Anatomy
1 questionsSpleniculi are most commonly found in which of the following locations?
NEET-PG 2015 - Anatomy NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 301: Spleniculi are most commonly found in which of the following locations?
- A. Colon
- B. Liver
- C. Lungs
- D. Hilum of the spleen (Correct Answer)
Explanation: No relevant citations could be added to the explanation as the provided text passages did not contain information regarding spleniculi (accessory spleens), their location, or their embryology. ***Hilum of the spleen*** - **Spleniculi** (accessory spleens) are most commonly found at the **hilum of the spleen**, accounting for approximately **75% of cases**. - During **embryonic development**, the spleen forms from mesenchymal tissue in the dorsal mesogastrium, and small fragments of splenic tissue can separate and persist as accessory spleens. - The **splenic hilum** is the most frequent location due to the close proximity during development, followed by the gastrosplenic ligament, tail of pancreas, and greater omentum. - Accessory spleens are found in **10-30% of the population** and are clinically significant in conditions requiring complete splenectomy (e.g., ITP, hereditary spherocytosis). *Colon* - The colon is part of the **gastrointestinal tract** with a completely different embryological origin (endodermal). - Splenic tissue development occurs in the **dorsal mesogastrium** (mesodermal origin), making the colon an anatomically and embryologically implausible location for spleniculi. *Liver* - The liver develops from the **ventral foregut endoderm** and is anatomically distant from the spleen's developmental region. - **Splenosis** (traumatic implantation) could theoretically occur, but congenital spleniculi in the liver are exceptionally rare and not a recognized common location. *Lungs* - The lungs are part of the **respiratory system**, developing from the foregut endoderm in the thoracic cavity. - There is no embryological connection between lung and splenic tissue development, making this an impossible location for congenital accessory spleens.
Biochemistry
7 questionsWhich of the following statements about Niemann-Pick disease is false?
Which protein does the domain of plasminogen resemble?
Which of the following stimulates Acetyl CoA Carboxylase?
HDL is called good cholesterol because -
Amide group is present in which part of protein?
Creatinine is formed from -
Coenzyme for phenylalanine hydroxylase is?
NEET-PG 2015 - Biochemistry NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 301: Which of the following statements about Niemann-Pick disease is false?
- A. Due to deficiency of sphingomyelinase.
- B. CNS symptoms are present in type A.
- C. Type B Niemann-Pick disease is characterized by severe neurological symptoms. (Correct Answer)
- D. Histiocytes show PAS positive inclusions, and Type A is more severe.
Explanation: ***Type B Niemann-Pick disease is characterized by severe neurological symptoms.*** - This statement is **false** because **Type B Niemann-Pick disease** generally presents with **visceral involvement** (e.g., hepatosplenomegaly, lung disease) with **minimal to no neurological symptoms**. - **Severe neurological symptoms** are characteristic of **Type A Niemann-Pick disease**, which involves widespread CNS degeneration and a more rapidly progressive course. *Due to deficiency of sphingomyelinase.* - This statement is **true**. - Niemann-Pick disease (Types A and B) is caused by a deficiency of the enzyme **acid sphingomyelinase**, leading to the accumulation of sphingomyelin within lysosomes, particularly in macrophages. *CNS symptoms are present in type A.* - This statement is **true**. - **Type A Niemann-Pick disease** is the most severe form and is characterized by significant **neurodegeneration** in addition to visceral involvement. - Patients typically present with **developmental regression**, **ataxia**, and **spasticity** due to extensive sphingomyelin deposition in the central nervous system. *Histiocytes show PAS positive inclusions, and Type A is more severe.* - This statement is **true**. - The characteristic "foam cells" (lipid-laden macrophages/histiocytes) found in tissues of Niemann-Pick patients stain positive with **periodic acid–Schiff (PAS)** due to accumulated sphingomyelin. - **Type A Niemann-Pick disease** is indeed the most severe form, with a rapidly progressive course and early fatality, usually by early childhood.
Question 302: Which protein does the domain of plasminogen resemble?
- A. Fibrinogen (a clotting protein)
- B. LDL receptor (a lipid metabolism protein)
- C. Apolipoprotein (a) (a lipoprotein) (Correct Answer)
- D. Prothrombin (a coagulation protein)
Explanation: ***Apolipoprotein (a) (a lipoprotein)*** - **Plasminogen** and **apolipoprotein (a)** share structural homology, specifically due to the presence of **kringle domains**. - This structural similarity suggests a potential for apolipoprotein (a) to **interfere with plasminogen’s fibrinolytic activity**, contributing to **atherosclerosis**. *Fibrinogen (a clotting protein)* - While plasmin acts on fibrinogen (and its derivative fibrin), its domain structure does not **resemble fibrinogen**. - **Fibrinogen** is a large, multi-domain glycoprotein crucial for **clot formation**, distinct from plasminogen's primarily **kringle-rich structure**. *LDL receptor (a lipid metabolism protein)* - The **LDL receptor** is involved in **cholesterol uptake** by cells and has structural features like ligand-binding repeats and epidermal growth factor (EGF) repeats. - Its domain structure is **not similar to plasminogen**, which is characterized by **kringle domains** and a protease domain. *Prothrombin (a coagulation protein)* - **Prothrombin** is a precursor to thrombin, featuring **gla domains**, kringle-like domains (though structurally distinct from plasminogen's), and a serine protease domain. - While both are involved in coagulation/fibrinolysis, their **overall domain arrangements and specific kringle structures differ** significantly.
Question 303: Which of the following stimulates Acetyl CoA Carboxylase?
- A. Starvation
- B. Glucagon
- C. Citrate (Correct Answer)
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***Citrate*** - **Citrate** is an allosteric activator of **Acetyl-CoA Carboxylase (ACC)**, indicating abundant energy and precursor availability for fatty acid synthesis. - This activation promotes the conversion of **Acetyl-CoA** to **Malonyl-CoA**, the committed step in **fatty acid synthesis**. *Starvation* - **Starvation** leads to energy deficit, which generally **inhibits** anabolic processes like fatty acid synthesis. - In this state, enzymes involved in anabolic pathways are often downregulated or inhibited to conserve energy. *Glucagon* - **Glucagon** is a hormone that signals low blood glucose and promotes catabolic processes such as **glycogenolysis** and **gluconeogenesis**. - It **inhibits** fatty acid synthesis by phosphorylating and inactivating **Acetyl-CoA Carboxylase**, thus opposing citrate's activating effect. *None of the options* - **Citrate** is a known stimulator of Acetyl CoA Carboxylase. - This option is incorrect because there is a correct answer among the choices.
Question 304: HDL is called good cholesterol because -
- A. Removes cholesterol from peripheral tissues (Correct Answer)
- B. Increases cholesterol delivery to peripheral tissues
- C. Stimulates cholesterol synthesis in the liver
- D. Activates enzymes that break down triglycerides
Explanation: ***Removes cholesterol from peripheral tissues*** - **High-density lipoprotein (HDL)** is known as "good cholesterol" due to its role in **reverse cholesterol transport**, a process where it collects excess cholesterol from peripheral cells and tissues. - This action helps to prevent the accumulation of cholesterol in arteries, thereby reducing the risk of **atherosclerosis** and cardiovascular disease. - HDL then transports this cholesterol to the liver for excretion via bile, completing the protective cycle. *Increases cholesterol delivery to peripheral tissues* - This is actually the opposite of HDL's function and describes the role of **LDL (low-density lipoprotein)**, which is considered "bad cholesterol." - LDL delivers cholesterol to peripheral tissues, and excess LDL can lead to **atherosclerotic plaque formation**. *Stimulates cholesterol synthesis in the liver* - HDL does not directly stimulate cholesterol synthesis in the liver; rather, its role is primarily in **cholesterol efflux** from cells and transport. - The liver's cholesterol synthesis is regulated by various factors, including dietary intake and cellular cholesterol levels via the **SREBP pathway**, but HDL does not upregulate hepatic cholesterol synthesis. *Activates enzymes that break down triglycerides* - While HDL does activate **LCAT (lecithin-cholesterol acyltransferase)** for cholesterol esterification, its primary "good" function is not the breakdown of triglycerides. - **Lipoprotein lipase (LPL)** is the primary enzyme responsible for triglyceride breakdown in lipoproteins like VLDL and chylomicrons.
Question 305: Amide group is present in which part of protein?
- A. Amino-terminal
- B. Peptide bond (Correct Answer)
- C. Disulfide bond
- D. Carboxy-terminal
Explanation: ***Peptide bond*** - A **peptide bond** is formed between the **carboxyl group** of one amino acid and the **amino group** of another, releasing a water molecule. This bond has an **amide structure**. - The repeated formation of these amide (peptide) bonds links amino acids into long chains, forming a **polypeptide** or protein. *Amino-terminal* - The **amino-terminal (N-terminal)** end of a protein contains a free **amino group (-NH2)**, which is not part of an amide linkage within the polypeptide backbone. - It marks the beginning of the polypeptide chain and is typically involved in various cellular interactions and modifications. *Disulfide bond* - A **disulfide bond** is a covalent bond formed between two **sulfhydryl groups (-SH)** of **cysteine residues**, leading to the formation of a **cystine** residue. - This bond is crucial for stabilizing the **tertiary and quaternary structures** of proteins, but it does not contain an amide group. *Carboxy-terminal* - The **carboxy-terminal (C-terminal)** end of a protein contains a free **carboxyl group (-COOH)**, which is not part of an amide linkage within the polypeptide backbone. - It marks the end of the polypeptide chain and plays roles in protein processing, targeting, and regulation.
Question 306: Creatinine is formed from -
- A. Creatine (Correct Answer)
- B. Lysine
- C. Leucine
- D. Histidine
Explanation: ***Creatine*** - **Creatinine** is a waste product formed from the non-enzymatic, irreversible degradation of **creatine** and **creatine phosphate**, primarily in muscles. - **Creatine** itself is synthesized endogenously from three amino acids: **glycine, arginine, and methionine** (as S-adenosylmethionine) through a two-step enzymatic process in the kidney and liver. - The amount of creatinine produced daily is relatively constant and directly proportional to an individual's **muscle mass**, making it a useful marker for renal function. *Lysine* - **Lysine** is an **essential amino acid** and a precursor for various compounds like **carnitine** but is not involved in creatinine or creatine formation. - Deficiency can lead to impaired protein synthesis but does not impact creatinine levels. *Leucine* - **Leucine** is another **essential amino acid** and a **branched-chain amino acid (BCAA)** crucial for muscle protein synthesis and repair. - It does not serve as a direct precursor for creatinine or creatine. *Histidine* - **Histidine** is an **essential amino acid** and a precursor for **histamine** and other important compounds, but not creatinine or creatine. - It plays roles in immune response and gastric acid secretion.
Question 307: Coenzyme for phenylalanine hydroxylase is?
- A. Tetrahydrofolate
- B. Pyridoxal phosphate
- C. S-adenosyl methionine
- D. Tetrahydrobiopterin (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Tetrahydrobiopterin*** - **Tetrahydrobiopterin (BH4)** is an essential coenzyme for aromatic amino acid hydroxylases, including **phenylalanine hydroxylase (PAH)**. - PAH converts **phenylalanine** to **tyrosine**, and deficiencies in BH4 or PAH itself lead to *phenylketonuria (PKU)*. *Tetrahydrofolate* - **Tetrahydrofolate (THF)** is a coenzyme derived from **folic acid** and is primarily involved in **one-carbon metabolism**, including **purine** and **pyrimidine synthesis**, and various amino acid interconversions. - It does not directly act as a coenzyme for phenylalanine hydroxylase. *Pyridoxal phosphate* - **Pyridoxal phosphate (PLP)**, a derivative of **vitamin B6**, is a crucial coenzyme for many enzymes involved in **amino acid metabolism**, particularly in **transamination**, **decarboxylation**, and side-chain cleavage reactions. - It is not the coenzyme for phenylalanine hydroxylase. *S-adenosyl methionine* - **S-adenosyl methionine (SAM)** is a major **methyl donor** in various biochemical reactions, important for the synthesis of **neurotransmitters**, **hormones**, and **phospholipids**. - While essential for many metabolic pathways, it is not involved as a coenzyme for phenylalanine hydroxylase.
Physiology
2 questionsWhat is the respiratory quotient?
Which part of the sympathetic nervous system is responsible for secreting catecholamines?
NEET-PG 2015 - Physiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 301: What is the respiratory quotient?
- A. CO2 released to O2 consumed (Correct Answer)
- B. CO2 consumed to O2 released
- C. O2 released to CO2 consumed
- D. O2 consumed to CO2 released
Explanation: **CO2 released to O2 consumed** - The **respiratory quotient (RQ)** is a ratio used in metabolism to describe the proportion of **carbon dioxide (CO2) produced** by the body relative to the **oxygen (O2) consumed**. - It is calculated as the **volume of CO2 released** divided by the **volume of O2 consumed** over a specific period. - RQ = VCO2/VO2, where VCO2 is CO2 production and VO2 is O2 consumption. *CO2 consumed to O2 released* - This option is incorrect as it reverses the correct order and refers to **CO2 consumption and O2 release**, which are not the standard components of the RQ calculation. - The body primarily **releases CO2** and **consumes O2** during cellular respiration. *O2 released to CO2 consumed* - This option is also incorrect because it inverts both the gases and the direction of their metabolic flow (release vs. consumption). - Metabolic processes involve **O2 consumption** and **CO2 release**, not the other way around. *O2 consumed to CO2 released* - This option incorrectly reverses the numerator and denominator in the RQ formula. - The standard definition places **CO2 production** in the numerator and **O2 consumption** in the denominator.
Question 302: Which part of the sympathetic nervous system is responsible for secreting catecholamines?
- A. Cardiac ganglion
- B. Cervical sympathetic chain
- C. Adrenal medulla (Correct Answer)
- D. Thoracic sympathetic chain
Explanation: ***Adrenal medulla*** - The adrenal medulla acts as a modified **sympathetic ganglion**, directly innervated by **preganglionic sympathetic fibers**. - Upon stimulation, it releases a high concentration of **epinephrine** (adrenaline) and a smaller amount of **norepinephrine** (noradrenaline) into the bloodstream, acting as hormones. *Cardiac ganglion* - **Cardiac ganglia** are parasympathetic ganglia located in the heart, involved in regulating heart rate and contractility via acetylcholine release. - They do not secrete **catecholamines** but rather act as relay stations for parasympathetic innervation. *Cervical sympathetic chain* - The **cervical sympathetic chain** primarily innervates structures in the head, neck, and upper limbs, influencing functions like pupils, salivary glands, and sweat glands. - While it contains sympathetic neurons, its primary role is not the systemic release of **catecholamines** into the bloodstream. *Thoracic sympathetic chain* - The **thoracic sympathetic chain** provides sympathetic innervation to organs in the thoracic and abdominal cavities, influencing heart rate, bronchodilation, and visceral blood flow. - Like other sympathetic ganglia, it releases norepinephrine at target organ synapses, but it does not serve as a major endocrine gland for systemic catecholamine release.