Internal Medicine
1 questionsWhich type of thyroid cancer is associated with primary hyperparathyroidism and phaeochromocytoma?
NEET-PG 2015 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 331: Which type of thyroid cancer is associated with primary hyperparathyroidism and phaeochromocytoma?
- A. Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid (Correct Answer)
- B. Papillary carcinoma of the thyroid
- C. Anaplastic carcinoma of the thyroid
- D. Follicular carcinoma of the thyroid
Explanation: ***Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid*** - Associated with **multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN) syndrome type 2**, which includes primary hyperparathyroidism and phaeochromocytoma [1]. - Medullary carcinoma arises from **C cells** (parafollicular cells) and is linked with **elevated calcitonin** levels. *Papillary carcinoma of the thyroid* - The most common type of thyroid cancer, but **not associated** with MEN syndromes. - Typically presents as a solitary **nodule** and is linked with **radiation exposure** rather than endocrine syndromes. *Anaplastic carcinoma of the thyroid* - A highly aggressive and undifferentiated form of thyroid cancer, often associated with **poor prognosis**. - Usually arises in older adults and does not have associations with **hyperparathyroidism** or phaeochromocytoma. *Follicular carcinoma of the thyroid* - Characterized by **thyroid follicle formation** and can be associated with **iodine deficiency**, but not with MEN syndromes. - It usually presents as a **solitary thyroid nodule** and lacks connection with **primary hyperparathyroidism**.
Pathology
2 questionsFibrosis associated with liver cirrhosis is mediated by -
Which of the following markers is specific for gastro-intestinal stromal tumor (GIST)?
NEET-PG 2015 - Pathology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 331: Fibrosis associated with liver cirrhosis is mediated by -
- A. Platelet-Derived Growth Factor (PDGF)
- B. Transforming Growth Factor-beta (TGF-β) (Correct Answer)
- C. Vascular Endothelial Growth Factor (VEGF)
- D. Tumor Necrosis Factor-alpha (TNF-α)
Explanation: ***PDGF*** - Platelet-Derived Growth Factor (**PDGF**) is a critical mediator in the **fibrogenic response** associated with liver cirrhosis [1]. - It stimulates the **proliferation** and activation of hepatic stellate cells, leading to excessive **collagen deposition** and fibrosis [1][2]. *ICAM-1* - Intercellular Adhesion Molecule-1 (**ICAM-1**) primarily mediates **cell adhesion** and is involved in inflammatory processes, not directly in fibrosis. - While it may play a role in **leukocyte recruitment**, it does not contribute significantly to the fibrogenic pathway in liver cirrhosis. *PcAM-l* - **PCAM-1** (Platelet/endothelial cell adhesion molecule-1) is involved in **cell adhesion** and is primarily expressed on endothelial cells. - Its role is more associated with **angiogenesis** and inflammation, lacking direct involvement in the fibrogenic process of cirrhosis. *IFN-y* - Interferon-gamma (**IFN-y**) is a cytokine that predominantly has a role in **immune modulation** and does not directly induce fibroblast activation. - It may have regulatory effects on inflammation but does not lead to significant fibrosis associated with liver cirrhosis. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. With Illustrations By, pp. 31-32. [2] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Liver and Gallbladder, pp. 830-832.
Question 332: Which of the following markers is specific for gastro-intestinal stromal tumor (GIST)?
- A. CD117 (Correct Answer)
- B. CD34
- C. CD23
- D. S-100
Explanation: ***CD 117*** - CD 117 (c-KIT) is the **primary marker** for gastrointestinal stromal tumors (GIST), indicating the presence of the **c-KIT gene mutation** [1]. - Its expression is crucial for diagnosing GISTs, as it is found in nearly all cases of these tumors. *CD 34* - While CD 34 is expressed in some GISTs, it is a **more general marker** associated with stem cells and not specific for GISTs. - GISTs can be negative for CD 34, making it unsuitable for definitive diagnosis. *S-100* - S-100 is typically a marker for **melanocytes** and neuroectodermal tumors, not for GISTs. - It is often used to identify **schwannomas** or **melanomas**, which are unrelated to GIST pathology. *CD 23* - CD 23 is primarily a marker for **chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)** and some forms of lymphoma, not associated with GISTs. - Its presence indicates **lymphoid** lineage, further diverging from GISTs, which are **mesenchymal tumors**. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Gastrointestinal Tract, pp. 782-783.
Pharmacology
6 questionsWhich statement best describes first-order kinetics in pharmacokinetics?
Alkaline diuresis in drug poisoning is not done in?
Permission from DCGI [Drug controller general, India] is needed before which phase of drug trial?
Which of the following are CYP3A inhibitors?
Regarding the concepts of efficacy and potency of a drug, which of the following statements is FALSE?
Volume of distribution of a drug is 500 ml and target concentration of drug in blood is 5 g/L. 20% of administered drug is reached to systemic circulation. What will be the loading dose of that drug -
NEET-PG 2015 - Pharmacology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 331: Which statement best describes first-order kinetics in pharmacokinetics?
- A. Absorption of the drug is independent of the serum concentration
- B. Elimination of the drug is proportional to the serum concentration (Correct Answer)
- C. Absorption of the drug is proportional to the serum concentration
- D. Elimination of the drug is independent of the serum concentration
Explanation: ***Elimination of the drug is proportional to the serum concentration*** - In **first-order kinetics**, a **constant fraction** (or percentage) of the drug is eliminated per unit of time. - This means that as the **serum drug concentration** increases, the absolute amount of drug eliminated per unit time also increases proportionally. *Absorption of the drug is independent of the serum concentration* - Drug absorption is generally driven by factors like **concentration gradient**, surface area, and blood flow, and while it can be influenced by drug concentration, this statement does not define first-order kinetics of *elimination*. - This statement is not the primary characteristic distinguishing first-order from zero-order kinetics regarding drug disposition. *Elimination of the drug is independent of the serum concentration.* - This describes **zero-order kinetics**, where a **constant amount** of drug is eliminated per unit of time, regardless of the serum concentration. - In zero-order kinetics, the elimination rate becomes saturated, so the elimination process cannot keep up with higher drug concentrations. *Absorption of the drug is proportional to the serum concentration* - While drug absorption can be proportional to the concentration (especially through passive diffusion), first-order kinetics specifically refers to the **elimination phase** of pharmacokinetics. - The rate of absorption can be a complex process and is not the defining characteristic for distinguishing first-order from zero-order *elimination*.
Question 332: Alkaline diuresis in drug poisoning is not done in?
- A. Aspirin
- B. Morphine (Correct Answer)
- C. Phenobarbitone
- D. Methotrexate
Explanation: ***Morphine*** - **Morphine** is an **alkaline drug**, so its elimination is actually enhanced by **acidification of the urine**, not alkalinization. - Alkaline diuresis would decrease the ionization of morphine in the renal tubules, leading to **increased reabsorption** and reduced excretion. *Aspirin* - **Aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid)** is an **acidic drug**, and **alkaline diuresis** is effective in increasing its excretion by trapping the ionized form in the renal tubules. - This process prevents reabsorption and promotes clearance, which is a standard treatment for aspirin overdose. *Methotrexate* - **Methotrexate** is a **weak organic acid**, and **alkaline diuresis** is crucial in reducing its toxicity, especially in high-dose therapy. - By increasing urine pH, the renal elimination of methotrexate is significantly enhanced, preventing kidney damage and systemic accumulation. *Phenobarbitone* - **Phenobarbitone** is a **weak acid**, and **alkaline diuresis** is a well-established method to increase its renal excretion in cases of overdose. - Alkalinization of the urine promotes the ionization of phenobarbitone, reducing its reabsorption by the renal tubules and accelerating its elimination.
Question 333: Permission from DCGI [Drug controller general, India] is needed before which phase of drug trial?
- A. Phase 1
- B. Phase 2
- C. Phase 3 (Correct Answer)
- D. Phase 4
Explanation: ***Phase 3*** - Permission from the **DCGI (Drug Controller General of India)** is mandatory before initiating **Phase 3** clinical trials as per **Schedule Y** of the Drugs and Cosmetics Rules. - Phase 3 trials involve **large-scale studies in Indian patients** to establish efficacy and safety in the target population, requiring explicit regulatory approval. - This is the critical regulatory checkpoint where DCGI evaluates the Phase 1 and 2 data before allowing widespread testing in Indian subjects. *Phase 1* - Phase 1 trials can be conducted after approval from the **Institutional Ethics Committee (IEC)** without requiring prior DCGI permission. - These trials in healthy volunteers focus on safety, pharmacokinetics, and dose-ranging studies. - DCGI is informed but explicit permission is not mandatory at this stage. *Phase 2* - Phase 2 trials also proceed with **IEC approval** and do not require prior DCGI permission. - These trials evaluate therapeutic efficacy and dose determination in a limited number of patients. - Results from Phase 2 are submitted to DCGI when seeking Phase 3 approval. *Phase 4* - Phase 4 trials are **post-marketing surveillance** studies conducted after drug approval. - These are conducted under the Post-Marketing Surveillance (PMS) framework. - While regulatory oversight exists, these are not pre-market trials requiring permission to initiate.
Question 334: Which of the following are CYP3A inhibitors?
- A. Ritonavir
- B. Amiodarone
- C. Verapamil
- D. Both a and c (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Both a and c (Ritonavir and Verapamil)*** - **Ritonavir** is a **potent CYP3A4 inhibitor**, one of the strongest known, commonly used as a pharmacokinetic booster for other protease inhibitors to increase their bioavailability - **Verapamil** is a **calcium channel blocker** that acts as a **moderate CYP3A4 inhibitor**, leading to clinically significant drug interactions requiring dose adjustments - Both drugs have **clinically relevant and well-established** CYP3A4 inhibitory effects *Ritonavir alone* - While correct that Ritonavir is a potent CYP3A4 inhibitor, this option is incomplete as it excludes Verapamil - Ritonavir's inhibitory effect is so strong that it can increase plasma concentrations of co-administered CYP3A4 substrates by several-fold *Amiodarone* - Amiodarone is primarily a **potent inhibitor of CYP2C9, CYP2D6, and P-glycoprotein** - While it does have **weak to moderate CYP3A4 inhibitory activity**, this effect is **less clinically significant** compared to its effects on other CYP enzymes - In the context of clinically important CYP3A4 inhibitors, Ritonavir and Verapamil are more relevant examples *Verapamil alone* - While correct that Verapamil is a CYP3A4 inhibitor, this option is incomplete as it excludes Ritonavir - Verapamil can increase plasma concentrations of drugs like simvastatin, cyclosporine, and other CYP3A4 substrates
Question 335: Regarding the concepts of efficacy and potency of a drug, which of the following statements is FALSE?
- A. ED50 of the drug corresponds to efficacy (Correct Answer)
- B. Drugs that produce a similar pharmacological effect can have different levels of efficacy
- C. In a clinical setup, efficacy is more important than potency
- D. In the log dose response curve, the height of the curve corresponds with efficacy
Explanation: ***ED50 of the drug corresponds to efficacy*** - **ED50** (median effective dose) is the dose at which 50% of individuals exhibit the specified effect; it quantifies **potency**, not efficacy. - **Efficacy** refers to the maximum effect a drug can produce, while potency refers to the amount of drug needed to produce an effect. *In a clinical setup, efficacy is more important than potency* - **Efficacy** determines the maximal therapeutic benefit a drug can achieve for a patient, making it crucial for clinical outcomes. - While **potency** influences the dose required, a highly potent drug that is not very efficacious may not be clinically useful. *Drugs that produce a similar pharmacological effect can have different levels of efficacy* - Two drugs might act on the same receptor but elicit different maximal responses, indicating varying **efficacy**. - For example, a **partial agonist** and **full agonist** interacting with the same receptor will have different efficacies. *In the log dose response curve, the height of the curve corresponds with efficacy* - The **maximal response** or plateau of the dose-response curve represents the **efficacy** of a drug. - A higher plateau on the curve indicates a drug with greater intrinsic activity achieving a larger effect.
Question 336: Volume of distribution of a drug is 500 ml and target concentration of drug in blood is 5 g/L. 20% of administered drug is reached to systemic circulation. What will be the loading dose of that drug -
- A. 1 gm
- B. 5 gm
- C. 25 gm
- D. 12.5 gm (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***12.5 gm*** - The formula for loading dose (LD) is: LD = (Target Concentration × Volume of Distribution) / Bioavailability. - Given: Target Concentration = 5 g/L, Volume of Distribution = 500 mL = 0.5 L, Bioavailability = 20% = 0.2. - So, LD = (5 g/L × 0.5 L) / 0.2 = 2.5 g / 0.2 = **12.5 g**. *1 gm* - This value would be obtained if the target concentration was 2 g/L with 100% bioavailability, or if the calculation incorrectly handled the volume or bioavailability factor. - It does not account for the specified **bioavailability of 20%** or the given target concentration and volume of distribution. *5 gm* - This result would be obtained if the bioavailability was assumed to be 50% (LD = 2.5 g / 0.5 = 5 g), or if the volume of distribution was incorrectly used in the calculation. - This option does not correctly factor in the **20% bioavailability** of the administered drug. *25 gm* - This value would result from mistakes such as dividing by bioavailability of 10% instead of 20% (LD = 2.5 g / 0.1 = 25 g), or by multiplying bioavailability instead of dividing by it. - This answer significantly **overestimates** the required dose, which could lead to drug toxicity.
Surgery
1 questionsSolution currently used for liver preservation for transplantation is?
NEET-PG 2015 - Surgery NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 331: Solution currently used for liver preservation for transplantation is?
- A. IGL-1 solution
- B. Ross Marshall Citrate solution
- C. University of Wisconsin (UW) solution (Correct Answer)
- D. Kyoto ET solution
Explanation: ***University of Wisconsin (UW) solution*** - The **University of Wisconsin (UW) solution** is widely considered the gold standard for **organ preservation**, particularly for liver transplantation, due to its superior ability to extend cold ischemia time. - It contains a unique blend of components, including **lactobionate, raffinose, and hydroxyethyl starch**, which help to minimize cellular swelling, prevent free radical injury, and maintain cellular integrity during cold storage. *IGL-1 solution* - **IGL-1** is a more recent preservation solution designed to be used with **machine perfusion** systems. - While showing promise, it is **not yet as universally adopted** as UW solution for static cold storage of livers. *Ross Marshall Citrate solution* - The **Ross Marshall Citrate solution** was an older solution primarily used for **kidney preservation**. - It has been largely **superseded by newer solutions** with improved efficacy for liver and other organ preservation. *Kyoto ET solution* - **Kyoto ET solution** is another preservation solution primarily used in **Japan**, particularly for **kidney and pancreas preservation**. - While effective for those organs, it is **not the most commonly used** or preferred solution for liver preservation globally.