Anatomy
3 questionsWhich of the following muscles is not supplied by the femoral nerve?
Superior gluteal nerve does not supply?
What is the uppermost structure in left lung hilum?
NEET-PG 2015 - Anatomy NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 41: Which of the following muscles is not supplied by the femoral nerve?
- A. Pectineus
- B. Sartorius
- C. Vastus medialis
- D. Obturator externus (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Obturator externus*** - The **obturator externus** muscle is primarily supplied by the **obturator nerve** (L3-L4), which arises from the lumbar plexus, not the femoral nerve. - Its main function is the **lateral rotation of the thigh** at the hip joint. *Pectineus* - The **pectineus** muscle receives dual innervation, typically from both the **femoral nerve** (L2-L4) and the obturator nerve. - It aids in **adduction**, **flexion**, and **medial rotation** of the thigh. *Sartorius* - The **sartorius** muscle is entirely supplied by the **femoral nerve** (L2-L3). - It is responsible for **flexing, abducting, and laterally rotating the thigh** at the hip, and flexing the leg at the knee. *Vastus medialis* - The **vastus medialis** is one of the four muscles forming the quadriceps femoris group, all of which are exclusively supplied by the **femoral nerve** (L2-L4). - This muscle is crucial for **extending the leg** at the knee joint.
Question 42: Superior gluteal nerve does not supply?
- A. Tensor fasciae latae
- B. Gluteus medius
- C. Gluteus minimus
- D. Gluteus maximus (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Gluteus maximus*** - The **gluteus maximus** muscle is primarily innervated by the **inferior gluteal nerve** (L5, S1, S2), not the superior gluteal nerve. - Its main actions include **extension** and **external rotation** of the hip. *Tensor fasciae latae* - The **tensor fasciae latae** is innervated by the **superior gluteal nerve** (L4, L5, S1). - This muscle helps in **flexion**, **abduction**, and **internal rotation** of the hip. *Gluteus medius* - The **gluteus medius** muscle receives its innervation from the **superior gluteal nerve** (L4, L5, S1). - It is a primary **abductor** and **internal rotator** of the hip, crucial for pelvic stability. *Gluteus minimus* - The **gluteus minimus** is also innervated by the **superior gluteal nerve** (L4, L5, S1). - Its functions are similar to the gluteus medius, including **abduction** and **internal rotation** of the hip.
Question 43: What is the uppermost structure in left lung hilum?
- A. Pulmonary artery (Correct Answer)
- B. Pulmonary vein
- C. Bronchial artery
- D. Left mainstem bronchus
Explanation: ***Pulmonary artery*** - In the **left lung hilum**, the **pulmonary artery** typically lies superior to the bronchus. - This anatomical position helps differentiate it from the relations in the right lung hilum, where the pulmonary artery is anterior to the bronchus. *Pulmonary vein* - The **pulmonary veins** are usually located anterior and inferior to the bronchus in both lung hila. - They tend to be the most anterior and inferior structures carrying oxygenated blood from the lungs. *Bronchial artery* - **Bronchial arteries** are smaller vessels that typically run on the posterior surface of the bronchi. - They are not considered the uppermost main structure in the hilum. *Left mainstem bronchus* - The **left mainstem bronchus** is usually found inferior to the pulmonary artery and posterior to the pulmonary veins in the left hilum. - It is a prominent structure but not the most superior.
Biochemistry
1 questionsWhich is the first steroid intermediate formed in the conversion of cholesterol to steroid hormones?
NEET-PG 2015 - Biochemistry NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 41: Which is the first steroid intermediate formed in the conversion of cholesterol to steroid hormones?
- A. Glucocorticoid
- B. Mineralocorticoid
- C. Estradiol
- D. Pregnenolone (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Pregnenolone*** - **Pregnenolone** is the **first steroid intermediate** formed from **cholesterol** in steroidogenesis - The conversion occurs in mitochondria via the **cholesterol side-chain cleavage enzyme (P450scc/CYP11A1)** - This is the **rate-limiting step** in steroid hormone biosynthesis - From pregnenolone, all other steroid hormones are subsequently synthesized *Progesterone* - Progesterone is the **second intermediate**, formed from pregnenolone - It serves as a precursor for glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, and androgens - Not the first intermediate from cholesterol *Glucocorticoid* - Glucocorticoids (e.g., cortisol) are **end products**, not intermediates - Formed several steps downstream from cholesterol via pregnenolone and progesterone *Mineralocorticoid* - Mineralocorticoids (e.g., aldosterone) are **end products**, not intermediates - Synthesized from progesterone through multiple enzymatic steps *Estradiol* - Estradiol is a **late-stage product** synthesized from androgens - Requires aromatase enzyme for conversion from testosterone - Multiple steps removed from the initial cholesterol conversion
Community Medicine
1 questionsRandomization is done to reduce?
NEET-PG 2015 - Community Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 41: Randomization is done to reduce?
- A. Recall bias
- B. Selection bias (Correct Answer)
- C. Berksonian bias
- D. Reporting bias
Explanation: ***Selection bias*** - **Randomization** ensures that each participant has an equal chance of being assigned to any study group, which helps to distribute both known and unknown confounding factors evenly. - This process minimizes **selection bias** by promoting comparability between groups, making it more likely that any observed differences are due to the intervention rather than pre-existing differences. *Recall bias* - **Recall bias** occurs when there are systematic differences in the way participants remember or report past exposures or events, often seen in retrospective studies. - While randomization helps control for confounding, it does not directly prevent participants from inaccurately recalling information. *Berksonian bias* - **Berksonian bias** is a form of selection bias where the probability of being admitted to a hospital (or selected into a study) is affected by the presence of a co-morbidity, leading to a distorted association between diseases. - Randomization aims to balance characteristics *within* the study groups once participants are recruited, but it doesn't address biases related to the initial selection into the study population from a larger source. *Reporting bias* - **Reporting bias** refers to selective revealing or suppression of information, either by study participants (e.g., social desirability bias) or by researchers (e.g., only reporting positive findings). - Randomization helps ensure internal validity by creating comparable groups, but it does not prevent individuals from selectively reporting outcomes or experiences.
Dental
1 questionsWhich subtype of Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML) is most commonly associated with gum hypertrophy?
NEET-PG 2015 - Dental NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 41: Which subtype of Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML) is most commonly associated with gum hypertrophy?
- A. Acute Myeloid Leukemia M2
- B. Acute Myeloid Leukemia M3
- C. Acute Myeloid Leukemia M4 (Correct Answer)
- D. Acute Myeloid Leukemia M1
Explanation: ***M4*** - **Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML) M4** is associated with **monocytic differentiation**, leading to gum hypertrophy due to infiltration of the gums by leukemic cells [1]. - Patients may present with **gingival bleeding**, pain, and swelling in addition to other systemic symptoms of leukemia. *M3* - Known as **acute promyelocytic leukemia**, it typically presents with **coagulopathy** and not gum hypertrophy [1]. - Characterized by **promyelocytes** with heavy granulation and the presence of **faggot cells** (auer rods) [1]. *M2* - Represents a **myeloblastic type** of acute leukemia but is less commonly associated with **gingival hyperplasia**. - Associated with **more typical myeloid features** and presents with **anemia** and **thrombocytopenia**. *M1* - This is a **minimally differentiated type** of acute myeloid leukemia with **myeloblasts** and no significant differentiating features like gum hypertrophy. - Often presents with **rapid onset of symptoms** related to bone marrow failure, rather than localized gum issues. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Diseases of White Blood Cells, Lymph Nodes, Spleen, and Thymus, pp. 620-622.
Internal Medicine
1 questionsWhich of the following statements about Alport's syndrome is incorrect?
NEET-PG 2015 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 41: Which of the following statements about Alport's syndrome is incorrect?
- A. Nerve deafness
- B. Glomerulonephritis
- C. Autosomal dominant (Correct Answer)
- D. X-linked
Explanation: ***Autosomal dominant*** - While there are rare autosomal dominant forms, the most common and classic presentation of **Alport's syndrome is X-linked recessive**, affecting males more severely. - This statement is incorrect because it implies that autosomal dominant inheritance is the primary or typical mode, which is not true for the majority of cases. *Nerve deafness* - **Sensorineural hearing loss**, particularly for high frequencies, is a common and characteristic extra-renal manifestation of Alport's syndrome. - This symptom typically progresses with age and is a key diagnostic feature. *Glomerulonephritis* - **Progressive glomerulonephritis** is the hallmark renal feature of Alport's syndrome, leading to hematuria, proteinuria, and eventually end-stage renal disease. - It is caused by mutations in collagen type IV genes, which disrupt the integrity of the glomerular basement membrane. *X-linked* - The majority of Alport's syndrome cases (about 85%) are **X-linked recessive**, caused by mutations in the *COL4A5* gene located on the X chromosome. - This explains why males are more severely affected and typically present with earlier onset and more rapid progression of renal disease.
Pathology
1 questionsGastric carcinoma is associated with all of the following EXCEPT:
NEET-PG 2015 - Pathology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 41: Gastric carcinoma is associated with all of the following EXCEPT:
- A. Over expression of C-met
- B. Inactivation of p53
- C. Over expression of C-erb
- D. Activation of RAS (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Activation of RAS*** - **RAS mutations** are relatively uncommon in gastric carcinoma compared to other gastrointestinal malignancies. While KRAS mutations can occur in approximately 10-15% of gastric cancers (particularly intestinal type), they are **far less frequent** than in **pancreatic adenocarcinoma** (~90%) or **colorectal carcinoma** (~40%). - In the context of gastric carcinoma, RAS pathway alterations are **not considered a major oncogenic driver** compared to the other molecular changes listed, making this the **LEAST characteristically associated** alteration. *Inactivation of p53* - **Inactivation of the p53 tumor suppressor gene** is one of the most frequent molecular events in gastric carcinoma, occurring in approximately **50-60% of cases**. - Loss of p53 function leads to genomic instability, uncontrolled cell proliferation, and resistance to apoptosis, contributing significantly to **tumorigenesis** and **poor prognosis**. *Over expression of C-met* - **Overexpression of C-MET**, a receptor tyrosine kinase for hepatocyte growth factor (HGF), is commonly observed in gastric carcinoma (30-40% of cases) and is strongly linked to **tumor growth**, **invasion**, and **metastasis**. - C-MET amplification and overexpression promote cell proliferation, survival, migration, and angiogenesis, making it an important **therapeutic target** in advanced gastric cancer. *Over expression of C-erb* - **Overexpression of C-erbB-2 (HER2/neu)** is found in approximately **10-20% of gastric adenocarcinomas**, particularly the intestinal type. - HER2 amplification or overexpression is a significant **prognostic and predictive biomarker**, and is specifically targeted by **trastuzumab** (Herceptin) therapy in HER2-positive advanced gastric cancer, improving survival outcomes.
Pharmacology
2 questionsWhich dopamine receptor is known for its inhibitory action in the central nervous system?
XDR-TB is defined as resistance to which of the following drug combinations?
NEET-PG 2015 - Pharmacology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 41: Which dopamine receptor is known for its inhibitory action in the central nervous system?
- A. Dopamine Receptor D5
- B. No inhibitory dopamine receptor present
- C. Dopamine Receptor D2 (Correct Answer)
- D. Dopamine Receptor D1
Explanation: ***Dopamine Receptor D2*** - The **D2 receptor** is a member of the D2-like family (D2, D3, D4), which are **G-protein coupled receptors** that inhibit adenylyl cyclase activity. - Its activation typically leads to a **decrease in neuronal excitability** and neurotransmitter release, providing an inhibitory effect in the CNS. *Dopamine Receptor D5* - The **D5 receptor** belongs to the D1-like family (D1, D5), which are **G-protein coupled receptors** that stimulate adenylyl cyclase activity. - Activation of D5 receptors typically leads to **excitatory effects** rather than inhibitory ones in the CNS. *No inhibitory dopamine receptor present* - This statement is incorrect as specific dopamine receptor subtypes, particularly the **D2-like family**, are well-established to exert inhibitory actions in the CNS. - These inhibitory effects are crucial for various physiological processes, including motor control and reward pathways. *Dopamine Receptor D1* - The **D1 receptor** is part of the D1-like family (D1, D5) and is known for its **excitatory effects** in the CNS. - Activation of D1 receptors leads to an **increase in intracellular cAMP** and generally enhances neuronal activity.
Question 42: XDR-TB is defined as resistance to which of the following drug combinations?
- A. INH plus rifampicin
- B. Fluoroquinolones plus INH plus amikacin
- C. Fluoroquinolones plus rifampicin plus kanamycin
- D. Fluoroquinolones plus INH plus rifampicin plus amikacin (Correct Answer)
Explanation: **Fluoroquinolones plus INH plus rifampicin plus amikacin** - **Extensively drug-resistant tuberculosis (XDR-TB)** is defined by resistance to the most effective anti-TB drugs: **isoniazid (INH)**, **rifampicin**, any **fluoroquinolone**, and at least one of the three injectable second-line drugs (**amikacin**, **kanamycin**, or **capreomycin**). - This combination signifies a substantial therapeutic challenge due to limited treatment options and a high risk of treatment failure. *INH plus rifampicin* - Resistance to **INH** and **rifampicin** defines **multidrug-resistant tuberculosis (MDR-TB)**, which is a precursor to XDR-TB but not XDR-TB itself. - While serious, MDR-TB is not as extensively resistant as XDR-TB, as it doesn't include resistance to fluoroquinolones and second-line injectables. *Fluoroquinolones plus INH plus amikacin* - This combination is incomplete for the definition of XDR-TB because it omits **rifampicin** from the core definition. - XDR-TB specifically requires resistance to both **INH** and **rifampicin** (defining MDR-TB), in addition to resistance to a fluoroquinolone and one of the injectable second-line drugs. *Fluoroquinolones plus rifampicin plus kanamycin* - This combination is also incomplete for the definition of XDR-TB as it omits **isoniazid (INH)**, which is one of the two most crucial first-line drugs that characterize MDR-TB. - XDR-TB builds upon MDR-TB's resistance to both INH and rifampicin.