what gestational age -
NEET-PG 2015 - Obstetrics and Gynecology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 671: IgM appears in fetus at what gestational age -
- A. 10 weeks
- B. 20 weeks (Correct Answer)
- C. 30 weeks
- D. at birth
Explanation: ***20 weeks*** - The fetal immune system begins to develop around **20 weeks of gestation**, at which point the fetus starts producing its own **IgM antibodies**. - **IgM** is the first antibody isotype produced by the developing fetal **B lymphocytes** and is important for early immune responses. *10 weeks* - While some components of the immune system may start to differentiate earlier, **IgM production** at a functional level is not yet established at **10 weeks of gestation**. - At this early stage, the fetal immune system is still primarily in its **developmental phase**, with major organogenesis occurring. *30 weeks* - By **30 weeks**, the fetus has already been producing IgM for several weeks, and the immune system is more mature, capable of a more robust **antibody response**. - While **IgG** levels are significantly increasing due to maternal transfer at this stage, **IgM production** began earlier. *at birth* - At birth, a neonate has circulating **IgM antibodies**, which are indicative of prior fetal immune activation and are measurable in umbilical cord blood. - However, the initial production of **fetal IgM** occurs much earlier in gestation, not at the time of birth.
Pathology
1 questionsWhat is the Rose Waaler test used for?
NEET-PG 2015 - Pathology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 671: What is the Rose Waaler test used for?
- A. Ring precipitation
- B. Precipitation in gel
- C. Complement fixation test
- D. Passive hemagglutination test (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Passive hemagglutination test*** - The **Rose Waaler test** is a historical **rheumatoid factor (RF)** detection method based on **passive hemagglutination**. - It uses sheep red blood cells coated with a subagglutinating dose of rabbit anti-sheep red blood cell antibody to detect RF in patient serum. *Complement fixation test* - This assay detects the presence of **antibody** or **antigen** by observing whether **complement** is consumed in an antigen-antibody reaction. - The Rose Waaler test does not involve the measurement of complement consumption. *Precipitation in gel* - This technique, such as **immunodiffusion**, involves the formation of a visible **precipitate** when soluble antigens and antibodies diffuse through a gel matrix and meet at optimal concentrations. - The Rose Waaler test relies on agglutination of red blood cells, not precipitation in gel. *Ring precipitation* - A **ring precipitation test** involves layering an antigen solution over an antibody solution, creating an antigen-antibody complex visible as a **precipitate ring** at the interface of the two solutions. - This method is distinct from the Rose Waaler test which uses red blood cell agglutination.