Anatomy
1 questionsWhere do primitive red blood cells first originate during early embryonic development?
NEET-PG 2015 - Anatomy NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 311: Where do primitive red blood cells first originate during early embryonic development?
- A. Liver
- B. Yolk sac (Correct Answer)
- C. Bone marrow
- D. Spleen
Explanation: ***Yolk sac*** - The **yolk sac** is the primary site of **hematopoiesis** during the first few weeks of embryonic development. - Primitive erythroid cells (red blood cells) originate here to supply the developing embryo with oxygen. *Liver* - The **liver** takes over as the main hematopoietic organ from about the 6th week of gestation, after the yolk sac [1]. - While it produces various blood cells, it is not the *first* site of primitive red blood cell formation. *Bone marrow* - **Bone marrow** becomes the primary site of hematopoiesis during the **fetal period** (around the 20th to 24th week) and continues throughout postnatal life [2]. - It is not involved in the initial production of primitive red blood cell formation in early embryogenesis. *Spleen* - The **spleen** plays a minor role in fetal hematopoiesis, mainly producing lymphoid cells and some myeloid cells, and can take on myeloid functions if the bone marrow is compromised. - It is not the initial site of red blood cell production in the early embryo.
Biochemistry
2 questionsWhich of the following statements are true regarding the visual cycle cascade?
C4, C5, and N7 in the purine ring are derived from which of the following?
NEET-PG 2015 - Biochemistry NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 311: Which of the following statements are true regarding the visual cycle cascade?
- A. All of the options are true (Correct Answer)
- B. Light causes isomerization of 11-cis-retinal to all-trans-retinal
- C. Retinal is involved in the visual cycle
- D. Involves a conformational change in opsin
Explanation: ***All of the statements are true*** The visual cycle cascade involves multiple interconnected events in phototransduction: **Light causes isomerization of 11-cis-retinal to all-trans-retinal** - This is the **primary photochemical event** that initiates vision - Light absorption causes the **cis-trans isomerization** in less than a picosecond - This conformational change is the only light-dependent step in the entire cascade **Retinal is involved in the visual cycle** - **11-cis-retinal** serves as the chromophore bound to opsin forming rhodopsin - After isomerization to **all-trans-retinal**, it must be converted back to 11-cis-retinal - This regeneration occurs through the **retinoid cycle** involving RPE cells **Involves a conformational change in opsin** - The isomerization of retinal triggers **conformational changes in opsin** - This converts rhodopsin to **metarhodopsin II** (the active form) - Activated opsin then activates **transducin** (G-protein), amplifying the signal and leading to hyperpolarization of photoreceptor cells All three statements accurately describe essential components of the visual cycle cascade.
Question 312: C4, C5, and N7 in the purine ring are derived from which of the following?
- A. CO₂
- B. Aspartate
- C. Glutamine
- D. Glycine (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Glycine*** - The entire **glycine molecule** contributes C4, C5, and N7 to the purine ring structure. - This amino acid provides a significant portion of the backbone to the imidazole ring within the purine. *Aspartate* - **Aspartate** contributes N1 to the purine ring. - It does not involve C4, C5, or N7, which are distinct atoms within the purine molecule. *CO₂* - **CO₂** contributes C6 to the purine ring through a carboxylation step. - It is not involved in providing the atoms at positions C4, C5, or N7. *Glutamine* - The nitrogen atoms N3 and N9 in the purine ring are derived from the **amide nitrogen of glutamine**. - Glutamine's contributions are different from the carbons and nitrogen provided by glycine.
Physiology
7 questionsInotropic effect of thyroid hormone is by ?
What physiological mechanism is responsible for the increase in the duration of expiration?
Which of the following statements is true regarding smooth muscle contraction?
Which of the following is not a component of a mature sperm cell?
What does the transient response observed during the insertion of an electrode in electromyography (EMG) indicate?
What do motor evoked potentials primarily assess?
Which protein primarily contributes to oncotic pressure in the blood?
NEET-PG 2015 - Physiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 311: Inotropic effect of thyroid hormone is by ?
- A. Membrane receptors
- B. cAMP
- C. cGMP
- D. Enhancement of Catecholamines (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Enhancement of Catecholamines*** - Thyroid hormones **potentiate the effects of catecholamines** (like adrenaline and noradrenaline) on the heart, leading to increased heart rate and contractility, which is an **inotropic effect**. - This occurs by increasing the number and sensitivity of **beta-adrenergic receptors** on cardiac muscle cells. *Membrane receptors* - While thyroid hormones do have some rapid, non-genomic effects that may involve **membrane receptors**, their primary and well-established inotropic effect is mediated indirectly through catecholamine sensitivity. - The classic action of thyroid hormones is via intracellular receptors that modulate gene expression, not direct membrane receptor signaling for inotropic effects. *cAMP* - **cAMP** is a common second messenger for many hormones, particularly those acting via G protein-coupled receptors. - While catecholamines themselves act through cAMP to exert their cardiac effects, thyroid hormones *enhance the action* of catecholamines rather than directly using cAMP as their primary inotropic mechanism. *cGMP* - **cGMP** is a second messenger often associated with nitric oxide signaling and vasodilation, contributing to cGMP-dependent protein kinases. - It is not the primary mediator for the *positive inotropic effect* of thyroid hormones on the heart.
Question 312: What physiological mechanism is responsible for the increase in the duration of expiration?
- A. J-reflex
- B. Head's paradoxical reflex
- C. Proprioceptors
- D. Hering-Breuer reflex (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Hering-Breuer reflex*** - The **Hering-Breuer reflex** is initiated by **stretch receptors in the bronchi and bronchioles** which are activated during lung inflation. - This reflex **inhibits inspiration** and **prolongs expiration**, preventing overinflation of the lungs. *J-reflex* - The **J-reflex** is stimulated by **juxtacapillary (J) receptors** in the alveolar walls, usually in response to pulmonary edema or congestion. - It typically causes **rapid, shallow breathing** and **bronchoconstriction**, not prolonged expiration. *Head's paradoxical reflex* - **Head's paradoxical reflex** (also known as the **inflation reflex** in newborns) involves an inspiratory effort triggered by lung inflation, often overcoming the Hering-Breuer reflex in specific conditions. - It tends to **increase respiratory rate** and depth, not prolong expiration. *Proprioceptors* - **Proprioceptors** are sensory receptors in muscles, tendons, and joints that provide information about body position and movement. - While they can influence respiration during exercise, they are not primarily responsible for directly **increasing the duration of expiration** as a reflex mechanism against overinflation.
Question 313: Which of the following statements is true regarding smooth muscle contraction?
- A. None of the options.
- B. Calmodulin plays no role in smooth muscle contraction.
- C. Phosphorylation of myosin is essential for contraction. (Correct Answer)
- D. Troponin plays a significant role in smooth muscle contraction.
Explanation: **Phosphorylation of myosin is essential for contraction.** - In **smooth muscle**, the **myosin light chain (MLC)** must be phosphorylated by **myosin light chain kinase (MLCK)** to enable interaction with actin and initiate contraction. - This phosphorylation causes a conformational change in the **myosin head**, increasing its ATPase activity and allowing cross-bridge cycling. *Calmodulin plays no role in smooth muscle contraction.* - **Calmodulin (CaM)** is crucial for smooth muscle contraction, as it binds **calcium ions (Ca²⁺)** forming a Ca²⁺-CaM complex. - This complex then activates **myosin light chain kinase (MLCK)**, which phosphorylates myosin, triggering contraction. *None of the options.* - This statement is incorrect because one of the provided options, "Phosphorylation of myosin is essential for contraction," is indeed true. *Troponin plays a significant role in smooth muscle contraction.* - Unlike **striated muscle (skeletal and cardiac)**, **smooth muscle** does not contain **troponin**. - Regulation of smooth muscle contraction is primarily **calcium-calmodulin-dependent**, with roles for **MLCK** and **MLCP**, rather than troponin.
Question 314: Which of the following is not a component of a mature sperm cell?
- A. Lysosome
- B. Golgi apparatus
- C. Mitochondria
- D. Endoplasmic reticulum (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Endoplasmic reticulum*** - The **endoplasmic reticulum** is prominent in spermatogonia and spermatocytes but largely absent in **mature sperm** as organelles are shed during spermiogenesis to reduce cell volume. - Its primary functions of protein synthesis and lipid metabolism are not required in a terminally differentiated, motile cell like a mature sperm. *Golgi apparatus* - The **Golgi apparatus** reorganizes during spermiogenesis to form the **acrosome**, which is a crucial structure for fertilization. - While the distinct Golgi stacks are not present, its modified derivative, the acrosome, is an essential component. *Mitochondria* - **Mitochondria** are abundant in the midpiece of the sperm tail, arranged in a spiral sheath. - They are vital for generating the **ATP** required for the flagellum's motility, enabling the sperm to swim. *Lysosome* - Although typical lysosomes are not found, the **acrosome** of the sperm is considered a modified lysosome. - The acrosome contains **hydrolytic enzymes** similar to lysosomes, which are critical for penetrating the egg's outer layers during fertilization.
Question 315: What does the transient response observed during the insertion of an electrode in electromyography (EMG) indicate?
- A. Spontaneous muscle activity
- B. Voluntary muscle contraction
- C. Cell membrane disruption (Correct Answer)
- D. Induced muscle contraction
Explanation: **Cell membrane disruption** - The **transient response** observed during electrode insertion in **EMG** is caused by the mechanical trauma of the needle disrupting the **muscle fiber cell membranes**. - This disruption leads to a brief depolarization and subsequent repolarization of the affected fibers, generating characteristic electrical activity. *Spontaneous muscle activity* - **Spontaneous muscle activity**, such as **fibrillation potentials** or **positive sharp waves**, occurs independently of electrode insertion. - While observed during EMG, these are indicative of **denervation** or **myopathy** and are not directly caused by the act of insertion itself. *Voluntary muscle contraction* - **Voluntary muscle contraction** is recorded when the patient actively contracts the muscle and results in **motor unit action potentials (MUAPs)**. - This is a distinct process from the transient activity produced by electrode insertion. *Induced muscle contraction* - **Induced muscle contraction** typically refers to activity caused by **nerve stimulation** (e.g., in nerve conduction studies) or direct electrical stimulation of the muscle. - This is not the mechanism for the transient response during simple electrode insertion.
Question 316: What do motor evoked potentials primarily assess?
- A. Central motor pathways (Correct Answer)
- B. Both central and peripheral motor pathways
- C. Muscle regeneration
- D. Peripheral motor pathways
Explanation: ***Central motor pathways*** - **Motor evoked potentials (MEPs)** are generated by electrical or magnetic stimulation of the **motor cortex** and primarily assess the integrity of **central motor pathways**, specifically the **corticospinal tracts**. - MEPs are the **gold standard** for monitoring **upper motor neuron** function during neurosurgical and spinal procedures. - The technique is most sensitive to dysfunction in the **brain and spinal cord** (central nervous system), making this their primary clinical utility. *Peripheral motor pathways* - While MEPs do eventually activate peripheral motor neurons to produce muscle responses, they are **not the primary tool** for assessing peripheral pathways. - **Nerve conduction studies (NCS)** and **electromyography (EMG)** are direct and more specific measures for evaluating peripheral motor nerve function. *Both central and peripheral motor pathways* - Although MEPs provide information about the entire motor pathway from cortex to muscle, their **primary diagnostic strength and clinical application** is in detecting dysfunction within the **central nervous system**. - The latency and amplitude of MEPs are most sensitive to **conduction abnormalities along the corticospinal tract**, not peripheral nerves. *Muscle regeneration* - MEPs do **not assess muscle regeneration** or intrinsic muscle health. - **Electromyography (EMG)** with needle examination and **muscle biopsy** are the appropriate methods to evaluate muscle regeneration and myopathic processes.
Question 317: Which protein primarily contributes to oncotic pressure in the blood?
- A. Albumin (Correct Answer)
- B. Globulins
- C. Fibrinogen
- D. Transferrin
Explanation: ***Albumin*** - **Albumin** is the most abundant plasma protein and its small size and high concentration make it the primary determinant of **oncotic pressure** in the blood. - Its presence in the capillaries draws water from the **interstitial space** back into the blood vessels, maintaining **fluid balance** and blood volume. *Fibrinogen* - **Fibrinogen** is a crucial protein involved in **blood clotting**, where it is converted into **fibrin** to form a clot. - While a plasma protein, its contribution to **oncotic pressure** is minor compared to albumin, as it's less abundant and larger in size. *Globulins* - **Globulins** are a diverse group of proteins involved in immune function (**immunoglobulins**), transport (e.g., **alpha** and **beta globulins**), and clotting. - While they contribute to total plasma protein concentration, their collective impact on **oncotic pressure** is secondary to that of albumin due to lower concentrations and varied molecular weights. *Transferrin* - **Transferrin** is a specific **beta-globulin** that plays a vital role in **iron transport** in the blood. - Its primary function is not related to **oncotic pressure**, and its concentration is significantly lower than albumin.